BILL NUMBER: AB 1023	INTRODUCED
	BILL TEXT


INTRODUCED BY   Assembly Member Wagner

                        FEBRUARY 18, 2011

   An act to amend Sections 114, 809, 901, 3501, 3769.3, 4207,
6140.38, 6322.1, 7056, 7065, 7068.1, 7071, 7155, 8030.4, 19164,
19481.5, 19501, 19532.2, 19604.5, 19605.73, 19614.5, 23358.2,
23368.1, 23378.1, 25608, and 25658 of, and to repeal Sections 6731.1,
6731.2, 8726.1, and 8761.1 of, the Business and Professions Code, to
amend Sections 798.23.5, 799.1, 1195, and 3344.1 of the Civil Code,
to amend Sections 170.9, 630.01, 630.08, 877, 1010.6, and 1094.5 of
the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Sections 10400, 10404, 14501,
14502, and 14504 of, and to amend the heading of Part 9 (commencing
with Section 10400) of Division 2 of Title 1 of, the Corporations
Code, to amend Sections 1630, 12001.6, 17250.30, 37222, 41203, 41204,
41320.1, 41326, 41500, 44237, 45330, 51223.3, 51913, 66152, 66739.6,
67365, 68074, 89090, 92630, and 99221.5 of, and to repeal Sections
37222.10, 37222.11, 37222.12, 37222.13, and 37222.14 of, the
Education Code, to amend Sections 332.5, 337, 2151, 3103.5, 6950,
7110, 8002.5, 8121, 10735, 12108, 13207, and 13208 of the Elections
Code, to amend Section 1390 of the Evidence Code, to amend Sections
4326, 5616, and 6228 of the Family Code, to amend Sections 1805,
1822, 14315, 17345.1, 22349.1, 22352, and 22355 of the Financial
Code, to amend Sections 2250, 2942, and 6612 of the Fish and Game
Code, to amend Sections 481, 11504, 13184, 79691, and 79702 of the
Food and Agricultural Code, to amend Sections 831.7, 901, 912.5,
935.9, 3254.5, 6585, 7513.87, 7514, 11019.5, 12517, 12627, 14661.1,
15439, 19829.7, 20037.14, 21369.2, 22874.1, 56853.6, 63049.67, 66484,
72011, 76000.10, 100521 of, to repeal Sections 7480 and 11544 of, to
repeal the heading of Article 10 (commencing with former Section
58300) of Chapter 1 of Division 1 of Title 6 of, and to amend and
renumber Sections 7514 and 18929.96 of, the Government Code, to amend
Section 1150 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, to amend Sections
1357.51, 1365, 1367.002, 1385.01, 1399.834, 1399.835, 1506, 1777,
1788, 1793.90, 1797.172, 1797.217, 8016, 11364, 16500, 25214.2,
25214.3, 25250.50, 25250.54, 25250.56, 25996, 33331.4, 33334.25,
33420.1, 33684, 41999, 44272.3, 44559.11, 50843.5, 51058.5, 102247,
103605, 103625, 115113, 120335, 120955, 121025, and 124982 of the
Health and Safety Code, to amend Sections 557.5, 787.1, 1063.75,
10112.2, 10112.3, 10112.4, 10113.95, 10120.3, 10181, 10713, 10959,
10960, 12389, and 12739.53 of the Insurance Code, to amend Sections
1509, 1695, and 1771.3 of the Labor Code, to amend Section 987.58 of
the Military and Veterans Code, to amend Sections 166, 171d, 326.3,
330.1, 381, 597y, 602, 626.95, 647.7, 653.56, 829.5, 830.8, 833.5,
903.4, 1201.3, 1203.066, 4852.03, 4852.17, 4854, 5023.2, 6030, 6228,
11180, 12022, 12022.5, 12022.7, 12022.85, 16880, 25105, 25650, 26020,
26175, 29010, 29065, 29115, 29142, 29510, 29615, 29855, 30105,
31315, 31910, and 32105 of, and to repeal Section 594 of, the Penal
Code, to amend Sections 16062 and 21355 of the Probate Code, to amend
Sections 2203, 6802, 6804, 6808, 10295.2, 20133, and 20193 of, and
to amend the heading of Article 32 (commencing with Section 20520) of
Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 2 of, the Public Contract Code, to
amend Sections 667, 4186, 4512.5, 4590, 5073.5, 6308, 6362, 7555,
14574, 29735, 32330, 41800, 44820, and 71560 of the Public Resources
Code, to amend Sections 345.5, 2827, 2851, 8381, and 100351 of the
Public Utilities Code, to amend Sections 69.5, 7104, 17561, 18639,
19141, 19191, 19192, 19194, 23153, 23663, 23685, 24422, and 24875 of,
and to repeal Section 24875.5 of, the Revenue and Taxation Code, to
amend Sections 143, 182.2, and 1188 of, and repeal Sections 5898.15
and 5898.23 of, the Streets and Highways Code, to amend Sections
1088.5, 1269, 1269.1, 1755, 1757, 3011, 3701, and 15002 of the
Unemployment Insurance Code, to amend Sections 5007, 11205.4, 12509,
12804.9, 12804.11, 13352, 13557, 29004, 34515, 40305.5, and 41501 of
the Vehicle Code, to amend Sections 1126, 12986, 13385, 85031, 85034,
and 85230 of the Water Code, to amend Sections 366.24, 4360, 4695.2,
5778, 10850.4, 11327.5, 11453, 12201, 12301.06, 12305.87, 14043.1,
14132.275, 14165.50, 14166.20, 14167.352, 14167.354, 14182, 14182.1,
15657.5, 15910, 15910.2, 15911, 18293, 18951, and 18987.7 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code, to amend Section 2 of Chapter 166 of
the Statutes of 2009, to amend Section 1 of Chapter 191 of the
Statutes of 2010, to amend Section 2 of Chapter 251 of the Statutes
of 2010, to amend Section 1 of Chapter 321 of the Statutes of 2010,
to amend Section 2 of Chapter 377 of the Statutes of 2010, to amend
Section 3 of Chapter 431 of the Statutes of 2010, to amend Section 2
of Chapter 716 of the Statutes of 2010, and to amend Section 173 of
Chapter 717 of the Statutes of 2010, relating to the maintenance of
the codes.



	LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


   AB 1023, as introduced, Wagner. Maintenance of the codes.
   Existing law directs the Legislative Counsel to advise the
Legislature from time to time as to legislation necessary to maintain
the codes.
   This bill would make nonsubstantive changes in various provisions
of law to effectuate the recommendations made by the Legislative
Counsel to the Legislature.
   Vote: majority. Appropriation: no. Fiscal committee: no.
State-mandated local program: no.


THE PEOPLE OF THE STATE OF CALIFORNIA DO ENACT AS FOLLOWS:

  SECTION 1.  Section 114 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   114.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code, any
licensee or registrant of any board, commission, or bureau within the
department  ,  whose license expired while the
licensee or registrant was on active duty as a member of the
California National Guard or the United States Armed Forces, may,
upon application, reinstate his or her license or registration
without examination or penalty  ;   , 
provided  ,   that all of the following
requirements are satisfied: 
   (1) His or her license or registration was valid at the time he or
she entered the California National Guard or the United States Armed
Forces.
   (2) The application for reinstatement is made while serving in the
California National Guard or the United States Armed Forces, or not
later than one year from the date of discharge from active service or
return to inactive military status.
   (3) The application for reinstatement is accompanied by an
affidavit showing the date of entrance into the service, whether
still in the service, or date of discharge, and the renewal fee for
the current renewal period in which the application is filed is paid.

   (b) If application for reinstatement is filed more than one year
after discharge or return to inactive status, the applicant, in the
discretion of the licensing agency, may be required to pass an
examination.
   (c) If application for reinstatement is filed and the licensing
agency determines that the applicant has not actively engaged in the
practice of his or her profession while on active duty, then the
licensing agency may require the applicant to pass an examination.
   (d) Unless otherwise specifically provided in this code, any
licensee or registrant who, either part time or full time, practices
in this state the profession or vocation for which he or she is
licensed or registered shall be required to maintain his or her
license in good standing even though he or she is in military
service.
   For the purposes in this section, time spent by a licensee in
receiving treatment or hospitalization in any veterans' facility
during which he or she is prevented from practicing his or her
profession or vocation shall be excluded from said period of one
year.
  SEC. 2.  Section 809 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   809.  (a) The Legislature hereby finds and declares the following:

   (1) In 1986, Congress enacted the Health Care Quality Improvement
Act of 1986 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11101 et seq.), to encourage physicians
to engage in effective professional peer review, but giving each
state the opportunity to "opt-out" of some of the provisions of the
federal act.
   (2) Because of deficiencies in the federal act and the possible
adverse interpretations by the courts of the federal act, it is
preferable for California to "opt-out" of the federal act and design
its own peer review system.
   (3) Peer review, fairly conducted, is essential to preserving the
highest standards of medical practice.
   (4) Peer review that is not conducted fairly results in harm to
both patients and healing arts practitioners by limiting access to
care.
   (5) Peer review, fairly conducted, will aid the appropriate state
licensing boards in their responsibility to regulate and discipline
errant healing arts practitioners.
   (6) To protect the health and welfare of the people of California,
it is the policy of the State of California to exclude, through the
peer review mechanism as provided for by California law, those
healing arts practitioners who provide substandard care or who engage
in professional misconduct, regardless of the effect of that
exclusion on competition.
   (7) It is the intent of the Legislature that peer review of
professional health care services be done efficiently, on an ongoing
basis, and with an emphasis on early detection of potential quality
problems and resolutions through informal educational interventions.
   (8) Sections 809 to 809.8, inclusive, shall not affect the
respective responsibilities of the organized medical staff or the
governing body of an acute care hospital with respect to peer review
in the acute care hospital setting. It is the intent of the
Legislature that written provisions implementing Sections 809 to
809.8, inclusive, in the acute care hospital setting shall be
included in medical staff bylaws that shall be adopted by a vote of
the members of the organized medical staff and shall be subject to
governing body approval, which approval shall not be withheld
unreasonably.
   (9) (A) The Legislature thus finds and declares that the laws of
this state pertaining to the peer review of healing arts
practitioners shall apply in lieu of Section 11101 and following of
Title 42 of the United States Code, because the laws of this state
provide a more careful articulation of the protections for both those
undertaking peer review activity and those subject to review, and
better integrate public and private systems of peer review.
Therefore, California exercises its right to opt out of specified
provisions of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act  of 1986
 relating to professional review actions, pursuant to Section
11111(c)(2)(B) of Title 42 of the United States Code. This election
shall not affect the availability of any immunity under California
law.
   (B) The Legislature further declares that it is not the intent or
purpose of Sections 809 to 809.8, inclusive, to opt out of any
mandatory national data bank established pursuant to Section 11131
and following of Title 42 of the United States Code.
   (b) For the purpose of this section and Sections 809.1 to 809.8,
inclusive, "healing arts practitioner" or "licentiate" means a
physician and surgeon, podiatrist, clinical psychologist, marriage
and family therapist, clinical social worker, or dentist; and "peer
review body" means a peer review body as specified in paragraph (1)
of subdivision (a) of Section 805, and includes any designee of the
peer review body.
  SEC. 3.  Section 901 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   901.  (a) For purposes of this section, the following provisions
apply:
   (1) "Board" means the applicable healing arts board, under this
division or an initiative act referred to in this division,
responsible for the licensure or regulation in this state of the
respective health care practitioners.
   (2) "Health care practitioner" means any person who engages in
acts that are subject to licensure or regulation under this division
or under any initiative act referred to in this division.
   (3) "Sponsored event" means an event, not to exceed 10 calendar
days, administered by either a sponsoring entity or a local
government, or both, through which health care is provided to the
public without compensation to the health care practitioner.
   (4) "Sponsoring entity" means a nonprofit organization organized
pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a
community-based organization.
   (5) "Uninsured or underinsured person" means a person who does not
have health care coverage, including private coverage or coverage
through a program funded in whole or in part by a governmental
entity, or a person who has health care coverage, but the coverage is
not adequate to obtain those health care services offered by the
health care practitioner under this section.
   (b) A health care practitioner licensed or certified in good
standing in another state, district, or territory of the United
States who offers or provides health care services for which he or
she is licensed or certified is exempt from the requirement for
licensure if all of the following requirements are met:
   (1) Prior to providing those services, he or she  does all of
the following  :
   (A) Obtains authorization from the board to participate in the
sponsored event after submitting to the board a copy of his or her
valid license or certificate from each state in which he or she holds
licensure or certification and a photographic identification issued
by one of the states in which he or she holds licensure or
certification. The board shall notify the sponsoring entity, within
20 calendar days of receiving a request for authorization, whether
that request is approved or denied, provided that, if the board
receives a request for authorization less than 20 days prior to the
date of the sponsored event, the board shall make reasonable efforts
to notify the sponsoring entity whether that request is approved or
denied prior to the date of that sponsored event.
   (B) Satisfies the following requirements:
   (i) The health care practitioner has not committed any act or been
convicted of a crime constituting grounds for denial of licensure or
registration under Section 480 and is in good standing in each state
in which he or she holds licensure or certification.
   (ii) The health care practitioner has the appropriate education
and experience to participate in a sponsored event, as determined by
the board.
   (iii) The health care practitioner shall agree to comply with all
applicable practice requirements set forth in this division and the
regulations adopted pursuant to this division.
   (C) Submits to the board, on a form prescribed by the board, a
request for authorization to practice without a license, and pays a
fee, in an amount determined by the board by regulation, which shall
be available, upon appropriation, to cover the cost of developing the
authorization process and processing the request.
   (2) The services are provided under all of the following
circumstances:
   (A) To uninsured or underinsured persons.
   (B) On a short-term voluntary basis, not to exceed a
10-calendar-day period per sponsored event.
   (C) In association with a sponsoring entity that complies with
subdivision  (c)   (d)  .
   (D) Without charge to the recipient or to a third party on behalf
of the recipient.
   (c) The board may deny a health care practitioner authorization to
practice without a license if the health care practitioner fails to
comply with  the requirements of  this section or
for any act that would be grounds for denial of an application for
licensure.
   (d) A sponsoring entity seeking to provide, or arrange for the
provision of, health care services under this section shall do both
of the following:
   (1) Register with each applicable board under this division for
which an out-of-state health care practitioner is participating in
the sponsored event by completing a registration form that shall
include all of the following:
   (A) The name of the sponsoring entity.
   (B) The name of the principal individual or individuals who are
the officers or organizational officials responsible for the
operation of the sponsoring entity.
   (C) The address, including street, city, ZIP Code, and county, of
the sponsoring entity's principal office and each individual listed
pursuant to subparagraph (B).
   (D) The telephone number for the principal office of the
sponsoring entity and each individual listed pursuant to subparagraph
(B).
   (E) Any additional information required by the board.
   (2) Provide the information listed in paragraph (1) to the county
health department of the county in which the health care services
will be provided, along with any additional information that may be
required by that department.
   (e) The sponsoring entity shall notify the board and the county
health department described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) in
writing of any change to the information required under subdivision
(d) within 30 calendar days of the change.
   (f) Within 15 calendar days of the provision of health care
services pursuant to this section, the sponsoring entity shall file a
report with the board and the county health department of the county
in which the health care services were provided. This report shall
contain the date, place, type, and general description of the care
provided, along with a listing of the health care practitioners who
participated in providing that care.
   (g) The sponsoring entity shall maintain a list of health care
practitioners associated with the provision of health care services
under this section. The sponsoring entity shall maintain a copy of
each health care practitioner's current license or certification and
shall require each health care practitioner to attest in writing that
his or her license or certificate is not suspended or revoked
pursuant to disciplinary proceedings in any jurisdiction. The
sponsoring entity shall maintain these records for a period of at
least five years following the provision of health care services
under this section and shall, upon request, furnish those records to
the board or any county health department.
   (h) A contract of liability insurance issued, amended, or renewed
in this state on or after January 1, 2011, shall not exclude coverage
of a health care practitioner or a sponsoring entity that provides,
or arranges for the provision of, health care services under this
section, provided that the practitioner or entity complies with this
section.
   (i) Subdivision (b) shall not be construed to authorize a health
care practitioner to render care outside the scope of practice
authorized by his or her license or certificate or this division.
   (j) (1) The board may terminate authorization for a health care
practitioner to provide health care services pursuant to this section
for failure to comply with this section, any applicable practice
requirement set forth in this division, any regulations adopted
pursuant to this division, or for any act that would be grounds for
discipline if done by a licensee of that board.
   (2) The board shall provide both the sponsoring entity and the
health care practitioner with a written notice of termination
including the basis for that termination. The health care
practitioner may, within 30 days after the date of the receipt of
notice of termination, file a written appeal to the board. The appeal
shall include any documentation the health care practitioner wishes
to present to the board.
   (3) A health care practitioner whose authorization to provide
health care services pursuant to this section has been terminated
shall not provide health care services pursuant to this section
unless and until a subsequent request for authorization has been
approved by the board. A health care practitioner who provides health
care services in violation of this paragraph shall be deemed to be
practicing health care in violation of the applicable provisions of
this division, and be subject to any applicable administrative,
civil, or criminal fines, penalties, and other sanctions provided in
this division.
   (k) The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision
of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity
shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given
effect without the invalid provision or application.
   (l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2014, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 4.  Section 3501 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   3501.   (a)    As used in this chapter: 

   (a) 
    (1)  "Board" means the Medical Board of California.

   (b) 
    (2)  "Approved program" means a program for the
education of physician assistants that has been formally approved by
the committee. 
   (c) 
    (3)  "Trainee" means a person who is currently enrolled
in an approved program. 
   (d) 
    (4)  "Physician assistant" means a person who meets the
requirements of this chapter and is licensed by the committee.

   (e) 
    (5)  "Supervising physician" means a physician and
surgeon licensed by the board or by the Osteopathic Medical Board of
California who supervises one or more physician assistants, who
possesses a current valid license to practice medicine, and who is
not currently on disciplinary probation for improper use of a
physician assistant. 
   (f) 
    (6)  "Supervision" means that a licensed physician and
surgeon oversees the activities of, and accepts responsibility for,
the medical services rendered by a physician assistant. 
   (g) 
    (7)  "Committee" or "examining committee" means the
Physician Assistant Committee. 
   (h) 
    (8)  "Regulations" means the rules and regulations as
set forth in Chapter 13.8 (commencing with Section 1399.500) of Title
16 of the California Code of Regulations. 
   (i) 
    (9)  "Routine visual screening" means uninvasive
nonpharmacological simple testing for visual acuity, visual field
defects, color blindness, and depth perception. 
   (j) 
    (10)  "Program manager" means the staff manager of the
diversion program, as designated by the executive officer of the
board. The program manager shall have background experience in
dealing with substance abuse issues. 
   (k) 
    (11)  "Delegation of services agreement" means the
writing that delegates to a physician assistant from a supervising
physician the medical services the physician assistant is authorized
to perform consistent with subdivision (a) of Section 1399.540 of
Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. 
   (l) 
    (12)  "Other specified medical services" means tests or
examinations performed or ordered by a physician assistant practicing
in compliance with this chapter or regulations of the board
promulgated under this chapter. 
   (m) 
    (b)  A physician assistant acts as an agent of the
supervising physician when performing any activity authorized by this
chapter or regulations promulgated by the board under this chapter.
  SEC. 5.  Section 3769.3 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   3769.3.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision, the board may,
by stipulation with the affected licensee, issue a public reprimand,
after it has conducted an investigation, in lieu of filing or
prosecuting a formal accusation.
   (b) The stipulation shall contain the authority, grounds, and
causes and circumstances for taking such action and by way of waiving
the affected licensee's rights, inform the licensee of his or her
rights to have a formal accusation filed and stipulate to a
settlement thereafter or have the matter in the statement of issues
heard before an administrative law judge in accordance with the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
 (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code)  .
   (c) The stipulation shall be public information and shall be used
as evidence in any future disciplinary or penalty action taken by the
board.
  SEC. 6.  Section 4207 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   4207.  (a) Upon receipt of an application for a license and the
applicable fee, the board shall make a thorough investigation to
determine whether the applicant is qualified for the license being
sought. The board shall also determine whether this article has been
complied with, and shall investigate all matters directly related to
the issuance of the license that may affect the public welfare.
   (b) The board shall not investigate matters connected with the
operation of a premises other than those matters solely related to
the furnishing of dangerous drugs or dangerous devices that might
adversely affect the public welfare.
   (c) The board shall deny an application for a license if the
applicant does not qualify for the license being sought.
   (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board may
request any information it deems necessary to complete the
application investigation required by this section, and a request for
information that the board deems necessary in carrying out this
section in any application or related form devised by the board shall
not be required to be adopted by regulation pursuant to the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3
of Title 2 of the Government Code).
  SEC. 7.  Section 6140.38 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   6140.38.  (a) The State Bar shall report to the Senate Committee
on Judiciary and the Assembly Committee on Judiciary on or before
April 1, 2010, and annually thereafter, on the impact of the changes
made to Section 6008.6 by  Senate Bill 55 of the 2009-10
Regular Session   Chapter 2 of the Statutes of 2010
 . In addition to a description of the impact of those changes,
the report shall include, with specificity, the following: (1) the
projects that previously would have been required to comply with
Article 4 (commencing with Section 10335) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of
Division 2 of the Public Contract Code, but are no longer subject to
that requirement because the contract amount is between fifty
thousand dollars ($50,000) and one hundred thousand  dollars
 ($100,000); and (2) whether the changes have improved the
efficiency of the contracting process. The report required by this
section may be included with the report described in Section 6140.36.

   (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2014, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 8.  Section 6322.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as
amended by Section 1 of Chapter 720 of the Statutes of 2010, is
amended to read:
   6322.1.  (a) Until the end of the moratorium described in Section
70601 of the Government Code, the board of supervisors of any county
may increase, as provided in this section, the amount distributed to
its county law library fund from the uniform filing fees listed in
Section 6321 whenever it determines that the increase is necessary to
defray the expenses of the law library.
   Any increase in the amount distributed to the law library fund in
any county under this subdivision shall not be effective until
January 1 of the next year after the adoption by the board of
supervisors of the increase. The amount of the increase in any
calendar year shall be no greater than three dollars ($3) over the
previous calendar year. A copy of the action of the board of
supervisors that establishes the increase shall be provided to the
Administrative Office of the Courts as soon as it becomes available
but no later than December 15 of the year before the increased
distribution goes into effect.
   (b) Distribution changes after January 1, 2008, shall be
determined by the process described in Section 70601 of the
Government Code.
   (c) (1) In an action or proceeding in which a claim for money
damages falls within the monetary jurisdiction of the small claims
court and is filed by an assignee who is prohibited from filing or
maintaining a claim pursuant to Section 116.420 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, the uniform filing fee shall be reduced by forty-four
dollars ($44) to one hundred eighty-one dollars ($181) if the
complaint contains a declaration under penalty of perjury, executed
by the party requesting the reduction in fees, that the case
qualifies for the lower fee because the claim for money damages will
not exceed the monetary jurisdiction of small claims court and is
filed by an assignee of the claim.
   (2) When the uniform filing fee is reduced as provided under this
subdivision, the amount distributed from each uniform filing fee to
the law library fund in the county shall be as follows:

Jurisdiction                           Amount
Alameda........................        $12.00
Alpine.........................          1.00
Amador.........................          6.00
Butte..........................         12.00
Calaveras......................          7.00
Colusa.........................         12.00
Contra Costa...................          8.00
Del Norte......................          6.00
El Dorado......................          9.00
Fresno.........................          9.00
Glenn..........................          6.00
Humboldt.......................         12.00
Imperial.......................         12.00
Inyo...........................          6.00
Kern...........................         12.00
Kings..........................         12.00
Lake...........................         12.00
Lassen.........................         12.00
Los Angeles....................          5.00
Madera.........................         12.00
Marin..........................         12.00
Mariposa.......................          4.00
Mendocino......................         12.00
Merced.........................         12.00
Modoc..........................          6.00
Mono...........................          6.00
Monterey.......................         10.00
Napa...........................         12.00
Nevada.........................          7.00
Orange.........................          8.00
Placer.........................          7.00
Plumas.........................          6.00
Riverside......................         12.00
Sacramento.....................          8.50
San Benito.....................          6.00
San Bernardino.................         12.00
San Diego......................         12.00
San Francisco..................         12.00
San Joaquin....................         10.00
San Luis Obispo................         12.00
San Mateo......................         12.00
Santa Barbara..................         12.00
Santa Clara....................          8.00
Santa Cruz.....................         12.00
Shasta.........................          8.50
Sierra.........................          9.00
Siskiyou.......................          8.00
Solano.........................          9.00
Sonoma.........................         12.00
Stanislaus.....................          6.50
Sutter.........................          1.00
Tehama.........................          9.00
Trinity........................          6.00
Tulare.........................         12.00
Tuolumne.......................          2.00
Ventura........................         12.00
Yolo...........................         10.00
Yuba...........................          7.00


   The increases described in subdivision (a) do not apply to the law
library distributions in this subdivision.
   (3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d) of Section 68085.4 of the
Government Code, when the uniform filing fee is reduced as provided
in this subdivision, the amounts distributed to dispute resolution
programs, the State Court Facilities Construction Fund, the Judges'
Retirement Fund, children's waiting rooms, and the Equal Access Fund
shall remain as provided
under subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section 68085.4 of the Government
Code and shall not be changed. Only the amounts distributed to the
Trial Court Trust Fund, the law libraries, and the Immediate and
Critical Needs Account of the State Court Facilities Construction
Fund shall be adjusted. The amount distributed from each uniform
filing fee under this section to the Immediate and Critical Needs
Account of the State Court Facilities Construction Fund, established
in Section 70371.5  of the Government Code  , shall be
eleven dollars ($11). If the fee is further reduced below one hundred
eighty-one dollars ($181), as with a partial waiver or partial
payment, the proportional reductions described in subdivision (g) of
Section 68085.1 of the Government Code shall apply.
   (d) Distributions under this section to the law library fund in
each county shall be used only for the purposes authorized by this
chapter.
   (e) As used in this section and Section 6321, "law library fund"
includes a law library account described in the second paragraph of
Section 6320.
   (f) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2013, and, as
of January 1, 2014, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2014, deletes or
extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
  SEC. 9.  Section 6322.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as
added by Section 2 of Chapter 720 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended
to read:
   6322.1.  (a) Until the end of the moratorium described in Section
70601 of the Government Code, the board of supervisors of any county
may increase, as provided in this section, the amount distributed to
its county law library fund from the uniform filing fees listed in
Section 6321 whenever it determines that the increase is necessary to
defray the expenses of the law library.
   Any increase in the amount distributed to the law library fund in
any county under this subdivision shall not be effective until
January 1 of the next year after the adoption by the board of
supervisors of the increase. The amount of the increase in any
calendar year shall be no greater than three dollars ($3) over the
previous calendar year. A copy of the action of the board of
supervisors that establishes the increase shall be provided to the
Administrative Office of the Courts as soon as it becomes available
but no later than December 15 of the year before the increased
distribution goes into effect.
   (b) Distribution changes after January 1, 2008, shall be
determined by the process described in Section 70601 of the
Government Code.
   (c) (1) In an action or proceeding in which a claim for money
damages falls within the monetary jurisdiction of the small claims
court and is filed by an assignee who is prohibited from filing or
maintaining a claim pursuant to Section 116.420 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, the uniform filing fee shall be reduced by twenty-four
dollars ($24) to one hundred eighty-one dollars ($181) if the
complaint contains a declaration under penalty of perjury, executed
by the party requesting the reduction in fees, that the case
qualifies for the lower fee because the claim for money damages will
not exceed the monetary jurisdiction of small claims court and is
filed by an assignee of the claim.
   (2) When the uniform filing fee is reduced as provided under this
subdivision, the amount distributed from each uniform filing fee to
the law library fund in the county shall be as follows:

Jurisdiction                           Amount
Alameda........................        $12.00
Alpine.........................          1.00
Amador.........................          6.00
Butte..........................         12.00
Calaveras......................          7.00
Colusa.........................         12.00
Contra Costa...................          8.00
Del Norte......................          6.00
El Dorado......................          9.00
Fresno.........................          9.00
Glenn..........................          6.00
Humboldt.......................         12.00
Imperial.......................         12.00
Inyo...........................          6.00
Kern...........................         12.00
Kings..........................         12.00
Lake...........................         12.00
Lassen.........................         12.00
Los Angeles....................          5.00
Madera.........................         12.00
Marin..........................         12.00
Mariposa.......................          4.00
Mendocino......................         12.00
Merced.........................         12.00
Modoc..........................          6.00
Mono...........................          6.00
Monterey.......................         10.00
Napa...........................         12.00
Nevada.........................          7.00
Orange.........................          8.00
Placer.........................          7.00
Plumas.........................          6.00
Riverside......................         12.00
Sacramento.....................          8.50
San Benito.....................          6.00
San Bernardino.................         12.00
San Diego......................         12.00
San Francisco..................         12.00
San Joaquin....................         10.00
San Luis Obispo................         12.00
San Mateo......................         12.00
Santa Barbara..................         12.00
Santa Clara....................          8.00
Santa Cruz.....................         12.00
Shasta.........................          8.50
Sierra.........................          9.00
Siskiyou.......................          8.00
Solano.........................          9.00
Sonoma.........................         12.00
Stanislaus.....................          6.50
Sutter.........................          1.00
Tehama.........................          9.00
Trinity........................          6.00
Tulare.........................         12.00
Tuolumne.......................          2.00
Ventura........................         12.00
Yolo...........................         10.00
Yuba...........................          7.00


   The increases described in subdivision (a) do not apply to the law
library distributions in this subdivision.
   (3) Notwithstanding subdivision (d) of Section 68085.4 of the
Government Code, when the uniform filing fee is reduced as provided
in this subdivision, the amounts distributed to dispute resolution
programs, the State Court Facilities Construction Fund, the Judges'
Retirement Fund, children's waiting rooms, and the Equal Access Fund
shall remain as provided under subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section
68085.4 of the Government Code and shall not be changed. Only the
amounts distributed to the Trial Court Trust Fund, the law libraries,
and the Immediate and Critical Needs Account of the State Court
Facilities Construction Fund shall be adjusted. The amount
distributed from each uniform filing fee under this section to the
Immediate and Critical Needs Account of the State Court Facilities
Construction Fund, established in Section 70371.5  of the
Government Code  , shall be eleven dollars ($11). If the fee is
further reduced below one hundred eighty-one dollars ($181), as with
a partial waiver or partial payment, the proportional reductions
described in subdivision (g) of Section 68085.1 of the Government
Code shall apply.
   (d) Distributions under this section to the law library fund in
each county shall be used only for the purposes authorized by this
chapter.
   (e) As used in this section and Section 6321, "law library fund"
includes a law library account described in the second paragraph of
Section 6320.
   (f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.
  SEC. 10.  Section 6731.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as
added by Chapter 625 of the Statutes of 1983, is repealed. 
   6731.1.  Civil engineering also includes the practice or offer to
practice, either in a public or private capacity, of all of the
following:
   (a) Locates, relocates, establishes, reestablishes, or retraces
the alignment or elevation for any of the fixed works embraced within
the practice of civil engineering, as described in Section 6731.
   (b) Determines the configuration or contour of the earth's surface
or the position of fixed objects thereon or related thereto, by
measuring lines and angles, and applying the principles of
trigonometry or photogrammetry. 
  SEC. 11.  Section 6731.2 of the Business and Professions Code, as
added by Chapter 625 of the Statutes of 1983, is repealed. 
   6731.2.  Any registered civil engineer may offer to practice,
procure, or offer to procure, land surveying work incidental to his
or her civil engineering practice, even though he or she is not
authorized to perform that work, provided all the land surveying work
is performed by, or under the direction of, a licensed land surveyor
or registered civil engineer authorized to practice land surveying.
Further, any registered civil engineer may manage or conduct as
manager, proprietor, or agent, a civil engineering practice which
offers to practice, procure, or offers to procure, such incidental
land surveying work. 
  SEC. 12.  Section 7056 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   7056.  A general engineering contractor is a contractor whose
principal contracting business is in connection with fixed works
requiring specialized engineering knowledge and skill, including the
following divisions or subjects: irrigation, drainage, water power,
water supply, flood control, inland waterways, harbors, docks and
wharves, shipyards and ports, dams and hydroelectric projects,
levees, river control and reclamation works, railroads, highways,
streets and roads, tunnels, airports and airways, sewers and sewage
disposal plants and systems, waste reduction plants, bridges,
overpasses, underpasses and other similar works, pipelines and other
systems for the transmission of petroleum and other liquid or gaseous
substances, parks, playgrounds and other recreational works,
refineries, chemical plants and similar industrial plants requiring
specialized engineering knowledge and skill, powerhouses, power
plants and other utility plants and installations, mines and
metallurgical plants, land leveling and earthmoving projects,
excavating, grading, trenching, paving and surfacing work and cement
and concrete works in connection with the  above mentioned
  above-   mentioned  fixed works.
  SEC. 13.  Section 7065 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   7065.  (a) Under rules and regulations adopted by the board and
approved by the director, the registrar shall investigate, classify,
and qualify applicants for contractors' licenses by written
examination. This examination shall include questions designed to
show that the applicant has the necessary degree of knowledge
required by Section 7068 and shall include pertinent questions
relating to the laws of this state  ,  and the
contracting business and trade.
   (b) Contractors' licenses are to be issued to individual owners,
partnerships, corporations, and limited liability companies in
accordance with  the provisions of  this chapter.
   (1) Every person who is an officer, member, responsible manager,
or director of a corporation or limited liability company seeking
licensure under this chapter shall be listed on the application as a
member of the personnel of record.
   (2) Every person who is a member of a partnership seeking
licensure under this chapter shall be listed on the application as a
member of the personnel record.
   (c) An applicant shall qualify for licensure in accordance with
 the provisions of  this subdivision as follows:
   (1) An individual owner may qualify by examination for a
contractor's license upon the appearance of the owner or a qualifying
individual appearing as a responsible managing employee on behalf of
the owner.
   (2) A partnership may qualify by examination for a contractor's
license upon the appearance of a partner or a qualifying individual
appearing as a responsible managing employee on behalf of the
 copartnership   partnership  .
   (3) A corporation may qualify by examination for a contractor's
license upon the appearance of a qualifying individual appearing
either as a responsible managing officer or a responsible managing
employee on behalf of the corporation.
   (4) A limited liability company may qualify by examination for a
contractor's license upon the appearance of a qualifying individual
appearing as a responsible managing officer, a responsible managing
manager, a responsible managing member, or a responsible managing
employee on behalf of the company.
   (d) No examination shall be required of a qualifying individual
if, within the five-year period immediately preceding the application
for licensure, the qualifying individual has either personally
passed the written examination for the same classification being
applied for, or has served as the qualifying individual for a
licensee whose license was in good standing at any time during the
five-year period immediately preceding the application for licensure
and in the same classification being applied for.
  SEC. 14.  Section 7068.1 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   7068.1.  The person qualifying on behalf of an individual or firm
under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subdivision (b) of Section
7068 shall be responsible for exercising that direct supervision and
control of his or her employer's or principal's construction
operations as is necessary to secure full compliance with 
the provisions of  this chapter and the rules and
regulations of the board relating to the construction operations.
This person shall not act in the capacity of the qualifying person
for an additional individual or firm unless one of the following
conditions exists:
   (a) There is a common ownership of at least 20 percent of the
equity of each individual or firm for which the person acts in a
qualifying capacity.
   (b) The additional firm is a subsidiary of or a joint venture with
the first. "Subsidiary," as used in this subdivision, means any firm
at least 20 percent of the equity of which is owned by the other
firm.
   (c) With respect to a firm under paragraph (2), (3), or (4) of
subdivision (b) of Section 7068, the majority of the partners,
officers, or managers are the same.
   (d) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a), (b), and (c), a qualifying
individual may act as the qualifier for no more than three firms in
any one-year period.
   "Firm," as used in this section, means a  copartnership
  partnership  , a limited partnership, a
corporation, a limited liability company, or any other combination or
organization described in Section 7068.
   "Person," as used in this section, is limited to natural persons,
notwithstanding the definition of "person" in Section 7025.
   The board shall require every applicant or licensee qualifying by
the appearance of a qualifying individual to submit detailed
information on the qualifying individual's duties and
responsibilities for supervision and control of the applicant's
construction operations.
  SEC. 15.  Section 7071 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   7071.  No license shall be issued to a corporation, partnership,
limited liability company, or other combination or organization if a
responsible officer or director of the corporation, or other
combination or organization, or a partner of the 
copartnership   partnership  , or a manager or
officer of the limited liability company, or any member of an
organization seeking licensure under this chapter does not meet the
qualifications required of an applicant other than those
qualifications relating to knowledge and experience.
  SEC. 16.  Section 7155 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   7155.  Violation of any provision of this chapter by a home
improvement  salesman   salesperson 
constitutes cause for disciplinary action. The registrar may suspend
or revoke the registration of the home improvement  salesman
  salesperson  if he  or she  is found to
be in violation. The disciplinary proceedings shall be conducted in
accordance with  the provisions of  Chapter 5
(commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of
the Government Code.
  SEC. 17.  Section 8030.4 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   8030.4.  As used in this chapter:
   (a) "Qualified legal services project" means a nonprofit project
incorporated and operated exclusively in California that provides as
its primary purpose and function legal services without charge to
indigent persons, has a board of directors or advisory board composed
of both attorneys and consumers of legal services, and provides for
community participation in legal services programming. Legal services
projects funded either in whole or in part by the Legal Services
Corporation or with Older Americans Act funds are presumed to be
qualified legal services projects for the purposes of this chapter.
   (b) "Qualified support center" means an incorporated nonprofit
legal services center, having an office or offices in California,
which office or offices provide legal services or technical
assistance without charge to qualified legal services projects and
their clients on a multicounty basis in California. Support centers
funded either in whole or in part by the Legal Services Corporation
or with Older Americans Act funds are presumed to be qualified legal
services projects for the purposes of this chapter.
   (c) "Other qualified project" means a nonprofit organization
formed for charitable or other public purposes, not receiving funds
from the Legal Services Corporation or pursuant to the Older
Americans Act, which organization or association provides free legal
services to indigent persons.
   (d) "Pro bono attorney" means any attorney, law firm, or legal
corporation, licensed to practice law in this state, that undertakes
 ,  without charge to the party, the representation of an
indigent person, referred by a qualified legal services project,
qualified support center, or other qualified project, in a case not
considered to be fee generating  ,  as defined in this
chapter.
   (e) "Applicant" means a qualified legal services project,
qualified support center, other qualified project, or pro bono
attorney applying to receive funds from the Transcript Reimbursement
Fund established by this chapter. The term "applicant" shall not
include a person appearing pro se to represent himself or herself at
any stage of a case.
   (f) (1) "Indigent person" means any of the following:
   (A) A person whose income is 125 percent or less of the current
poverty threshold established by the Office of Management and Budget
of the United States.
   (B) A person who is eligible for supplemental security income.
   (C) A person who is eligible for, or receiving, free services
under the Older Americans Act or the Developmentally Disabled
Assistance Act.
   (D) A person whose income is 75 percent or less of the maximum
level of income for lower income households as defined in Section
50079.5 of the Health and Safety Code, for purposes of a program that
provides legal assistance by an attorney in private practice on a
pro bono basis.
   (E) A person who qualifies for a waiver of fees pursuant to
Section 68632 of the Government Code.
   (2) For the purposes of this subdivision, the income of a person
who is disabled shall be determined after deducting the costs of
medical and other disability-related special expenses.
   (g) "Fee-generating case" means any case or matter that, if
undertaken on behalf of an eligible client by an attorney in private
practice, reasonably may be expected to result in payment of a fee
for legal services from an award to a client, from public funds, or
from an opposing party. A reasonable expectation as to payment of a
legal fee exists wherever a client enters into a contingent fee
agreement with his or her lawyer. If there is no contingent fee
agreement, a case is not considered fee generating if adequate
representation is deemed to be unavailable because of the occurrence
of any of the following circumstances:
   (1) If the applicant has determined that referral is not possible
because of any of the following:
   (A) The case has been rejected by the local lawyer referral
service, or if there is no such service, by two private attorneys who
have experience in the subject matter of the case.
   (B) Neither the referral service nor any lawyer will consider the
case without payment of a consultation fee.
   (C) The case is of the type that private attorneys in the area
ordinarily do not accept or do not accept without prepayment of a
fee.
   (D) Emergency circumstances compel immediate action before
referral can be made, but the client is advised that, if appropriate
and consistent with professional responsibility, referral will be
attempted at a later time.
   (2) If recovery of damages is not the principal object of the case
and a request for damages is merely ancillary to an action for
equitable or other nonpecuniary relief or inclusion of a counterclaim
requesting damages is necessary for effective defense or because of
applicable rules governing joinder of counterclaims.
   (3) If a court appoints an applicant or an employee of an
applicant pursuant to a statute or a court rule or practice of equal
applicability to all attorneys in the jurisdiction.
   (4) In any case involving the rights of a claimant under a public
supported benefit program for which entitlement to benefit is based
on need.
   (h) "Legal Services Corporation" means the Legal Services
Corporation established under the Legal Services Corporation Act of
1974, Public Law 93-355, as amended.
   (i) "Supplemental security income recipient" means an individual
receiving or eligible to receive payments under Title XVI of the
Social Security Act, Public Law 92-603, as amended, or payment under
Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 12000) of Part 3 of Division 9 of
the Welfare and Institutions Code.
   (j) "Lawyer referral service" means a lawyer referral program
authorized by the State Bar of California pursuant to the rules of
professional conduct.
   (k) "Older Americans Act" means the Older Americans Act of 1965,
Public Law 89-73, as amended.
   (l) "Rules of professional conduct" means those rules adopted by
the State Bar  of California  pursuant to Sections 6076 and
6077.
   (m) "Certified shorthand reporter" means a shorthand reporter
certified pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section 8020)
performing shorthand reporting services pursuant to Section 8017.
   (n) "Case" means a single legal proceeding from its inception,
through all levels of hearing, trial, and appeal, until its ultimate
conclusion and disposition.
   (o) "Developmentally Disabled Assistance Act" means the
Developmentally Disabled Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 1975
 (P.L. 94-103)  ,  (42 U.S.C. Sec. 6001 et seq.)
 as amended.
   (p) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2013, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2013, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 18.  Section 8726.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as
added by Chapter 625 of the Statutes of 1983, is repealed. 
   8726.1.  Any licensed land surveyor may offer to practice,
procure, or offer to procure civil engineering work incidental to his
or her land surveying practice, even though he or she is not
authorized to perform that work, provided all the civil engineering
work is performed by or under the direction of a registered civil
engineer. Further, any licensed land surveyor may manage or conduct
as manager, proprietor, or agent, a land surveying practice which
offers to practice, procure, or offers to procure, such incidental
civil engineering work. 
  SEC. 19.  Section 8761.1 of the Business and Professions Code, as
added by Chapter 625 of the Statutes of 1983, is repealed. 
   8761.1.  The authority of a licensed land surveyor or registered
civil engineer to prepare, sign, issue, stamp, or seal any map, plat,
report, description, or other document shall be consistent with that
person's authority to practice land surveying. 
  SEC. 20.  Section 19164 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19164.  The bureau may, by regulation, establish insulation
material standards governing the quality of all insulation material
sold or installed within this state, including those properties that
affect the safety and thermal performance of insulation material
during application and in the use intended. The standards shall
specify the initial performance of the insulation material and the
performance expected during the design life of the insulation
material. Until the bureau has adopted these  requlations
  regulations  , the regulations of the  State
 Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission in
effect on the effective date of this section relating to those
standards shall remain in full force and effect. However, wherever
those regulations specify that the commission shall perform an act,
the bureau instead shall perform the act.
   Prior to establishing the standards and procedures required by
this chapter, the bureau shall conduct at least two public hearings,
and shall invite the  State  Energy Resources Conservation
and Development Commission, the State Fire Marshal, manufacturers,
distributors, and licensed installers of insulation materials, and
appropriate members of the public to participate in the hearings.
Immediately upon adoption of the standards and procedures, the bureau
shall provide a copy of the standards to the  State  Energy
Resources Conservation and Development Commission, and the
Contractors' State License Board. Within 30 days after receipt of the
bureau's standards, the Contractors' State License Board shall
notify all state licensed contractors who install insulation of the
standards.
   Insulation standards adopted by the bureau, pursuant to this
section, and by the  State  Energy Resources Conservation
and Development Commission, pursuant to Section 25402 of the Public
Resources Code, which are building standards  ,  as defined
in Section 25488.5  of the Public Resources Code,  shall
                                       be submitted to the 
State   California  Building Standards Commission
for approval pursuant to, and are governed by, the  State
  California  Building Standards Law  ,
Part   (Part  2.5 (commencing with Section 18901)
of Division 13 of the Health and Safety  Code  
Code)  . The building standards adopted by the bureau and
published in the  State   California 
Building Standards Code shall comply with, and be enforced as
provided in, this section.
  SEC. 21.  Section 19481.5 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19481.5.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no
license shall be issued to conduct a horse racing meeting upon a
track unless the track has been inspected by the board within 30 days
prior to the date of application for a license and the track has
been approved by the board as conforming to the racetrack safety
standards set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 19481.
   (b) The board shall adopt regulations to establish standards
governing the employee housing provided to backstretch personnel at
licensed racetracks. These regulations shall be commensurate with the
housing standards established in the Employee Housing Act  (Part
1  (commencing with Section  17000  
17000)  of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code), and shall
consider the following:
   (1) The health and safety of the human and equine population and
the necessity for humans and horses to live in close proximity.
   (2) The housing needs of state or county facilities with live
racing meetings of no more than 43 days in duration that do not
operate as year-round training facilities. The board shall
specifically consider the different needs of these facilities
compared to permanent facilities or other state and county facilities
that function on a year-round basis, including state and county fair
facilities that operate as  a  year-round training
facilities where horses are stabled and workers live.
   (3) Compliance of facilities with racing meetings of 19 days or
less, even if they operate as a year-round training facility, with
this subdivision shall be contingent on funding in the 
2002-03  Budget Act  of 2002 (Chapter 379 of the
Statutes of 2002)  .
   (c) Commencing January 1, 2004, the board, with assistance from
the California Department of Housing and Community Development or a
local building department or other local entity designated by the
jurisdiction in which the racetrack is located, shall annually
inspect the living conditions of backstretch employee housing to
ensure compliance with the housing standards established by the
board, the findings or results of which shall be submitted to the
board. No license shall be issued to a racing association to conduct
a horse race meeting unless the board has inspected the housing
conditions that exist on the racetrack's backstretch and determined
the living conditions to be in compliance with the standards
established by the board in subdivision (b).
   (d) The board may assess a reasonable fee upon racing associations
to defray the costs associated with the inspections provided for in
subdivision (c).
  SEC. 22.  Section 19501 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19501.  (a) The Legislature finds and declares the following:
   (1) Professional jockeys are vital to the horse racing industry
and the work they perform is very dangerous.
   (2) The minimum wage that jockeys receive in a horse race is
established by the board as a minimum jockey riding fee. Jockeys may
earn additional compensation if the horse they are racing is a
winning mount, a second place mount, or a third place mount.
   (3) The minimum jockey riding fee has not kept up with inflation
or the cost of living. Since 1970, the state minimum wage has
increased at more than twice the rate that the average jockey riding
fee increased over the same period.
   (4) The riding fee should be increased at least as much on a
percentage basis as the state minimum wage, so that the average
full-time jockey can earn an income sufficient to provide for the
basic necessities of life.
   (b) (1) Effective January 1, 2010, the scale of minimum jockey
riding fees for losing mounts established by the board shall be
increased by ten dollars ($10) per mount from the rate in effect on
December 31, 2009. Effective January 1, 2012, the scale of minimum
jockey riding fees for losing mounts established by the board shall
be increased by ten dollars ($10) per mount from the rate in effect
on December 31, 2011, except the three lowest fees on the scale shall
be increased by five dollars ($5) per mount. Thereafter  , 
the scale of minimum jockey riding fees for losing mounts shall be
increased whenever the state minimum wage is increased by the
percentage of that increase.
   (2) Effective January 1, 2010, the minimum amount awarded to the
jockey who finishes second or third in a race shall be increased by
ten dollars ($10) over the amount required to be paid on December 31,
2009. Effective January 1, 2012, the minimum amount awarded to the
jockey who finishes second or third in a race shall be increased by
five dollars ($5) over the amount required to be paid on December 31,
2011. This subdivision shall apply to races in which the purse is
nine thousand nine hundred ninety-nine dollars ($9,999) or less.
   (c) No jockey shall be paid less than the minimum jockey riding
fees established pursuant to this section.
   (d) Nothing in this section prohibits the board from increasing
the minimum jockey riding fee above the minimum level required by
this section.
  SEC. 23.  Section 19532.2 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19532.2.  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, commencing
July 1, 2010, if a racetrack located in the central zone is not
available for use by a thoroughbred association that was licensed by
the board to conduct a live race meet at that racetrack in 2009, the
board shall be authorized to allocate racing dates to that
association to be operated at a racetrack in the central zone or
southern zone for racing in 2010, or thereafter, in accordance with
the rules and regulations of the  California Horse Racing
Board   board  , provided  ,  however,
that the number of racing dates allocated pursuant to this section
does not exceed the number of racing dates that became unavailable at
the central zone racetrack.
  SEC. 24.  Section 19604.5 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19604.5.  (a) As used in this section, the following definitions
apply:
   (1) "Back" means to wager on a selected outcome occurring in a
given market.
   (2) "Board" means the California Horse Racing Board.
   (3) "Corrective wager" means an exchange wager placed by the
exchange wagering licensee in a given market, under circumstances
approved by the board, in order to address the impact on that market
of the cancellation or voiding of a given matched wager or a given
part of a matched wager.
   (4) "Exchange" means a system operated by an exchange wagering
licensee in which the exchange wagering licensee maintains one or
more markets in which persons may back or lay a selected outcome.
   (5) "Exchange revenues" means all charges, fees, income, payments,
revenues, and deductions of any kind assessed or collected by, or
paid or delivered to, an exchange wagering licensee in connection
with the submission of any exchange wagers to the exchange wagering
licensee by residents of California and residents of jurisdictions
outside of California on the results of horse races conducted in
California, and by residents of California on the results of horse
races conducted outside of California.
   (6) "Exchange wagers" means wagers submitted to an exchange
wagering licensee to be posted in a market on an exchange.
   (7) "Exchange wagering" means a form of parimutuel wagering in
which two or more persons place identically opposing wagers in a
given market.
   (8) "Exchange wagering account" means the account established with
an exchange wagering licensee by a person participating in exchange
wagering. An exchange wagering account may only be established or
maintained with an exchange wagering licensee by a natural person.
   (9) "Exchange wagering agreement" means a written agreement by and
among the applicable exchange wagering licensee, the applicable
racing association or racing fair conducting live racing in this
state, and the horsemen's organization responsible for negotiating
purse agreements for the breed on which exchange wagers are accepted,
provided that the terms and conditions for the permitted use of 
the  signal by the exchange wagering licensee, and the
compensation to the applicable racing association or racing fair and
the horsemen's organization, include provisions for, but are not
limited to  ,  all of the following:
   (A) Calculation of any and all amounts earned and payable to the
applicable racing association or racing fair and horsemen's
organization.
   (B) Audit rights and conditions.
   (C) Duration terms.
   (D) Contractual remedies.
   (10) "Exchange wagering licensee" means a person located within or
outside of California that is authorized to offer exchange wagering
to residents of California pursuant to this section.
   (11) "Identically opposing wagers" means wagers in which one or
more persons offer to lay a selected outcome at the same price at
which one or more persons offer to back that same outcome, with the
amount subject to the lay being proportionately commensurate to the
amount subject to the back.
   (12) "Lay" means to wager on a selected outcome not occurring in a
given market.
   (13) "Market" means, in relation to a given horse race or a given
set of horse races, a particular outcome that is subject to exchange
wagering as determined by an exchange wagering licensee.
   (14) "Matched wager" means the wager that is formed when two or
more persons are confirmed by the exchange operator as having placed
identically opposing wagers in a given market on the exchange.
   (15) "Net winnings" means the aggregate amounts payable to a
person as a result of that person's winning matched wagers in a pool
less the aggregate amount paid by that person as a result of that
person's losing matched wagers in that pool.
   (16) "Parimutuel" means any system whereby wagers with respect to
the outcome of a horse race are placed with, or in, a wagering pool
conducted by an authorized person, and in which the participants are
wagering with each other and not against the person conducting the
wagering pool.
   (17) "Person" means any individual, partnership, corporation,
limited liability company, or other association or organization.
   (18) "Pool" means the total of all matched wagers in a given
market.
   (19) "Price" means the odds for a given exchange wager.
   (20) "Unmatched wager" means a wager or portion of a wager placed
in a given market within an exchange that does not become part of a
matched wager because there are not one or more available exchange
wagers in that market with which to form one or more identically
opposing wagers.
   (21) "Zone" has the same meaning as defined in Section 19530.5, as
modified by  the provisions of  subdivision (f) of
Section 19601, except that for the purposes of this  act
  section  the combined central and southern zones
shall be considered one "central/southern" zone.
   (b) Notwithstanding any other law, rule, or regulation, exchange
wagering by residents of California and residents of jurisdictions
outside of California on the results of horse races conducted in
California, and by residents of California on the results of horse
races conducted outside of California, shall be lawful provided that
all of the following apply:
   (1) Exchange wagering shall only be conducted by an exchange
wagering licensee pursuant to a valid exchange wagering license
issued by the board.
   (2) No exchange wagering licensee shall accept exchange wagers on
races conducted in California from a resident of California or a
resident of a jurisdiction outside California, or conducted outside
California from a resident of California, unless an exchange wagering
agreement exists allowing these wagers.
   (3) Exchange wagering shall be conducted pursuant to and in
compliance with the provisions of the Interstate Horseracing Act of
1978 (15 U.S.C. Sec. 3001 et seq.), as amended, this section, all
applicable federal laws, and rules and regulations promulgated by the
board pursuant to this section.
   (4) An exchange wagering licensee may only offer exchange wagering
on thoroughbred horse races, whether these thoroughbred races are
conducted within or outside of this state, to persons whose primary
residence address is in the northern zone of this state if it has an
exchange wagering agreement with (A) the racing association or racing
fair located in the northern zone authorized by the board to conduct
a live thoroughbred racing meeting in accordance with the provisions
of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19480) at that time, or during
the calendar period, when the exchange wagering licensee is offering
exchange wagering to persons whose primary residence is in the
northern zone of this state, and (B) the horsemen's organization
responsible for negotiating purse agreements for a live thoroughbred
racing meeting.
   (5) An exchange wagering licensee may only offer exchange wagering
on thoroughbred horse races, whether these thoroughbred races are
conducted within or outside of this state, to persons whose primary
residence address is in the central/southern zone of this state if it
has an exchange wagering agreement with (A) the racing association
or racing fair located in the central/southern zone authorized by the
board to conduct a live thoroughbred racing meeting in accordance
with the provisions of Article 4 (commencing with Section 19480) at
that time, or during the calendar period, when the exchange wagering
licensee is offering exchange wagering to persons whose primary
residence is in the central/southern zone of this state, and (B) the
horsemen's organization responsible for negotiating purse agreements
for a live thoroughbred racing meeting.
   (6) An exchange wagering licensee may only offer exchange wagering
on quarter horse races, whether these quarter horse races are
conducted within or outside of this state, to persons whose primary
residence address is in this state if it has an exchange wagering
agreement with (A) the racing association or racing fair located in
the state authorized by the board to conduct a live quarter horse
racing meeting in accordance with the provisions of Article 4
(commencing with Section 19480) at that time, or during the calendar
period, when the exchange wagering licensee is offering exchange
wagering to persons whose primary residence is this state, and (B)
the horsemen's organization responsible for negotiating purse
agreements for the live quarter horse racing meeting.
   (7) An exchange wagering licensee may only offer exchange wagering
on standardbred horse races, whether these standardbred horse races
are conducted within or outside of this state, to persons whose
primary residence address is in this state if it has an exchange
wagering agreement with (A) the racing association or racing fair
located in the state authorized by the board to conduct a live
standardbred racing meeting in accordance with the provisions of
Article 4 (commencing with Section 19480) at that time, or during the
calendar period, when the exchange wagering licensee is offering
exchange wagering to persons whose primary residence is this state,
and (B) the horsemen's organization responsible for negotiating purse
agreements for the live standardbred racing meeting.
   (8) Exchange wagers are submitted to, and accepted by, an exchange
wagering licensee in person, by direct telephone call, or by
communication through other electronic media.
   (c) A person shall not be permitted to open an exchange wagering
account, or place an exchange wager, except in accordance with
federal law, this section, and rules and regulations promulgated by
the board. Only natural persons with valid exchange wagering accounts
may place wagers through an exchange. To establish an exchange
wagering account, a person shall be at least 18 years of age and a
resident of California or of another jurisdiction within which the
placement of exchange wagers would not be unlawful under United
States federal law or the law of that jurisdiction.
   (d) The board shall approve, as part of the exchange wagering
licensee's application for an exchange wagering license, security
policies and safeguards to ensure player protection and integrity,
including, but not limited to, provisions governing the acceptance of
electronic applications for persons establishing exchange wagering
accounts, location and age verification confirmation for persons
establishing exchange wagering accounts, the use of identifying
factors to ensure security of individual accounts, and the
requirements for management of funds in exchange wagering accounts.
An exchange wagering licensee may not accept a wager, or series of
wagers, if the results of the wager or wagers would create a
liability for the exchange wagering account holder that is in excess
of the funds on deposit in the exchange wagering account of that
holder.
   (e) Notwithstanding any other law, rule, or regulation:
   (1) The board shall have full power to prescribe rules,
regulations, and conditions under which exchange wagering may be
conducted in California consistent with this section, including the
manner in which exchange wagers may be accepted and the requirements
for any person to participate in exchange wagering.
   (2) Prior to  the board  promulgating rules,
regulations, and conditions under which exchange wagering may be
conducted in California, the board shall consider studies or comments
submitted by interested parties on the impact of exchange wagering
on parimutuel betting and the economics of the California horse
racing industry to assist the board in developing rules, regulations,
and conditions for exchange wagering that are in the best interest
of the public and the California horse racing industry. The board may
set a  time frame   timeframe  for
comments and studies to be submitted by interested parties and for
the board to consider the studies and comments so as to allow
sufficient time, in the discretion of the board, to allow for the
promulgation of rules, regulations, and conditions for exchange
wagering and the issuance of licenses for exchange wagering prior to
May 1, 2012.
   (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the board shall adopt the
following rules:
   (A) An owner, authorized agent, trainer, jockey, jockey's agent,
driver, or stable employee shall not place an exchange wager to lay
any entrant in a horse race that is owned in whole or part by that
owner or the owner represented by that authorized agent, trained by
that trainer or stable employee, ridden by that jockey or the jockey
represented by that jockey's agent, or driven by that driver.
   (B) No exchange wagers shall be placed on a market after the
conclusion of a live race. Exchange wagering on previously run races
is prohibited.
   (C) The exchange wagering licensee shall provide a person with
information on the race, including the track where the race will take
place and the names of the participating horses  ,  before
the person may place an exchange wager.
   (D) The exchange wagering licensee shall require the person making
the exchange wager to select the specific race and horse for the
wager. The use of automatic, quick-pick, or similar features to aid
in the placing of a wager shall be prohibited.
   (E) The results of a wager shall not be displayed through the use
of video or mechanical reels or other slot machine or casino game
themes, including, but not limited to, dice games, wheel games, card
games, and lotto.
   (4) The board shall have full power to prescribe rules,
regulations, and conditions under which all exchange wagering
licenses are issued or renewed in California, including requiring an
annual audit of the exchange wagering licensee's books and records
pertaining to exchange wagering, and to revoke, suspend, or refuse to
renew a license pursuant to the authority granted to the board in
this chapter.
   (5) The board may reasonably require licensure or registration of
officers or directors of any exchange wagering licensee.
   (6) The board may recover any costs associated with the licensing
or regulation of exchange wagering from the exchange wagering
licensee by imposing an assessment on the exchange wagering licensee
in an amount that does not exceed the reasonable costs associated
with the licensing or regulation of exchange wagering. Funds received
pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited in the Horse Racing
Fund, to be available upon appropriation by the Legislature for the
sole purpose of regulating exchange wagering.
   (f) (1) The board shall not approve an application for an original
or renewal license as an exchange wagering licensee unless the
entity, if requested in writing by a bona fide labor organization no
later than 90 days prior to licensing, has entered into a contractual
agreement with that labor organization that provides all of the
following:
   (A) The labor organization has historically represented employees
who accept or process any form of wagering at the nearest horse
racing meeting located in California.
   (B) The agreement establishes the method by which the exchange
wagering licensee will agree to recognize and bargain in good faith
with a labor organization which has demonstrated majority status by
submitting authorization cards signed by those employees who accept
or process any form of wagering for which a California exchange
wagering license is required.
   (C) The agreement requires the exchange wagering licensee to
maintain its neutrality concerning the choice of those employees who
accept or process any form of wagering for which a California
exchange wagering license is required and whether or not to authorize
the labor organization to represent them with regard to wages,
hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
   (D) The agreement applies to those classifications of employees
who accept or process wagers for which a California exchange wagering
license is required  ,  whether the facility is located
within or outside of California.
   (2) (A) The agreement required by paragraph (1) shall not be
conditioned by either party upon the other party agreeing to matters
outside the requirements of paragraph (1).
   (B) The requirement in paragraph (1) shall not apply to an
exchange wagering licensee  which   that 
has entered into a collective bargaining agreement with a bona fide
labor organization that is the exclusive bargaining representative of
employees who accept or process parimutuel wagers on races for which
an exchange wagering license is required, whether the facility is
located within or outside of California.
   (3) Permanent state or county employees and nonprofit
organizations that have historically performed certain services at
county, state, or district fairs may continue to provide those
services.
   (4) Parimutuel clerks employed by racing associations or fairs or
employees of exchange wagering licensees who accept or process any
form of wagers who are laid off due to lack of work shall have
preferential hiring rights for new positions with their employer in
occupations whose duties include accepting or processing any form of
wagers, or the operation, repair, service, or maintenance of
equipment that accepts or processes any form of wagering at a
racetrack, satellite wagering facility, or exchange wagering licensee
licensed by the board. The preferential hiring rights established by
this paragraph shall be conditioned upon the employee meeting the
minimum qualification requirements of the new job.
   (g) Notwithstanding any other law, rule, or regulation, an
exchange wagering licensee shall not be required to include any pools
of exchange wagers in the wagering pools at the racing association
or racing fair conducting the races, nor shall an exchange wagering
licensee be required to retain, withhold, or take out any amounts
from any exchange wagers, except as expressly set forth in the
applicable exchange wagering agreement.
   (h) Subject to the approval of the board, an exchange wagering
licensee shall be permitted to collect exchange revenues in the
manner and amounts determined by the exchange wagering licensee,
including, but not limited to, assessing a surcharge on any person's
net winnings.
   (i) Notwithstanding any other law, rule, or regulation, the board
shall require all of the following:
   (1) Each exchange wagering licensee shall distribute all moneys in
each pool, net of any fees, charges, or deductions of any kind
assessed or collected by the exchange wagering licensee in connection
with matched wagers in that pool, at the conclusion of the race or
races associated with that pool.
   (2) Each exchange wagering licensee shall distribute the portions
of the exchange wagering licensee's exchange revenues as may be
required pursuant to the exchange wagering agreement pursuant to
paragraphs (2) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (b).
   (3) Fifty percent of the amounts received by a racing association
or racing fair from exchange wagering shall be paid to horsemen
participating in the meetings conducted by that racing association or
racing fair in the form of purses. The allocation of amounts
received by a racing association or racing fair from exchange
wagering between that racing association or racing fair and the
horsemen participating in the meetings conducted by that racing
association or racing fair may be modified by a written agreement
between those entities.
   (4) In addition to payments set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2),
each exchange wagering licensee shall distribute, on an annual basis,
an amount equal to the greater of (A) one hundred thousand dollars
($100,000), or (B) an amount equal to 0.001 multiplied by the total
amount of exchange revenues collected by the exchange wagering
licensee in that calendar year. The distribution shall be made at the
direction of the board pursuant to Section 19612.9. This paragraph
shall become inoperative on January 1, 2021, and, as of that date, is
repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before
January 1, 2021, deletes or extends that date.
   (j) An exchange wagering licensee may cancel or allow to be
canceled any unmatched wagers, without cause, at any time.
         (k) The board may prescribe rules governing when an exchange
wagering licensee may cancel or void a matched wager or part of a
matched wager, and the actions which an exchange wagering licensee
may take when all or part of a matched wager is canceled or voided.
The rules may include, but are not limited to, permitting the
exchange wagering licensee to place corrective wagers under
circumstances approved in the rules adopted by the board. Exchange
wagers placed on a market after the start of a race shall be lawful
if authorized by the board, racing association, or racing fair
conducting the races, and the horsemen's organization responsible for
negotiating purse agreements for the breed on which the exchange
wager is made.
   (l) The provisions of this section shall be deemed to be
severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this
section is declared to be unconstitutional or the applicability
thereof to any person is held invalid, the remainder of this section
shall not thereby be deemed to be unconstitutional or invalid.
   (m) The board shall promulgate administrative rules and
regulations to effectuate the purposes of this section.
   (n) No exchange wagering licensee may accept exchange wagers
pursuant to this section prior to May 1, 2012.
  SEC. 25.  Section 19605.73 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19605.73.  (a) Thoroughbred racing associations, fairs, and the
organization responsible for contracting with thoroughbred racing
associations and fairs with respect to the conduct of racing
meetings, may form a private, statewide marketing organization to
market and promote thoroughbred and fair horse racing, including, but
not limited to,  the  establishment and maintenance of an
Internet Web site featuring California thoroughbred and fair racing,
the establishment and administration of players incentive programs
for those who wager on thoroughbred association and fair races, and
promotional activities at satellite wagering facilities to increase
their attendance and handle. While the promotional activities at
satellite wagering facilities shall be funded by the marketing
organization, they shall be implemented and coordinated by
representatives of the satellite wagering facilities and the
thoroughbred racing associations or  fair  
fairs  then conducting a live race meet. The organization shall
consist of the following members: two members, one from the northern
zone and one from the combined central and southern zones, appointed
by the thoroughbred racetracks; two members, one from the northern
zone and one from the combined central and southern zones, appointed
by the owners' organization responsible for contracting with
associations and fairs with respect to the conduct of racing
meetings; and two members, one from the northern zone and one from
the combined central and southern zones, appointed by the
organization representing racing and satellite fairs.
   (b) The marketing organization formed pursuant to subdivision (a)
shall, by November 1 of each year, submit a written report to the
board on a statewide marketing and promotion plan for the upcoming
calendar year. In addition, the organization shall annually present
to the board at the board's November meeting a verbal report on the
statewide marketing and promotion plan for the upcoming calendar
year. The plan shall be implemented as determined by the
organization. The organization shall receive input from all
interested industry participants and may utilize outside consultants.

   (c) In addition to the distributions specified in subdivisions (a)
and (b) of Section 19605.7, subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section
19605.71, and Section 19605.72, for thoroughbred and fair meetings
only, from the amount that would normally be available for
commissions and purses, an amount not to exceed 0.25 percent of the
total amount handled by each satellite wagering facility shall be
distributed to the marketing organization formed pursuant to
subdivision (a) for the purposes set forth therein. The amounts
initially distributed to the marketing organization formed pursuant
to subdivision (a) shall be 0.2 percent of the total amount handled
by satellite wagering facilities for thoroughbred and fair meetings
only. The amount distributable to the marketing organization may be
adjusted by the board, in its discretion. However, the adjusted
amounts may not exceed an aggregate of 0.25 percent of the total
amount handled by satellite wagering facilities for thoroughbred and
fair meetings only. Any of the promotion funds that are not expended
in the year in which they are collected may be expended in the
following year. If promotion funds expended in any one year exceed
the amount collected for that year, the funds expended in the
following year shall be reduced by the excess amount.  Any of
the promotion funds that are not expended in the year in which they
are collected may be expended in the following year. If promotion
funds expended in any one year exceed the amount collected for that
year, the funds expended in the following year shall be reduced by
the excess amount.  The marketing organization, on a
quarterly basis, shall submit to the board a written report that
accounts for all receipts and expenditures of the promotion funds for
the previous three months.
   (d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2014, and, as of that date, is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute that is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends
that date. Any moneys held by the organization shall, in the event
this section is repealed, be distributed to the organization formed
pursuant to Section 19608.2, for purposes of that section.
  SEC. 26.  Section 19614.5 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   19614.5.  Notwithstanding Section 19614, any county or district
agricultural association fair which is licensed to conduct racing
meetings for the first time on or after January 1, 1979, may retain
the license fee applicable to its meeting for payment of a capital
expense loan incurred for the purpose of preparing its facilities for
horseracing.  Such   This  license fee
retention shall be applicable only during the loan period and only so
long as all the  monies   moneys  retained
are used to pay off the loan for  such   the
 capital expenses.
  SEC. 27.  Section 23358.2 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   23358.2.  Notwithstanding any other provision of this division, a
winegrower or brandy manufacturer, at his  or her  licensed
premises where the sale of wine or brandy is authorized or permitted,
when selling to consumers, may sell only wine or brandy which is
produced or bottled by such licensee, or wine or brandy which is
produced for or is produced and packaged for such licensee, and which
is sold under a brand name owned by such licensee. The rights and
privileges of a winegrower or brandy manufacturer to be issued and to
hold an off-sale beer and wine license for any of his  or her
 licensed premises, or for other premises, shall not in any way
be changed or affected, or be construed to be changed or affected, by
the provisions of this section.
  SEC. 28.  Section 23368.1 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   23368.1.  A distilled spirits rectifier's general license
authorizes the person to whom issued to cut, blend, rectify, mix,
flavor, and color distilled spirits, and whether so cut, blended,
mixed, flavored, or colored by him or any other person to package,
label, export, and sell the distilled spirits to distilled spirits
manufacturers, distilled spirits manufacturer's agents, distilled
spirits wholesalers, distilled spirits general importers, rectifiers,
and distilled spirits general rectifiers.
   No distilled spirits rectifier's general license shall be issued
to any person who holds an interest, directly or indirectly, in an
on-sale or off-sale general license. The number of distilled spirits
rectifier's general licenses which may be issued shall not be limited
by the provisions of Section 23820.
   A distilled spirits rectifier's general license may be issued to
the same premises for which a manufacturer's, manufacturer's agent,
importer's, rectifier's  ,  or wholesaler's license has been
issued and is in effect whether issued to the same person or another
person.
   The fee for a distilled spirits rectifier's general license shall
be two hundred seventy-six dollars ($276), which shall be deposited
in the  Alcoholic  Alcohol  Beverage
Control Fund.
  SEC. 29.  Section 23378.1 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   23378.1.  (a) A California brandy wholesaler's license may be
issued only to the holder of a beer and wine wholesaler's license,
and authorizes the person to whom it is issued (hereafter in this
section called "licensee") to sell only brandy produced in California
to persons holding licenses authorizing the sale of brandy, and to
export  such   that  brandy, subject to all
of the following conditions:
   (1)  Such   The    licensee
shall: 
   (i) 
    (A)  Maintain warehouse space either owned or leased by
him  or her  or dedicated to his  or her  use in a
public warehouse which space is sufficient to store at one time a
stock of California brandy whose cost of acquisition is one hundred
thousand dollars ($100,000) or more. 
   (ii) 
    (B)  Maintain at all times in his  or her 
warehouse either owned or leased by him  or her  or in space
dedicated to his  or her  use in a public warehouse a stock
of California brandy whose cost of acquisition is one hundred
thousand dollars ($100,000) or more. If a licensee has more than one
licensed premise, he  or she  shall be required to maintain
warehouse space for and a stock of California brandy whose cost of
acquisition is one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) or more only
in connection with one licensed premise. For each of the remaining
licensed premises, the licensee shall be required to maintain
warehouse space for and a stock of California brandy whose cost of
acquisition is thirty thousand dollars ($30,000) or more. The stock
of California brandy required by this paragraph shall be owned by the
licensee, not held on consignment, and not acquired pursuant to a
prior agreement to sell it to a specific licensee or licensees.
   (2)  Such   The  licensee shall sell
California brandy to retailers generally, rather than a few selected
retailers. A licensee who sells to 25 percent of the retailers in the
county where his  or her  California brandy wholesale
licensed premises are located, or a licensee whose total volume of
sales of California brandy to retailers during any 12-month period
consists of 50 percent or more of individual sales in quantities of
10 cases or less  ,  shall be conclusively presumed to be
selling to retailers generally.
   (3)  Such   The  licensee may sell only
one California brandy of one winegrower, which brandy is produced or
bottled by  such   the  winegrower, or
which is produced for, or is produced and packaged for,  such
  the  winegrower, and is sold under a brand name
owned or controlled by  such   the 
winegrower.
   (4)  Such   The  licensee, under the
authority of his  or her  beer and wine wholesaler's
license, shall stock and offer to sell to retailers a complete
product line of California wines of the winegrower whose brandy the
licensee handles. A "complete product line" for the purposes of this
paragraph means all of the types of wines sold under a particular
label.
   (b) The number of California brandy wholesaler's licenses which
may be issued shall not be limited by any rule of the department
relating to the number which may be issued in any county, nor shall
 such   those  licenses be included in any
formula used by the department in determining the number of distilled
spirits wholesaler's licenses which may be issued in a county.
   (c) The fee for a California brandy wholesaler's license shall be
two hundred seventy-six dollars ($276) per year, which shall be
deposited in the  Alcoholic   Alcohol 
Beverage Control Fund.
  SEC. 30.  Section 25608 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   25608.  (a) Every person who possesses, consumes, sells, gives, or
delivers to any other person, any alcoholic beverage in or on any
public schoolhouse or any of the grounds of the schoolhouse, is
guilty of a misdemeanor. This section does not, however, make it
unlawful for any person to acquire, possess, or use any alcoholic
beverage in or on any public schoolhouse, or on any grounds of the
schoolhouse, if any of the following applies:
   (1) The alcoholic beverage possessed, consumed, or sold, pursuant
to a license obtained under this division  ,  is
wine that is produced by a bonded winery owned or operated as part of
an instructional program in viticulture and enology.
   (2) The alcoholic beverage is acquired, possessed, or used in
connection with a course of instruction given at the school and the
person has been authorized to acquire, possess, or use it by the
governing body or other administrative head of the school.
   (3) The public schoolhouse is surplus school property and the
grounds of the schoolhouse are leased to a lessee that is a general
law city with a population of less than 50,000, or the public
schoolhouse is surplus school property and the grounds of the
schoolhouse are located in an unincorporated area and are leased to a
lessee that is a civic organization, and the property is to be used
for community center purposes and no public school education is to be
conducted on the property by either the lessor or the lessee and the
property is not being used by persons under  the age of
 21 years  of age  for recreational purposes at any
time during which alcoholic beverages are being sold or consumed on
the premises.
   (4) The alcoholic beverages are acquired, possessed, or used
during events at a college-owned or college-operated veterans stadium
with a capacity of over 12,000 people, located in a county with a
population of over 6,000,000 people. As used in this paragraph,
"events"  mean   means  football games
sponsored by a college, other than a public community college, or
other events sponsored by noncollege groups.
   (5) The alcoholic beverages are acquired, possessed, or used
during an event not sponsored by any college at a performing arts
facility built on property owned by a community college district and
leased to a nonprofit organization that is a public benefit
corporation formed under Part 2 (commencing with Section 5110) of
Division 2 of Title 1 of the Corporations Code. As used in this
paragraph, "performing arts facility" means an auditorium with more
than 300 permanent seats.
   (6) The alcoholic beverage is wine for sacramental or other
religious purposes and is used only during authorized religious
services held on or before January 1, 1995.
   (7) The alcoholic beverages are acquired, possessed, or used
during an event at a community center owned by a community services
district and the event is not held at a time when students are
attending a public school-sponsored activity at the center.
   (8) The alcoholic beverage is wine that is acquired, possessed, or
used during an event sponsored by a community college district or an
organization operated for the benefit of the community college
district where the college district maintains both an instructional
program in viticulture on no less than five acres of land owned by
the district and an instructional program in enology, which includes
sales and marketing.
   (9) The alcoholic beverage is acquired, possessed, or used at a
professional minor league baseball game conducted at the stadium of a
community college located in a county with a population of 
less   fewer  than 250,000 inhabitants, and the
baseball game is conducted pursuant to a contract between the
community college district and a professional sports organization.
   (10) The alcoholic beverages are acquired, possessed, or used
during events at a college-owned or college-operated stadium or other
facility. As used in this paragraph, "events" means fundraisers held
to benefit a nonprofit corporation that has obtained a license
pursuant to this division for the event. "Events" does not include
football games or other athletic contests sponsored by any college or
public community college. This paragraph shall not apply to any
public education facility in which any grade from kindergarten to
grade 12, inclusive, is schooled.
   (11) The alcoholic beverages are possessed, consumed, or sold,
pursuant to a license, permit, or authorization obtained under this
division, for an event held at an overnight retreat facility owned
and operated by a county office of education or a school district at
times when pupils are not on the grounds.
   (12) The grounds of the public schoolhouse on which the alcoholic
beverage is acquired, possessed, used, or consumed is property that
has been developed and is used for residential facilities or housing
that is offered for rent, lease, or sale exclusively to faculty or
staff of a public school or community college.
   (13) The grounds of a public schoolhouse on which the alcoholic
beverage is acquired, possessed, used, or consumed is property of a
community college that is leased, licensed, or otherwise provided for
use as a water conservation demonstration garden and community
passive recreation resource by a joint powers agency comprised of
public agencies, including the community college, and the event at
which the alcoholic beverage is acquired, possessed, used, or
consumed is conducted pursuant to a written policy adopted by the
governing body of the joint powers agency and no public funds are
used for the purchase or provision of the alcoholic beverage.
   (14) The alcoholic beverage is beer or wine acquired, possessed,
used, sold, or consumed only in connection with a course of
instruction, sponsored dinner, or meal demonstration given as part of
a culinary arts program at a campus of a California community
college and the person has been authorized to acquire, possess, use,
sell, or consume the beer or wine by the governing body or other
administrative head of the school.
   (15) The alcoholic beverages are possessed, consumed, or sold,
pursuant to a license or permit obtained under this division  ,
 for special events held at the facilities of a public community
college, located in a county of the first class, a county of the
fourth class, or a county of the tenth class, during the special
event. As used in this paragraph, "special event" means festivals,
shows, private parties, concerts, theatrical productions, and other
events held on the premises of the public community college, pursuant
to a license or permit, and for which the principal attendees are
members of the general public or invited guests and not students of
the public community college.
   (16) The alcoholic beverages are acquired, possessed, or used
during an event at a community college-owned facility in which any
grade from kindergarten to grade 12, inclusive, is schooled, if the
event is held at a time when  students   pupils
 in any grades from kindergarten to grade 12, inclusive, are not
present at the facility. As used in this paragraph, "events" include
fundraisers held to benefit a nonprofit corporation that has
obtained a license pursuant to this division for the event.
   (b) Any person convicted of a violation of this section shall, in
addition to the penalty imposed for the misdemeanor, be barred from
having or receiving any privilege of the use of public school
property which is accorded by Article 2 (commencing with Section
82537) of Chapter 8 of Part 49 of Division 7 of Title 3  of 
the Education Code.
  SEC. 31.  Section 25658 of the Business and Professions Code is
amended to read:
   25658.  (a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (c), every
person who sells, furnishes, gives, or causes to be sold, furnished,
or given away  ,  any alcoholic beverage to any
person under  the age of  21 years  of age 
is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (b) Except as provided in Section 25667, any person under 
the age of  21 years  of age  who purchases any
alcoholic beverage, or any person under  the age of 
21 years  of age  who consumes any alcoholic beverage in
any on-sale premises, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (c) Any person who violates subdivision (a) by purchasing any
alcoholic beverage for, or furnishing, giving, or giving away any
alcoholic beverage to, a person under  the age of 
21 years  of age  , and the person under  the age of
 21 years  of age  thereafter consumes the alcohol
and thereby proximately causes great bodily injury or death to
himself, herself, or any other person, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (d) Any on-sale licensee who knowingly permits a person under
 the age of  21 years  of age  to consume
any alcoholic beverage in the on-sale premises, whether or not the
licensee has knowledge that the person is under  the age of
 21 years  of age  , is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (e) (1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2)  ,
  or  (3), or Section 25667, any person who
violates this section shall be punished by a fine of two hundred
fifty dollars ($250), no part of which shall be suspended, or the
person shall be required to perform not less than 24 hours or more
than 32 hours of community service during hours when the person is
not employed and is not attending school, or a combination of a fine
and community service as determined by the court. A second or
subsequent violation of subdivision (b), where prosecution of the
previous violation was not barred pursuant to Section 25667, shall be
punished by a fine of not more than five hundred dollars ($500), or
the person shall be required to perform not less than 36 hours or
more than 48 hours of community service during hours when the person
is not employed and is not attending school, or a combination of a
fine and community service as determined by the court. It is the
intent of the Legislature that the community service requirements
prescribed in this section require service at an alcohol or drug
treatment program or facility or at a county coroner's office, if
available, in the area where the violation occurred or where the
person resides.
   (2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), any person who violates
subdivision (a) by furnishing an alcoholic beverage, or causing an
alcoholic beverage to be furnished, to a minor shall be punished by a
fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), no part of which shall be
suspended, and the person shall be required to perform not less than
24 hours of community service during hours when the person is not
employed and is not attending school.
   (3) Any person who violates subdivision (c) shall be punished by
imprisonment in a county jail for a minimum term of six months not to
exceed one year, by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by
both imprisonment and fine.
   (f) Persons under  the age of  21 years  of
age  may be used by peace officers in the enforcement of this
section to apprehend licensees, or employees or agents of licensees,
or other persons who sell or furnish alcoholic beverages to minors.
Notwithstanding subdivision (b), any person under  the age of
 21 years  of age  who purchases or attempts to
purchase any alcoholic beverage while under the direction of a peace
officer is immune from prosecution for that purchase or attempt to
purchase an alcoholic beverage. Guidelines with respect to the use of
persons under  the age of  21 years  of age
 as decoys shall be adopted and published by the department in
accordance with the rulemaking portion of the Administrative
Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1
of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). Law
enforcement-initiated minor decoy programs in operation prior to the
effective date of regulatory guidelines adopted by the department
shall be authorized as long as the minor decoy displays to the seller
of alcoholic beverages the appearance of a person under  the
age of  21 years  of age  . This subdivision shall
not be construed to prevent the department from taking disciplinary
action against a licensee who sells alcoholic beverages to a minor
decoy prior to the department's final adoption of regulatory
guidelines. After the completion of every minor decoy program
performed under this subdivision, the law enforcement agency using
the decoy shall notify licensees within 72 hours of the results of
the program. When the use of a minor decoy results in the issuance of
a citation, the notification required shall be given to licensees
and the department within 72 hours of the issuance of the citation. A
law enforcement agency may comply with this requirement by leaving a
written notice at the licensed premises addressed to the licensee,
or by mailing a notice addressed to the licensee.
   (g) The penalties imposed by this section do not preclude
prosecution or the imposition of penalties under any other provision
of law, including, but not limited to, Section 272 of the Penal Code
and Section 13202.5 of the Vehicle Code.
  SEC. 32.  Section 798.23.5 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
   798.23.5.  (a) (1) Management shall permit a homeowner to rent his
or her home that serves as the homeowner's primary residence or
sublet his or her space, under the circumstances described in
paragraph (2) and subject to the requirements of this section.
   (2) A homeowner shall be permitted to rent or sublet pursuant to
paragraph (1) if a medical emergency or medical treatment requires
the homeowner to be absent from his or her home and this is confirmed
in writing by an attending physician.
   (b) The following provisions shall apply to a rental or sublease
pursuant to this section:
   (1) The minimum term of the rental or sublease shall be six
months, unless the management approves a shorter term, but no greater
than 12 months, unless management approves a longer term.
   (2) The management may require approval of a prospective renter or
sublessee, subject to the process and restrictions provided by
subdivision (a) of Section 798.74 for prospective purchasers of
mobilehomes. A prospective sublessee shall comply with any rule or
regulation limiting residency based on age requirements, pursuant to
Section 798.76. The management may charge a prospective sublessee a
credit screening fee for the actual cost of any personal reference
check or consumer credit report that is provided by a consumer credit
reporting agency, as defined in Section 1785.3, if the management or
his or her agent requires
that personal reference check or consumer credit report.
   (3) The renter or sublessee shall comply with all rules and
regulations of the park. The failure of a renter or sublessee to
comply with the rules and regulations of the park may result in the
termination of the homeowner's tenancy in the mobilehome park, in
accordance with Section 798.56. A homeowner's tenancy may not be
terminated under this paragraph if the homeowner completes an action
for unlawful detainer or executes a  judgement  
judgment  for possession, pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing
with Section 1159) of Title 3 of Part 3 of the Code of Civil
Procedure within 60 days of the homeowner receiving notice of
termination of tenancy.
   (4) The homeowner shall remain liable for the mobilehome park rent
and other park charges.
   (5) The management may require the homeowner to reside in the
mobilehome park for a term of one year before management permits the
renting or subletting of a mobilehome or mobilehome space.
   (6) Notwithstanding subdivision (a) of Section 798.39, if a
security deposit has been refunded to the homeowner pursuant to
subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 798.39, the management may require
the homeowner to resubmit a security deposit in an amount or value
not to exceed two months' rent in addition to the first month's rent.
Management may retain this security deposit for the duration of the
term of the rental or sublease.
   (7) The homeowner shall keep his or her current address and
telephone number on file with the management during the term of
rental or sublease. If applicable, the homeowner may provide the
name, address, and telephone number of his or her legal
representative.
   (c) A homeowner may not charge a renter or sublessee more than an
amount necessary to cover the cost of space rent, utilities, and
scheduled loan payments on the mobilehome, if any.
  SEC. 33.  Section 799.1 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
   799.1.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), this article
shall govern the rights of a resident who has an ownership interest
in the subdivision, cooperative, or condominium for mobilehomes, or a
resident-owned mobilehome park in which his or her mobilehome is
located or installed. In a subdivision, cooperative, or condominium
for mobilehomes, or a resident-owned mobilehome park, 
Articles   Article  1 (commencing with Section 798)
 through   to  Article 8 (commencing with
Section 798.84)  , inclusive,  shall apply only to a
resident who does not have an ownership interest in the subdivision,
cooperative, or condominium for mobilehomes, or the resident-owned
mobilehome park, in which his or her mobilehome is located or
installed.
   (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), in a mobilehome park owned
and operated by a nonprofit mutual benefit corporation, established
pursuant to Section 11010.8 of the Business and Professions Code,
whose members consist of park residents where there is no recorded
condominium plan, tract, parcel map, or declaration, Article 1
(commencing with Section 798)  through   to
 Article 8 (commencing with Section 798.84)  , inclusive,
 shall govern the rights of members who are residents that have
a rental agreement with the corporation.
  SEC. 34.  Section 1195 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
   1195.  (a) Proof of the execution of an instrument, when not
acknowledged, may be made any of the following: 
   1. 
    (1)  By the party executing it, or either of them.

   2. 
    (2)  By a subscribing witness. 
   3. 
    (3)  By other witnesses, in cases mentioned in Section
1198.
   (b) Proof of the execution of a grant deed, mortgage, deed of
trust, quitclaim deed, or security agreement is not permitted
pursuant to Section 27287 of the Government Code, though proof of the
execution of a trustee's deed or deed of reconveyance is permitted.
   (c) Any certificate for proof of execution taken within this state
may be in the following form, although the use of other,
substantially similar forms is not precluded:
State of California   )
                          ss.
County of __________  )


   On ____ (date), before me, the undersigned, a notary public for
the state, personally appeared ____ (subscribing witness's name),
personally known to me (or proved to me on the oath of ____ credible
witness's name], who is personally known to me) to be the person
whose name is subscribed to the within instrument, as a witness
thereto, who, being by me duly sworn, deposed and said that he/she
was present and saw ____ (names] of principals]), the same person(s)
described in and whose name(s) is/are subscribed to the within and
annexed instrument in his/her/their authorized capacity(ies) as (a)
party(ies) thereto, execute the same, and that said affiant
subscribed his/her name to the within instrument as a witness at the
request of ____ (names] of principals]).
  WITNESS my hand and official seal.
  Signature_____________________________    (Seal)


  SEC. 35.  Section 3344.1 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
   3344.1.  (a) (1) Any person who uses a deceased personality's
name, voice, signature, photograph, or likeness, in any manner, on or
in products, merchandise, or goods, or for purposes of advertising
or selling, or soliciting purchases of, products, merchandise, goods,
or services, without prior consent from the person or persons
specified in subdivision (c), shall be liable for any damages
sustained by the person or persons injured as a result thereof. In
addition, in any action brought under this section, the person who
violated the section shall be liable to the injured party or parties
in an amount equal to the greater of seven hundred fifty dollars
($750) or the actual damages suffered by the injured party or
parties, as a result of the unauthorized use, and any profits from
the unauthorized use that are attributable to the use and are not
taken into account in computing the actual damages. In establishing
these profits, the injured party or parties shall be required to
present proof only of the gross revenue attributable to the use, and
the person who violated the section is required to prove his or her
deductible expenses. Punitive damages may also be awarded to the
injured party or parties. The prevailing party or parties in any
action under this section shall also be entitled to attorney's fees
and costs.
   (2) For purposes of this subdivision, a play, book, magazine,
newspaper, musical composition, audiovisual work, radio or television
program, single and original work of art, work of political or
newsworthy value, or an advertisement or commercial announcement for
any of these works, shall not be considered a product, article of
merchandise, good, or service if it is fictional or nonfictional
entertainment, or a dramatic, literary, or musical work.
   (3) If a work that is protected under paragraph (2) includes
within it a use in connection with a product, article of merchandise,
good, or service, this use shall not be exempt under this
subdivision, notwithstanding the unprotected use's inclusion in a
work otherwise exempt under this subdivision, if the claimant proves
that this use is so directly connected with a product, article of
merchandise, good, or service as to constitute an act of advertising,
selling, or soliciting purchases of that product, article of
merchandise, good, or service by the deceased personality without
prior consent from the person or persons specified in subdivision
(c).
   (b) The rights recognized under this section are property rights,
freely transferable or descendible, in whole or in part, by contract
or by means of any trust or any other testamentary instrument,
executed before or after January 1, 1985. The rights recognized under
this section shall be deemed to have existed at the time of death of
any deceased personality who died prior to January 1, 1985, and,
except as provided in subdivision (o), shall vest in the persons
entitled to these property rights under the testamentary instrument
of the deceased personality effective as of the date of his or her
death. In the absence of an express transfer in a testamentary
instrument of the deceased personality's rights in his or her name,
voice, signature, photograph, or likeness, a provision in the
testamentary instrument that provides for the disposition of the
residue of the deceased personality's assets shall be effective to
transfer the rights recognized under this section in accordance with
the terms of that provision. The rights established by this section
shall also be freely transferable or descendible by contract, trust,
or any other testamentary instrument by any subsequent owner of the
deceased personality's rights as recognized by this section. Nothing
in this section shall be construed to render invalid or unenforceable
any contract entered into by a deceased personality during his or
her lifetime by which the deceased personality assigned the rights,
in whole or in part, to use his or her name, voice, signature,
photograph, or likeness, regardless of whether the contract was
entered into before or after January 1, 1985.
   (c) The consent required by this section shall be exercisable by
the person or persons to whom the right of consent, or portion
thereof, has been transferred in accordance with subdivision (b), or
if no transfer has occurred, then by the person or persons to whom
the right of consent, or portion thereof, has passed in accordance
with subdivision (d).
   (d) Subject to subdivisions (b) and (c), after the death of any
person, the rights under this section shall belong to the following
person or persons and may be exercised, on behalf of and for the
benefit of all of those persons, by those persons who, in the
aggregate, are entitled to more than a one-half interest in the
rights:
   (1) The entire interest in those rights  belong 
 belongs  to the surviving spouse of the deceased
personality unless there are any surviving children or grandchildren
of the deceased personality, in which case one-half of the entire
interest in those rights  belong   belongs 
to the surviving spouse.
   (2) The entire interest in those rights  belong 
 belongs  to the surviving children of the deceased
personality and to the surviving children of any dead child of the
deceased personality unless the deceased personality has a surviving
spouse, in which case the ownership of a one-half interest in rights
is divided among the surviving children and grandchildren.
   (3) If there is no surviving spouse, and no surviving children or
grandchildren, then the entire interest in those rights 
belong   belongs  to the surviving parent or
parents of the deceased personality.
   (4) The rights of the deceased personality's children and
grandchildren are in all cases divided among them and exercisable in
the manner provided in Section 240 of the Probate Code according to
the number of the deceased personality's children represented. The
share of the children of a dead child of a deceased personality can
be exercised only by the action of a majority of them.
   (e) If any deceased personality does not transfer his or her
rights under this section by contract, or by means of a trust or
testamentary instrument, and there are no surviving persons as
described in subdivision (d), then the rights set forth in
subdivision (a) shall terminate.
   (f) (1) A successor in interest to the rights of a deceased
personality under this section or a licensee thereof  may
  shall  not recover damages for a use prohibited
by this section that occurs before the successor in interest or
licensee registers a claim of the rights under paragraph (2).
   (2) Any person claiming to be a successor in interest to the
rights of a deceased personality under this section or a licensee
thereof may register that claim with the Secretary of State on a form
prescribed by the Secretary of State and upon payment of a fee as
set forth in subdivision (d) of Section 12195 of the Government Code.
The form shall be verified and shall include the name and date of
death of the deceased personality, the name and address of the
claimant, the basis of the claim, and the rights claimed.
   (3) Upon receipt and after filing of any document under this
section, the Secretary of State shall post the document along with
the entire registry of persons claiming to be a successor in interest
to the rights of a deceased personality or a registered licensee
under this section upon the Secretary of State's Internet Web site.
The Secretary of State may microfilm or reproduce by other techniques
any of the filings or documents and destroy the original filing or
document. The microfilm or other reproduction of any document under
 the provisions of  this section shall be admissible
in any court of law. The microfilm or other reproduction of any
document may be destroyed by the Secretary of State 70 years after
the death of the personality named therein.
   (4) Claims registered under this subdivision shall be public
records.
   (g) An action shall not be brought under this section by reason of
any use of a deceased personality's name, voice, signature,
photograph, or likeness occurring after the expiration of 70 years
after the death of the deceased personality.
   (h) As used in this section, "deceased personality" means any
natural person whose name, voice, signature, photograph, or likeness
has commercial value at the time of his or her death, or because of
his or her death, whether or not during the lifetime of that natural
person the person used his or her name, voice, signature, photograph,
or likeness on or in products, merchandise, or goods, or for
purposes of advertising or selling, or solicitation of purchase of,
products, merchandise, goods, or services. A "deceased personality"
shall include, without limitation, any such natural person who has
died within 70 years prior to January 1, 1985.
   (i) As used in this section, "photograph" means any photograph or
photographic reproduction, still or moving, or any videotape or live
television transmission, of any person, such that the deceased
personality is readily identifiable. A deceased personality shall be
deemed to be readily identifiable from a photograph if one who views
the photograph with the naked eye can reasonably determine who the
person depicted in the photograph is.
   (j) For purposes of this section, the use of a name, voice,
signature, photograph, or likeness in connection with any news,
public affairs, or sports broadcast or account, or any political
campaign, shall not constitute a use for which consent is required
under subdivision (a).
   (k) The use of a name, voice, signature, photograph, or likeness
in a commercial medium shall not constitute a use for which consent
is required under subdivision (a) solely because the material
containing the use is commercially sponsored or contains paid
advertising. Rather, it shall be a question of fact whether or not
the use of the deceased personality's name, voice, signature,
photograph, or likeness was so directly connected with the commercial
sponsorship or with the paid advertising as to constitute a use for
which consent is required under subdivision (a).
   (l) Nothing in this section shall apply to the owners or employees
of any medium used for advertising, including, but not limited to,
newspapers, magazines, radio and television networks and stations,
cable television systems, billboards, and transit advertisements, by
whom any advertisement or solicitation in violation of this section
is published or disseminated, unless it is established that the
owners or employees had knowledge of the unauthorized use of the
deceased personality's name, voice, signature, photograph, or
likeness as prohibited by this section.
   (m) The remedies provided for in this section are cumulative and
shall be in addition to any others provided for by law.
   (n) This section shall apply to the adjudication of liability and
the imposition of any damages or other remedies in cases in which the
liability, damages, and other remedies arise from acts occurring
directly in this state. For purposes of this section, acts giving
rise to liability shall be limited to the use, on or in products,
merchandise, goods, or services, or the advertising or selling, or
soliciting purchases of, products, merchandise, goods, or services
prohibited by this section.
   (o) Notwithstanding any provision of this section to the contrary,
if an action was taken prior to May 1, 2007, to exercise rights
recognized under this section relating to a deceased personality who
died prior to January 1, 1985, by a person described in subdivision
(d), other than a person who was disinherited by the deceased
personality in a testamentary instrument, and the exercise of those
rights was not challenged successfully in a court action by a person
described in subdivision (b), that exercise shall not be affected by
subdivision (b). In that case, the rights that would otherwise vest
in one or more persons described in subdivision (b) shall vest solely
in the person or persons described in subdivision (d), other than a
person disinherited by the deceased personality in a testamentary
instrument, for all future purposes.
   (p) The rights recognized by this section are expressly made
retroactive, including to those deceased personalities who died
before January 1, 1985.
  SEC. 36.  Section 170.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended
to read:
   170.9.  (a) A judge shall not accept gifts from a single source in
a calendar year with a total value of more than two hundred fifty
dollars ($250). This section shall not be construed to authorize the
receipt of gifts that would otherwise be prohibited by the 
California  Code of Judicial Ethics adopted by the
California Supreme Court or any other law.
   (b) This section shall not prohibit or limit the following:
   (1) Payments, advances, or reimbursements for travel and related
lodging and subsistence permitted by subdivision (e).
   (2) Wedding gifts and gifts exchanged between individuals on
birthdays, holidays, and other similar occasions, if the gifts
exchanged are not substantially disproportionate in value.
   (3) A gift, bequest, favor, or loan from a person whose
preexisting relationship with a judge would prevent the judge from
hearing a case involving that person, under the Code of Judicial
Ethics adopted by the California Supreme Court.
   (c) For purposes of this section, "judge" includes all of the
following:
   (1) Judges of the superior courts.
   (2) Justices of the courts of appeal and the Supreme Court.
   (3) Subordinate judicial officers, as defined in Section 71601 of
the Government Code.
   (d) The gift limitation amounts in this section shall be adjusted
biennially by the Commission on Judicial Performance to reflect
changes in the Consumer Price Index, rounded to the nearest ten
dollars ($10).
   (e) Payments, advances, or reimbursements  ,  for
travel, including actual transportation and related lodging and
subsistence that is reasonably related to a judicial or governmental
purpose, or to an issue of state, national, or international public
policy,  is   are  not prohibited or
limited by this section if any of the following apply:
   (1) The travel is in connection with a speech, practice
demonstration, or group or panel discussion given or participated in
by the judge, the lodging and subsistence expenses are limited to the
day immediately preceding, the day of, and the day immediately
following the speech, demonstration, or discussion, and the travel is
within the United States.
   (2) The travel is provided by a government, a governmental agency
or authority, a foreign government, a foreign bar association, an
international service organization, a bona fide public or private
educational institution, as defined in Section 203 of the Revenue and
Taxation Code, or a nonprofit charitable or religious organization
that is exempt from taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal
Revenue Code, or by a person domiciled outside the United States who
substantially satisfies the requirements for tax exempt status under
Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
   For purposes of this section, "foreign bar association" means an
association of attorneys located outside the United States (A) that
performs functions substantially equivalent to those performed by
state or local bar associations in this state and (B) that permits
membership by attorneys in that country representing various legal
specialties and does not limit membership to attorneys generally
representing one side or another in litigation. "International
service organization" means a bona fide international service
organization of which the judge is a member. A judge who accepts
travel payments from an international service organization pursuant
to this subdivision shall not preside over or participate in
decisions affecting that organization, its state or local chapters,
or its local members.
   (3) The travel is provided by a state or local bar association or
judges professional association in connection with testimony before a
governmental body or attendance at any professional function hosted
by the bar association or judges professional association, the
lodging and subsistence expenses are limited to the day immediately
preceding, the day of, and the day immediately following the
professional function.
   (f) Payments, advances, and reimbursements for travel not
described in subdivision (e) are subject to the limit in subdivision
(a).
   (g) No judge shall accept any honorarium.
   (h) "Honorarium" means a payment made in consideration for any
speech given, article published, or attendance at a public or private
conference, convention, meeting, social event, meal, or like
gathering.
   (i) "Honorarium" does not include earned income for personal
services that are customarily provided in connection with the
practice of a bona fide business, trade, or profession, such as
teaching or writing for a publisher, and does not include fees or
other things of value received pursuant to Section 94.5 of the Penal
Code for performance of a marriage.
   For purposes of this section, "teaching" shall include
presentations to impart educational information to lawyers in events
qualifying for credit under mandatory continuing legal education, to
students in bona fide educational institutions, and to associations
or groups of judges.
   (j) Subdivisions (a) and (e) shall apply to all payments,
advances, and reimbursements for travel and related lodging and
subsistence.
   (k) This section does not apply to any honorarium that is not used
and, within 30 days after receipt, is either returned to the donor
or delivered to the Controller for deposit in the General Fund
without being claimed as a deduction from income for tax purposes.
   (  l  ) "Gift" means a payment to the extent that
consideration of equal or greater value is not received and includes
a rebate or discount in the price of anything of value unless the
rebate or discount is made in the regular course of business to
members of the public without regard to official status. A person,
other than a defendant in a criminal action, who claims that a
payment is not a gift by reason of receipt of consideration has the
burden of proving that the consideration received is of equal or
greater value. However, the term "gift" does not include any of the
following:
   (1) Informational material such as books, reports, pamphlets,
calendars, periodicals, cassettes and discs, or free or reduced-price
admission, tuition, or registration, for informational conferences
or seminars. No payment for travel or reimbursement for any expenses
shall be deemed "informational material."
   (2) Gifts that are not used and, within 30 days after receipt, are
returned to the donor or delivered to a charitable organization
without being claimed as a charitable contribution for tax purposes.
   (3) Gifts from a judge's spouse, child, parent, grandparent,
grandchild, brother, sister, parent-in-law, brother-in-law,
sister-in-law, nephew, niece, aunt, uncle, or first cousin or the
spouse of any such person. However, a gift from any of those persons
shall be considered a gift if the donor is acting as an agent or
intermediary for a person not covered by this paragraph.
   (4) Campaign contributions required to be reported under Chapter 4
(commencing with Section 84100) of Title 9 of the Government Code.
   (5) Any devise or inheritance.
   (6) Personalized plaques and trophies with an individual value of
less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
   (7) Admission to events hosted by state or local bar associations
or  judges'   judges  professional
associations, and provision of related food and beverages at those
events, when attendance does not require "travel," as described in
paragraph (3) of subdivision (e).
   (m) The Commission on Judicial Performance shall enforce the
prohibitions of this section with regard to judges of the superior
courts and justices of the courts of appeal and the Supreme Court.
With regard to subordinate judicial officers, consistent with Section
18.1 of Article VI  of  the California Constitution, the
court employing the subordinate judicial officer shall exercise
initial jurisdiction to enforce the prohibitions of this section 
,  and the Commission on Judicial Performance shall exercise
discretionary jurisdiction with respect to the enforcement of the
prohibitions of this section.
  SEC. 37.  Section 630.01 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended
to read:
   630.01.  For purposes of this chapter:
   (a) "Expedited jury trial" means a consensual, binding jury trial
before a reduced jury panel and a judicial officer.
   (b) "High/low agreement" means a written agreement entered into by
the parties that specifies a minimum amount of damages that a
plaintiff is guaranteed to receive from the defendant, and a maximum
amount of damages that the defendant will be liable for, regardless
of the ultimate verdict returned by the jury. Neither the existence
of, nor the amounts contained in  ,  any high/low agreements
 ,  may be disclosed to the jury.
   (c) "Post-trial motions"  do  does  not
include motions relating to costs and attorney's fees, motions to
correct a judgment for a clerical error, and motions to enforce a
judgment.
  SEC. 38.  Section 630.08 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended
to read:
   630.08.  (a) By agreeing to participate in the expedited jury
trial process, the parties agree to waive any motions for directed
 verdicts   verdict  , motions to set aside
the verdict or any judgment rendered by the jury, or motions for a
new trial on the basis of inadequate or excessive damages.
                      (b) The court shall not set aside any verdict
or any judgment, shall not direct that judgment be entered in favor
of a party entitled to judgment as a matter of law, and shall not
order a new trial, except on the grounds stated in Section 630.09.
  SEC. 39.  Section 877 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to
read:
   877.  Where a release, dismissal with or without prejudice, or a
 convenant   covenant  not to sue or not to
enforce judgment is given in good faith before verdict or judgment
to one or more of a number of tortfeasors claimed to be liable for
the same tort, or to one or more other co-obligors mutually subject
to contribution rights, it shall have the following effect:
   (a) It shall not discharge any other such party from liability
unless its terms so provide, but it shall reduce the claims against
the others in the amount stipulated by the release, the dismissal or
the covenant, or in the amount of the consideration paid for it 
,  whichever is the greater.
   (b) It shall discharge the party to whom it is given from all
liability for any contribution to any other parties.
   (c) This section shall not apply to co-obligors who have expressly
agreed in writing to an apportionment of liability for losses or
claims among themselves.
   (d) This section shall not apply to a release, dismissal with or
without prejudice, or a covenant not to sue or not to enforce
judgment given to a co-obligor on an alleged contract debt where the
contract was made prior to January 1, 1988.
  SEC. 40.  Section 1010.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended
to read:
   1010.6.  (a) A document may be served electronically in an action
filed with the court as provided in this section, in accordance with
rules adopted pursuant to subdivision (d).
   (1) For purposes of this section:
   (A) "Electronic service" means service of a document, on a party
or other person, by either electronic transmission or electronic
notification. Electronic service may be performed directly by a
party, by an agent of a party, including the party's attorney, or
through an electronic filing service provider.
   (B) "Electronic transmission" means the transmission of a document
by electronic means to the electronic service address at or through
which a party or other person has authorized electronic service.
   (C) "Electronic notification" means the notification of the party
or other person that a document is served by sending an electronic
message to the electronic address at or through which the party or
other person has authorized electronic service, specifying the exact
name of the document served, and providing a hyperlink at which the
served document may be viewed and downloaded.
   (2) If a document may be served by mail, express mail, overnight
delivery, or facsimile transmission, electronic service of the
document is authorized when a party has agreed to accept service
electronically in that action.
   (3) In any action in which a party has agreed to accept electronic
service under paragraph (2), or in which the court has ordered
electronic service under subdivision (c), the court may
electronically serve any document issued by the court that is not
required to be personally served in the same manner that parties
electronically serve documents. The electronic service of documents
by the court shall have the same legal effect as service by mail,
except as provided in paragraph (4).
   (4) Electronic service of a document is complete at the time of
the electronic transmission of the document or at the time that the
electronic notification of service of the document is sent. However,
any period of notice, or any right or duty to do any act or make any
response within any period or on a date certain after the service of
the document, which time period or date is prescribed by statute or
rule of court, shall be extended after service by electronic means by
two court days, but the extension shall not apply to extend the time
for filing any of the following:
   (A) A notice of intention to move for new trial.
   (B) A notice of intention to move to vacate judgment under Section
663a.
   (C) A notice of appeal.
   This extension applies in the absence of a specific exception
provided by any other statute or rule of court.
   (b) A trial court may adopt local rules permitting electronic
filing of documents, subject to rules adopted pursuant to subdivision
 (c)   (d)  and the following conditions:
   (1) A document that is filed electronically shall have the same
legal effect as an original paper document.
   (2) (A) When a document to be filed requires the signature, not
under penalty of perjury, of an attorney or a self-represented party,
the document shall be deemed to have been signed by that attorney or
self-represented party if filed electronically.
   (B) When a document to be filed requires the signature, under
penalty of perjury, of any person, the document shall be deemed to
have been signed by that person if filed electronically and if a
printed form of the document has been signed by that person prior to,
or on the same day as, the date of filing. The attorney or person
filing the document represents, by the act of filing, that the
declarant has complied with this section. The attorney or person
filing the document shall maintain the printed form of the document
bearing the original signature and make it available for review and
copying upon the request of the court or any party to the action or
proceeding in which it is filed.
   (3) Any document that is electronically filed with the court after
the close of business on any day shall be deemed to have been filed
on the next court day. "Close of business," as used in this
paragraph, shall mean 5 p.m. or the time at which the court would not
accept filing at the court's filing counter, whichever is earlier.
   (4) The court receiving a document filed electronically shall
issue a confirmation that the document has been received and filed.
The confirmation shall serve as proof that the document has been
filed.
   (5) Upon electronic filing of a complaint, petition, or other
document that must be served with a summons, a trial court, upon
request of the party filing the action, shall issue a summons with
the court seal and the case number. The court shall keep the summons
in its records and may electronically transmit a copy of the summons
to the requesting party. Personal service of a printed form of the
electronic summons shall have the same legal effect as personal
service of an original summons. If a trial court plans to
electronically transmit a summons to the party filing a complaint,
the court shall immediately upon receipt of the complaint notify the
attorney or party that a summons will be electronically transmitted
to the electronic address given by the person filing the complaint.
   (6) The court shall permit a party or attorney to file an
application for waiver of court fees and costs, in lieu of requiring
the payment of the filing fee, as part of the process involving the
electronic filing of a document. The court shall consider and
determine the application in accordance with Sections 68630 to 68641,
inclusive, of the Government Code and shall not require the party or
attorney to submit any documentation other than that set forth in
Sections 68630 to 68641, inclusive, of the Government Code. Nothing
in this section shall require the court to waive a filing fee that is
not otherwise waivable.
   (c) If a trial court adopts rules conforming to subdivision (b),
it may provide by order that all parties to an action file and serve
documents electronically in a class action, a consolidated action, or
a group of actions, a coordinated action, or an action that is
deemed complex under Judicial Council rules, provided that the trial
court's order does not cause undue hardship or significant prejudice
to any party in the action.
   (d) The Judicial Council shall adopt uniform rules for the
electronic filing and service of documents in the trial courts of the
state, which shall include statewide policies on vendor contracts,
privacy, and access to public records, and rules relating to the
integrity of electronic service. These rules shall conform to the
conditions set forth in this section, as amended from time to time.
  SEC. 41.  Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended
to read:
   1094.5.  (a) Where the writ is issued for the purpose of inquiring
into the validity of any final administrative order or decision made
as the result of a proceeding in which by law a hearing is required
to be given, evidence is required to be taken, and discretion in the
determination of facts is vested in the inferior tribunal,
corporation, board, or officer, the case shall be heard by the court
sitting without a jury. All or part of the record of the proceedings
before the inferior tribunal, corporation, board, or officer may be
filed with the petition, may be filed with respondent's points and
authorities, or may be ordered to be filed by the court. Except when
otherwise prescribed by statute, the cost of preparing the record
shall be borne by the petitioner. Where the petitioner has proceeded
pursuant to  Section 68511.3   Article 6
(commencing with Section 68630) of Chapter 2 of Title 8  of the
Government Code and the Rules of Court implementing that section and
where the transcript is necessary to a proper review of the
administrative proceedings, the cost of preparing the transcript
shall be borne by the respondent. Where the party seeking the writ
has proceeded pursuant to Section 1088.5, the administrative record
shall be filed as expeditiously as possible, and may be filed with
the petition, or by the respondent after payment of the costs by the
petitioner, where required, or as otherwise directed by the court. If
the expense of preparing all or any part of the record has been
borne by the prevailing party, the expense shall be taxable as costs.

   (b) The inquiry in such a case shall extend to the questions
whether the respondent has proceeded without, or in excess of  ,
 jurisdiction; whether there was a fair trial; and whether there
was any prejudicial abuse of discretion. Abuse of discretion is
established if the respondent has not proceeded in the manner
required by law, the order or decision is not supported by the
findings, or the findings are not supported by the evidence.
   (c) Where it is claimed that the findings are not supported by the
evidence, in cases in which the court is authorized by law to
exercise its independent judgment on the evidence, abuse of
discretion is established if the court determines that the findings
are not supported by the weight of the evidence. In all other cases,
abuse of discretion is established if the court determines that the
findings are not supported by substantial evidence in the light of
the whole record.
   (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (c), in cases arising from private
hospital boards or boards of directors of districts organized
pursuant to  The   the  Local 
Hospital   Health Care  District Law  ,
Division 23   (Chapter 1  (commencing with Section
32000) of  Divisio   n 23 of  the Health and Safety
 Code  Code)  or governing bodies of
municipal hospitals formed pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with
Section 37600) or Article 8 (commencing with Section 37650) of
Chapter 5 of  Part 2 of  Division 3 of Title 4 of the
Government Code, abuse of discretion is established if the court
determines that the findings are not supported by substantial
evidence in the light of the whole record. However, in all cases in
which the petition alleges discriminatory actions prohibited by
Section 1316 of the Health and Safety Code, and the plaintiff makes a
preliminary showing of substantial evidence in support of that
allegation, the court shall exercise its independent judgment on the
evidence and abuse of discretion shall be established if the court
determines that the findings are not supported by the weight of the
evidence.
   (e) Where the court finds that there is relevant evidence that, in
the exercise of reasonable diligence, could not have been produced
or that was improperly excluded at the hearing before respondent, it
may enter judgment as provided in subdivision (f) remanding the case
to be reconsidered in the light of that evidence; or, in cases in
which the court is authorized by law to exercise its independent
judgment on the evidence, the court may admit the evidence at the
hearing on the writ without remanding the case.
   (f) The court shall enter judgment either commanding respondent to
set aside the order or decision, or denying the writ. Where the
judgment commands that the order or decision be set aside, it may
order the reconsideration of the case in  the  light
of the court's opinion and judgment and may order respondent to take
such further action as is specially enjoined upon it by law, but the
judgment shall not limit or control in any way the discretion
legally vested in the respondent.
   (g) Except as provided in subdivision (h), the court in which
proceedings under this section are instituted may stay the operation
of the administrative order or decision pending the judgment of the
court, or until the filing of a notice of appeal from the judgment or
until the expiration of the time for filing the notice, whichever
occurs first. However, no such stay shall be imposed or continued if
the court is satisfied that it is against the public interest. The
application for the stay shall be accompanied by proof of service of
a copy of the application on the respondent. Service shall be made in
the manner provided by Title  5   4.5 
(commencing with Section 405) of Part 2 or Chapter 5 (commencing with
Section 1010) of Title 14 of Part 2. If an appeal is taken from a
denial of the writ, the order or decision of the agency shall not be
stayed except upon the order of the court to which the appeal is
taken. However, in cases where a stay is in effect at the time of
filing the notice of appeal, the stay shall be continued by operation
of law for a period of 20 days from the filing of the notice. If an
appeal is taken from the granting of the writ, the order or decision
of the agency is stayed pending the determination of the appeal
unless the court to which the appeal is taken shall otherwise order.
Where any final administrative order or decision is the subject of
proceedings under this section, if the petition shall have been filed
while the penalty imposed is in full force and effect, the
determination shall not be considered to have become moot in cases
where the penalty imposed by the administrative agency has been
completed or complied with during the pendency of the proceedings.
   (h) (1) The court in which proceedings under this section are
instituted may stay the operation of the administrative order or
decision of any licensed hospital or any state agency made after a
hearing required by statute to be conducted under the Administrative
Procedure Act, as set forth in Chapter 5 (commencing with Section
11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
conducted by the agency itself or an administrative law judge on the
staff of the Office of Administrative Hearings pending the judgment
of the court, or until the filing of a notice of appeal from the
judgment or until the expiration of the time for filing the notice,
whichever occurs first. However, the stay shall not be imposed or
continued unless the court is satisfied that the public interest will
not suffer and that the licensed hospital or agency is unlikely to
prevail ultimately on the merits. The application for the stay shall
be accompanied by proof of service of a copy of the application on
the respondent. Service shall be made in the manner provided by Title
 5   4.5  (commencing with Section 405) of
Part 2 or Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 1010) of Title 14 of
Part 2.
   (2) The standard set forth in this subdivision for obtaining a
stay shall apply to any administrative order or decision of an agency
that issues licenses pursuant to Division 2 (commencing with Section
500) of the Business and Professions Code or pursuant to the
Osteopathic Initiative Act or the Chiropractic Initiative Act. With
respect to orders or decisions of other state agencies, the standard
in this subdivision shall apply only when the agency has adopted the
proposed decision of the administrative law judge in its entirety or
has adopted the proposed decision but reduced the proposed penalty
pursuant to subdivision  (b)   (c)  of
Section 11517 of the Government Code; otherwise the standard in
subdivision (g) shall apply.
   (3) If an appeal is taken from a denial of the writ, the order or
decision of the hospital or agency shall not be stayed except upon
the order of the court to which the appeal is taken. However, in
cases where a stay is in effect at the time of filing the notice of
appeal, the stay shall be continued by operation of law for a period
of 20 days from the filing of the notice. If an appeal is taken from
the granting of the writ, the order or decision of the hospital or
agency is stayed pending the determination of the appeal unless the
court to which the appeal is taken shall otherwise order. Where any
final administrative order or decision is the subject of proceedings
under this section, if the petition shall have been filed while the
penalty imposed is in full force and effect, the determination shall
not be considered to have become moot in cases where the penalty
imposed by the administrative agency has been completed or complied
with during the pendency of the proceedings.
   (i) Any administrative record received for filing by the clerk of
the court may be disposed of as provided in Sections 1952, 1952.2,
and 1952.3.
   (j) Effective January 1, 1996, this subdivision shall apply to
state employees in State Bargaining Unit 5. For purposes of this
section, the court is not authorized to review any disciplinary
decisions reached pursuant to Section 19576.1 of the Government Code.

  SEC. 42.  The heading of Part 9 (commencing with Section 10400) of
Division 2 of Title 1 of the Corporations Code is amended to read:

      PART 9.  SOCIETIES FOR PREVENTION OF CRUELTY TO 
CHILDREN AND  ANIMALS


  SEC. 43.  Section 10400 of the Corporations Code is amended to
read:
   10400.  Corporations for the prevention of cruelty to animals may
be formed under the Nonprofit Public Benefit Corporation Law 
, Part   (Part  2 (commencing with Section
 5110) of this division   5110))  by 20 or
more persons, who shall be citizens and residents of this state. If
the corporation is formed on or after January 1, 2011, its articles
of incorporation shall specifically state that the corporation is
being formed pursuant to this section.
  SEC. 44.  Section 10404 of the Corporations Code is amended to
read:
   10404.  Any such corporation, or humane officer thereof, may
proffer a complaint against any person, before any court or
magistrate having jurisdiction, for the violation of any law relating
to or affecting animals  ,  and may aid in the
prosecution of the offender before the court or magistrate.
  SEC. 45.  Section 14501 of the Corporations Code is amended to
read:
   14501.  Every society  ,  incorporated and
organized for the prevention of cruelty to animals may enter into a
contract with any city,  or  city and county, or
county, where the society is located, to enforce the provisions of
laws of this state for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or
arresting  ,  or prosecuting offenders thereunder
 ,  or preventing cruelty to animals. A humane society may
perform those actions in the absence of a contract with a city, city
and county, or county.
  SEC. 46.  Section 14502 of the Corporations Code is amended to
read:
   14502.  (a) (1) (A) (i) On and after July 1, 1996, no entity,
other than a humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty
to animals, shall be eligible to petition for confirmation of an
appointment of any individual as a humane officer, the duty of which
shall be the enforcement of the laws for the prevention of cruelty to
animals.
   (ii) On and after July 1, 1996, only a person who meets the
requirements of this section may be appointed as, or perform the
duties of, a humane officer.
   (iii) Any person appointed as a humane officer prior to July 1,
1996, may continue to serve as a humane officer until the expiration
of the term of appointment only if the appointing society maintains
records pursuant to subparagraph (B) documenting that both the
appointing society and the humane officer meet the requirements of
this section.
   (B) Each humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty
to animals for which an individual is acting as a humane officer
shall maintain complete and accurate records documenting that the
individual has successfully completed all requirements established in
this section and shall make those records available, upon request,
to the superior court, the Attorney General, or any entity duly
authorized to review that information, including the State Humane
Association of California. The records shall include the full name
and address of each humane officer.
   (2) The humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals shall possess insurance of at least one million dollars
($1,000,000) for liability for bodily injury or property damage.
   (3) Each appointment of a humane officer shall be by separate
resolution by the board of directors or trustees of the humane
society or society for the prevention of cruelty to animals duly
entered in its minutes. The resolution shall state the full name and
address of the principal office of the appointing society, the full
name of the person so appointed, the fact that he or she is a citizen
of the State of California, that he or she has met the training
requirements set forth in subdivision (h), and whether he or she is
authorized to carry a weapon pursuant to this section. The resolution
shall also designate the number of the badge to be allotted to the
officer, and the date on which the term of office shall expire.
   (b) A humane society or a society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals seeking confirmation of a humane officer's appointment shall
comply with each of the following provisions:
   (1) Prior to filing a Petition for Order Confirming Appointment of
a Humane Officer under paragraph (3), the humane society or society
for the prevention of cruelty to animals shall submit to the
Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information of
all humane officer applicants for the purposes of obtaining
information as to the existence and content of a record of state
convictions and state arrests and also information as to the
existence and content of a record of state arrests for which the
Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or
on his or her own recognizance pending trial or appeal.
   (A) The Department of Justice shall provide a state response to
the humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (p) of Section 11105
of the Penal Code.
   (B) The humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent
arrest notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2
of the Penal Code, for persons whose appointments are confirmed as
described in subdivision (c).
   (C) The Department of Justice shall charge a fee sufficient to
cover the cost of processing the request described in this paragraph.

   (2) Prior to filing a Petition for Order Confirming Appointment of
a Humane Officer under paragraph (3), the humane society or society
for the prevention of cruelty to animals shall serve a copy of the
petition on each of the following:
   (A) The police department having jurisdiction in the city in which
the principal office of the appointing society is located.
   (B) The sheriff's department having jurisdiction in the county in
which the principal office of the appointing society is located.
   (C) The Department of the California Highway Patrol.
   (D) The State Humane Association of California.
   (E) The Department of Justice.
   (3) The humane society or society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals shall file with the superior court in and for the county or
city and county in which the principal office of the humane society
is located a Petition for Order Confirming Appointment of a Humane
Officer, and shall attach to the petition all of the following:
   (A) A copy of the resolution appointing the person, duly certified
to be correct by the president and secretary of the society and
attested by its seal.
   (B) A copy of the criminal record offender information, if any,
obtained regarding the person pursuant to paragraph (1).
   (C) Proof of the society's proper incorporation in compliance with
Part 9 (commencing with Section 10400) of Division 2, including the
date the articles of incorporation were filed with the Secretary of
State.
   (D) A copy of the society's liability insurance policy for bodily
injury or property damage in the amount of at least one million
dollars ($1,000,000).
   (E) Documentation establishing that the appointee has
satisfactorily completed the training requirements set forth in this
section.
   (F) Documentation establishing that the society has a written
agreement with another entity, such as a public or private animal
shelter or licensed veterinary clinic, that (i) provides for the
humane care and treatment of any animals seized by the society, (ii)
is capable of preserving evidence that may be used to prosecute an
animal cruelty case, and (iii) is compliant with all applicable
federal, state, and local laws, including licensing laws.
Alternatively, the society may provide documentation that it is
operating its own animal shelter that meets the requirements of
clauses (i), (ii), and (iii).
   (G) If the society has not previously appointed a humane officer:
   (i) An affidavit signed under penalty of perjury from the
president of the society that demonstrates the society's competence
to appoint a humane officer by providing information, including, but
not limited to, the following:
   (I) Partnerships or collaborations, if any, with other nonprofit
or community agencies.
   (II) Cash reserve on hand, if any, to pay for veterinary expenses,
housing, food, and care of seized animals.
   (III) Established donor base, if any.
   (IV) Current or prior law enforcement, legal, or other relevant
experience, if any, of persons who will supervise the appointee.

         (V) Current or prior experience of managers, if any, in
operating a society or other nonprofit organization.
   (VI) Statement that each board member is in good standing in the
community and has not been convicted of a misdemeanor or felony
involving animals.
   (VII) Ongoing training beyond the minimum required for appointment
of the humane officer, if any.
   (VIII) The need for a humane officer in the society's county.
   (IX) Any other documentation demonstrating compliance with
applicable federal, state, or local laws.
   (ii) Affidavits, if any, from personnel of local animal control
agencies, law enforcement agencies, or other societies pertaining to
the appointee's fitness to act as a humane officer.
   (H) As the last page, proof of service of a copy of the petition
upon those parties required to be served.
   (4) Any party described in paragraph (2) may file an opposition to
the petition described in paragraph (3). All papers filed in
opposition to the petition and in reply to the opposition shall
conform to law and motion pleading requirements, pursuant to Rule
3.1113(d) of the California Rules of Court. An opposition shall not
exceed 15 pages and a reply shall not exceed 10 pages, excluding
exhibits and declarations. The opposition shall be limited to the
competency of the society to appoint and supervise a humane officer
and the qualifications, background, and fitness of the appointee that
are specific to the work of a humane officer.
   (A) Any opposition shall be filed no later than 15 court days
after the petition is filed with the court. Any opposition shall be
served on all parties indicated on the proof of service attached to
the petition.
   (B) The petitioner's reply, if any, to the opposition shall be
filed within 10 court days after service of the opposition. The reply
shall be served on all parties listed in the proof of service
attached to the petition and to any other person who has filed an
opposition.
   (C) The court shall rule on the petition without a hearing unless
the court notifies the parties of an intention to hold a hearing.
   (D) The petitioner shall serve a certified copy of the court's
order ruling on the petition on all parties listed in the proof of
service attached to the petition and to any other person or entity
who has filed an opposition.
   (c) (1) Upon receipt of the Petition for Order Confirming
Appointment of a Humane Officer, the court shall first determine the
society's date of incorporation, and the length of time between the
date the society filed its articles of incorporation with the
Secretary of State and the date it filed the petition described in
paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) with the court. If the society was
incorporated on or after January 1, 2011, then the following shall
apply:
   (A) For a petition to confirm appointment of a level 1 humane
officer, the court shall issue an order denying confirmation of the
appointment if a minimum of five years has not elapsed from the date
the society filed its articles of incorporation with the Secretary of
State to the date it filed the petition.
   (B) For a petition to confirm appointment of a level 2 humane
officer, the court shall issue an order denying confirmation of the
appointment if a minimum of one year has not elapsed from the date
the society filed its articles of incorporation with the Secretary of
State to the date it filed the petition.
   (C) For a petition to confirm appointment of either a level 1 or
level 2 humane officer, the court shall issue an order denying
confirmation of the appointment if the society has not established,
through submission of appropriate documentation, that the society is
either operating its own animal shelter or has a written agreement
with another entity, in compliance with subparagraph (F) of paragraph
(3) of subdivision (b).
   (2) If the court has not issued an order denying the petition
pursuant to paragraph (1), then the court shall review the matter of
the appointee's qualifications and fitness to act as a humane
officer. The court shall also consider any documentation it has
received in support of, or in opposition to, the confirmation of the
person's appointment. If the court finds that the appointee is
qualified and fit to act as a humane officer, the court shall issue
an order confirming the appointment. The society shall thereupon file
a certified copy of the court order in the office of the county
clerk of the county or city and county in which the court is located.
The appointee shall, at the same time, take and subscribe the oath
of office prescribed for constables or other peace officers. The
society shall also provide a copy of the Order Confirming Appointment
to the State Humane Association of California and the Department of
Justice. The Department of Justice may charge a reasonable fee
sufficient to cover the costs of maintaining records of Orders
Confirming Appointment. If the court does not find the appointee
qualified and fit to act as a humane officer, the court shall issue
an order denying confirmation of the appointment.
   (d) If the court grants the petition, the county clerk shall
immediately enter in a book to be kept in his or her office and
designated "Record of Humane Officers" the name of the officer, the
name of the society appointing him or her, the number of his or her
badge, the date of the filing, and the case number of the court order
confirming the appointment. At the time of the filing, the county
clerk shall collect from the society a fee of five dollars ($5),
which shall be full payment for all services to be performed by the
county clerk under this section.
   (e) All appointments of humane officers shall automatically expire
if the society disbands or legally dissolves.
   (f) (1) The society appointing an officer may revoke an
appointment at any time by filing in the office of the county clerk
in which the appointment of the officer is recorded a copy of the
revocation in writing under the letterhead of the society and duly
certified by its executive officer. Upon the filing  ,  the
county clerk shall enter the fact of the revocation and the date of
the filing  thereof   of the revocation 
opposite the name of the officer in the  record of humane
officers   Record of Humane Officers  .
   (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), any duly authorized sheriff or
local police agency or the State Humane Association of California may
initiate a revocation hearing by filing a petition to Revoke
Appointment of a Humane Officer. The petition shall show cause why an
appointment should be revoked and shall be made to the superior
court in the jurisdiction of the appointment. Filing, service, and
format of the petition and any oppositions and reply papers shall
conform to the law and motion requirements under the Code of Civil
Procedure, California Rules of Court, and this code. A proceeding
pursuant to this paragraph shall be a special proceeding within the
meaning of Section 23 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
   (A) Notice of the hearing date and a copy of the petition shall be
served in the same manner as a summons upon the humane officer
subject to the petition, the society that appointed the officer, 
and  the  agencies   entities  and
 association   associations  described in
paragraph (2) of subdivision (b); except the party filing the
petition shall not be required to serve copies of those documents
upon itself.
   (B) Upon a finding of good cause, the court shall issue an order
granting the petition to revoke the appointment. The county clerk
shall immediately enter the revocation and the date of the court
order opposite the name of the officer in the  record of
humane officers   Record of Humane Officers  . The
clerk of the superior court shall give notice of the order to the
parties described in subparagraph (A) and to the county
clerk-recorder.
   (g) The society appointing the humane officer shall pay the
training expenses of the humane officer attending the training
required pursuant to this section.
   (h) (1) (A) A level 1 humane officer is not a peace officer, but
may exercise the powers of a peace officer at all places within the
state in order to prevent the perpetration of any act of cruelty upon
any animal and to that end may summon to his or her aid any
bystander. A level 1 humane officer may use reasonable force
necessary to prevent the perpetration of any act of cruelty upon any
animal.
   (B) A level 1 humane officer may make arrests for the violation of
any penal law of this state relating to or affecting animals in the
same manner as any peace officer and may serve search warrants.
   (C) A level 1 humane officer is authorized to carry firearms while
exercising the duties of a humane officer, upon satisfactory
completion of the training specified in subparagraph (D), if the
requirements in subparagraph (F) are met.
   (D)  A level 1 humane officer shall, prior to appointment, provide
evidence satisfactory to the appointing society that he or she has
successfully completed the following requirements:
   (i) At least 20 hours of a course of training in animal care
sponsored or provided by an accredited postsecondary institution or
any other provider approved by the California Veterinary Medical
Association  ,  the focus of which shall be the
identification of disease, injury, and neglect in domestic animals
and livestock.
   (ii) At least 40 hours of a course of training in the state humane
laws relating to the powers and duties of a humane officer,
sponsored or provided by an accredited postsecondary institution,
 a  law enforcement agency, or the State Humane Association
of California.
   (iii) The basic training for a level 1 reserve officer by the
Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training pursuant to
Section 13510.1 of the Penal Code.
   (E) A person shall not be appointed as a level 1 humane officer
until he or she meets the criteria in Sections 1029, 1030, and 1031
of the Government Code. A humane society or society for the
prevention of cruelty to animals shall complete a background
investigation, using standards defined by the Commission on Peace
Officer Standards and Training as guidelines  ,  for all
level 1 humane officer appointments.
   (F) (i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a
level 1 humane officer may carry a firearm only if authorized by, and
only under the terms and conditions specified by, his or her
appointing society.
   (ii) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a level
1 humane officer shall not be authorized to carry a firearm unless
and until his or her appointing society has adopted a policy on the
use of deadly force by its officers and the officer has been
instructed in that policy.
   (2) (A) A level 2 humane officer is not a peace officer, but may
exercise the powers of a peace officer at all places within the state
in order to prevent the perpetration of any act of cruelty upon any
animal and to that end may summon to his or her aid any bystander. A
level 2 humane officer may use reasonable force necessary to prevent
the perpetration of any act of cruelty upon any animal.
   (B) A level 2 humane officer may make arrests for the violation of
any penal law of this state relating to or affecting animals in the
same manner as any peace officer and may serve search warrants during
the course and within the scope of appointment, upon the successful
completion of a course relating to the exercise of the police powers
specified in Section 832 of the Penal Code, except the power to carry
and use firearms.
   (C) A level 2 humane officer is not authorized to carry firearms.
   (D) A level 2 humane officer shall, prior to appointment, provide
evidence satisfactory to the appointing society that he or she has
successfully completed courses of training in the following subjects:

   (i) At least 20 hours of a course of training in animal care
sponsored or provided by an accredited postsecondary institution or
any other provider approved by the California Veterinary Medical
Association, the focus of which is the identification of disease,
injury, and neglect in domestic animals and livestock.
   (ii) At least 40 hours of a course of training in the state humane
laws relating to the powers and duties of a humane officer,
sponsored or provided by an accredited postsecondary institution, law
enforcement agency, or the State Humane Association of California.
   (E) A person shall not be appointed as a level 2 humane officer
until he or she has satisfied the requirements in Sections 1029,
1030, and 1031 of the Government Code. A humane society or society
for the prevention of cruelty to animals shall complete a background
investigation, using standards defined by the Commission on Peace
Officer Standards and Training as guidelines, for all level 2 humane
officer appointments.
   (3) During each three-year period following the date on which the
certified copy of the court order confirming the appointment of a
humane officer was filed with the county clerk, the humane officer
shall complete 40 hours of continuing education and training relating
to the powers and duties of a humane officer, which education and
training shall be sponsored or provided by an accredited
postsecondary institution,  a  law enforcement agency, or
the State Humane Association of California. A certificate of
compliance shall be served no later than 21 days after the expiration
of each three-year period on the Department of Justice with copies
served on the superior court  , agencies,   and
on the entities  and associations described in paragraph (2) of
subdivision (b). The Department of Justice may charge a reasonable
fee sufficient to cover the costs of maintaining records of
certificates of compliance. The certificate of compliance shall also
include documentation that the humane society or society for the
prevention of cruelty to animals is in compliance with subparagraph
(F) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b). Service on the Department of
Justice shall be in compliance with procedures set forth by the
Department of Justice. The Department of Justice shall post the
filing procedures, as they may be updated from time to time, on its
Internet Web site. Failure to file the certificate of compliance with
the Department of Justice no later than 21 days after the expiration
of a six-month period shall result in immediate revocation of the
appointment.
   (4) If the humane officer is authorized to carry a firearm, he or
she shall complete ongoing weapons training and range qualifications
at least every six months pursuant to subdivision (t) of Section
830.3 of the Penal Code. A certificate of compliance pursuant to this
section shall be served no later than 21 days after the expiration
of a six-month period on the Department of Justice with copies served
on the superior court, and on the  agencies  
entities  and associations described in paragraph (2) of
subdivision (b). The Department of Justice may charge a reasonable
fee sufficient to cover the costs of maintaining records of
certificates of compliance. The certificate of compliance shall also
include documentation that the humane society or society for the
prevention of cruelty to animals is in compliance with subparagraph
(F) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (b). Service on the Department of
Justice shall be in compliance with procedures set forth by the
Department of Justice. The Department of Justice shall post the
filing procedures, as they may be updated from time to time, on its
Internet Web site. Failure to file the certificate of compliance with
the Department of Justice  no later than  
within  21 days after the expiration of a six-month period shall
result in immediate revocation of the appointment.
   (i) Every humane officer shall, when making an arrest, exhibit and
expose a suitable badge to be adopted by the society under this part
of which he or she is an appointee which shall bear its name and a
number. Uniforms worn by humane officers shall prominently display
the name of the appointing society. Humane officer uniforms shall not
display the words "state" or "California," except to the extent that
one or both of those words are part of the appointing society's
incorporated name.
   (j) Any person resisting a humane officer in the performance of
his or her duty as provided in this section is guilty of a
misdemeanor. Any person who has not been appointed and qualified as a
humane officer as provided in this section, or whose appointment has
been revoked as provided in this section, or whose appointment,
having expired, has not been renewed as provided in this section, who
shall represent himself or herself to be or shall attempt to act as
an officer shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (k) No humane officer shall serve a search warrant without
providing prior notice to local law enforcement agencies operating
within that jurisdiction.
   (l) Any humane society, society for the prevention of cruelty to
animals, or person, who knowingly provides a court with false or
forged documentation for the appointment of a humane officer 
,  is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by a
fine of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000).
   (m) Except as otherwise provided by this section, a humane officer
shall serve only in the county in which the court that appointed him
or her sits. A humane officer may serve in another county if the
humane officer gives notice requesting consent to the sheriff of the
county in which he or she intends to serve, and acquires consent from
that sheriff of the county in which he or she intends to serve, or
from a person authorized by the sheriff to give that consent. A
sheriff shall promptly respond to any request by a humane officer to
serve in his or her jurisdiction and any request shall not be
unreasonably denied.
  SEC. 47.  Section 14504 of the Corporations Code is amended to
read:
   14504.  All humane societies and societies for the prevention of
cruelty to animals, and all humane officers  ,  shall be in
full compliance with Section 14502 on or before January 1, 2012.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, a level 1 or level
2 humane officer confirmed prior to January 1, 2012, shall not be
required to seek a new court order confirming his or her appointment.
However, a level 2 humane officer shall provide proof of compliance
with subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (h) of Section
14502 by filing a certificate of compliance with the Department of
Justice on or before January 1, 2012, or that humane officer's
appointment shall be immediately revoked.
  SEC. 48.  Section 1630 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   1630.  (a) The Superintendent shall review and consider studies,
reports, evaluations, or audits of the county office of education
that contain evidence that the county office of education is
demonstrating fiscal distress according to the standards and criteria
developed pursuant to Section 33127  ,  or that contain a
finding by an external reviewer that more than 3 of the 15 most
common predictors of school agencies needing intervention, as
determined by the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management
Assistance Team, are present. If those findings are made, the
Superintendent shall investigate the financial condition of the
county office of education and determine if the county office of
education may be unable to meet its financial obligations for the
current or two subsequent fiscal years, or should receive a qualified
or negative interim financial certification pursuant to Section
1240.
   (b) If at any time during the fiscal year the Superintendent
determines that the county office of education may be unable to meet
its financial obligations for the current or two subsequent fiscal
years  ,  or if the county office has a qualified
certification pursuant to Section 1240, he or she shall notify the
county board of education and the county superintendent in writing of
that determination and the basis for the determination. The
notification shall include the assumptions used in making the
determination and shall be available to the public. The
Superintendent shall do the following, as necessary, to ensure that
the county office meets its financial obligations:
   (1) Assign a fiscal expert, paid for by the Superintendent, to
advise the county office on its financial problems.
   (2) Conduct a study of the financial and budgetary conditions of
the county office. If, in the course of this review, the
Superintendent determines that his or her office requires analytical
assistance or expertise that is not available through the county
office, he or she may employ, at county office expense, on a
short-term basis, staff, including certified public accountants, to
provide the assistance and expertise.
   (3) Direct the county office to submit a financial projection of
all fund and cash balances of the county office as of June 30 of the
current year and subsequent fiscal years as he or she requires.
   (4) Require the county office to encumber all contracts and other
obligations, to prepare appropriate cashflow analyses and monthly or
quarterly budget revisions, and to appropriately record all
receivables and payables.
   (5) Direct the county office to submit a proposal for addressing
the fiscal conditions that resulted in the determination that the
county office may not be able to meet its financial obligations.
   (6) Withhold compensation of the county board of education and the
county superintendent for failure to provide requested financial
information.
   (c) If, after taking the actions identified in subdivision (a),
the Superintendent determines that a county office will be unable to
meet its financial obligations for the current or subsequent fiscal
year, he or she shall notify the county board of education and the
county superintendent in writing of that determination and the basis
for that determination. The notification shall include the
assumptions used in making the determination and shall be available
to the public.
   (d) If the Superintendent of Public Instruction makes that
determination, or if the county office has a negative certification
pursuant to Section 1240, the Superintendent, shall, as necessary to
enable the county office to meet its financial obligations, do one or
more of the following:
   (1) Develop and impose, in consultation with the county board of
education and the county superintendent,  a  budget that
will enable the county to meet its financial obligations.
   (2) Stay or rescind  any   an action
that is determined to be inconsistent with the ability of the county
office to meet its obligations for the current or subsequent fiscal
year and may, as necessary, appoint a fiscal adviser to perform
 any   some  or all of the duties
prescribed by this paragraph on his or her behalf. This includes
 any  actions up to the point that the subsequent
year's budget is approved by the Superintendent. The Superintendent
shall inform the county board of education in writing of his or her
justification for  any   an  exercise of
authority under this paragraph.
   (3) Assist in developing, in consultation with the county board of
education and the county superintendent, a financial plan that will
enable the county office to meet its future obligations.
   (4) Assist in developing, in consultation with the county board of
education and the county superintendent, a budget for the subsequent
fiscal year. If necessary, the Superintendent shall continue to work
with the county board of education and the county superintendent
until the budget for the subsequent year is adopted.
   (e)  Any actions  Actions  taken by the
Superintendent pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (d)
shall be accompanied by a notification that includes the actions to
be taken, the reasons for the actions, and the assumptions used to
support the necessity for those actions. That notification shall be
available to the public.
   (f) This section does not authorize the Superintendent to abrogate
 any   a  provision of a collective
bargaining agreement that was entered into by a county office prior
to the date upon which the Superintendent assumed authority pursuant
to subdivision (d).
   (g) The county office shall pay reasonable fees charged by the
Superintendent for  any  administrative expenses
incurred pursuant to subdivision (d) or costs associated with
improving the office's financial management practices.
   (h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a county treasurer
shall not honor  any   a  warrant when the
Superintendent, as appropriate, has disapproved that warrant, or has
disapproved the order on county office funds for which a warrant was
prepared.
   (i) For all purposes of errors and liability insurance policies, a
fiscal expert appointed pursuant to this section shall be deemed to
be an employee of the county office of education. The Superintendent
may require that the fiscal adviser be placed on the county office of
education payroll for the purposes of remuneration, benefits, and
payroll deductions.
   (j) If staff persons are hired pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subdivision  (a)   (b)  , the
Superintendent may certify to the Controller an amount to be
transferred to the State Department of Education, from the funds that
otherwise would be apportioned to the county office of education
pursuant to Section 2558, for the purpose of paying all costs
incurred by that staff in performing their respective services. The
Controller, upon receipt of that certification, shall transfer that
amount.
   (k) To facilitate the appointment of a county office fiscal
officer and the employment of additional staff pursuant to paragraphs
(1) and (2), respectively, of subdivision  (a) 
 (b)  , for the purposes of those paragraphs, the
Superintendent of Public Instruction is exempt from the requirements
of Article 6 (commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4
of the Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with
Section 10100) of  Di  vision 2 of  the Public
 Contracts   Contract  Code.
  SEC. 49.  Section 12001.6 of the Education Code is amended to read:

   12001.6.  (a) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that the
federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school construction
bonds designated to California by the federal American Recovery and
Reinvestment Act of 2009  (Public Law   (P.L.
 111-5), together with Internal Revenue Service Notice 2010-17
issued pursuant thereto, does not constitute federal moneys, federal
funds, or funds of any kind for any purpose under this code.
   (b) The department is authorized to assign and distribute the
state's 2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school
construction bonds to or for the benefit of
                  school districts and county offices of education in
the state.
   (c) There is hereby assigned to the department six hundred
fifty-one million six hundred fifty-two thousand dollars
($651,652,000) of the state's 2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap
for qualified school construction bonds.
   (1) A school district or county office of education may apply for
the federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school
construction bonds if the project is funded by local voter-approved
bonds issued by the school district or bond anticipation notes as
authorized by Section 15150. A county office of education and a
school district with an enrollment of 2,500 or less may use other
forms of financing with the submission of a resolution adopted by the
county board of education or governing board of the school district
authorizing the issuance of the financing.
   (2) A school district or county office of education that received
a 2009 allocation but did not make any issuance may apply for 2010
federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school construction
bonds nine months after the effective date of this section.
   (3) A school district or county office of education that received
a 2009 or 2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified
school construction bond allocation from the United States Department
of the Treasury is not eligible to apply.
   (4) Five business days after the enactment  of this
legislation   Section 2 of Chapter 266 of the Statutes
of 2010  , the department shall post the application form on its
Internet Web site.
   (A) An application must be submitted via certified mail.
   (B) An application shall not be postmarked until 30 business days
after the enactment of  this legislation  
Section 2 of Chapter 266 of the Statutes of 2010  .
   (C) An application shall include the total number of enrolled
pupils who qualify for the federal free and reduced  priced
  price  meal program and the total overall pupil
enrollment for the 2008-09 school year.
   (5) An application not meeting the conditions set forth in
paragraphs (1) and (4) shall be returned to the applicant.
   (6) Applications meeting the conditions set forth in paragraphs
(1) and (4) shall be accepted on a first-come-first-served basis by
date of postmark. If this program is oversubscribed, order of
allocation shall be established using the following criteria:
   (A) First, earliest date of postmark.
   (B) Second, the project for which the federal qualified school
construction bond authorization will be applied received approval
from the Division of the State Architect before the application was
submitted.
   (C) Third, the greater percentage of pupils who qualify for the
federal free and reduced  priced   price 
meals program and are enrolled in the applying school district or
county office of education in the 2008-09 school year. The department
shall certify the number of pupils who qualify and the overall
enrollment and calculate the percentage to the nearest one-hundredth
of 1 percent.
   (7) The department shall authorize the 2010 federal tax credit
bond volume cap for qualified school construction bonds no sooner
than December 1, 2010.
   (8) The department shall maintain a waiting list of eligible
school districts and county offices of education that did not receive
an allocation in the order established pursuant to paragraph (6).
   (9) An applicant may not apply for more than twenty-five million
dollars ($25,000,000) of 2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for
qualified school construction bonds.
   (10) A school district or county office of education applying for
2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school
construction bonds authorization shall certify in its application
that it will fulfill all of the federal qualified school construction
bond program requirements, including both of the following
requirements:
   (A) Within six months of the date of issuance, the school district
or county office of education shall enter into a contract or
contracts for use of an amount of bond proceeds equal to 10 percent
of the authorization.
   (B) Within three years of the date of issuance, the school
district or county office of education shall spend 100 percent of the
bond proceeds for a qualified purpose.
   (11) Fifteen days after bond issuance, the school district or
county office of education shall submit to the department a copy of
the appropriate federal Internal Revenue Service Form, Information
Return for Tax-Exempt Bonds, as confirmation of issuance.
   (12) Thirty days after the completion of the expenditure the
recipient shall submit a completion report to the department. The
completion report must be certified by the bond counsel of the school
district or county office of education.
   (13) If any or all of the federal qualified school construction
bond authorizations to a school district or county office of
education are not issued within six months from the date of
authorization, any or all unused federal qualified school
construction bond authorizations shall revert to the department. No
extensions shall be provided.
   (A) The department shall reallocate any remaining federal
qualified school construction bond allocation to school districts or
county offices of education that were eligible and applied for the
authorization but did not receive an allocation.
   (B) Reverted 2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified
school construction bonds shall be allocated to school districts or
county offices of education pursuant to the order of priority
established by paragraph (6).
   (C) The department shall allocate reverted federal qualified
school construction bond authorizations as they are available and
until all are issued.
   (d) The California School Finance Authority, established pursuant
to Section 17172, is authorized to assign and distribute the state's
2010 federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school
construction bonds to or for the benefit of charter schools, or to be
further assigned and distributed to one or more issuers in the state
for the benefit of charter schools, as determined by the authority.
   (1) There is hereby assigned to the California School Finance
Authority, established pursuant to Section 17172, sixty-eight million
four hundred six thousand dollars ($68,406,000) of the state's 2010
federal tax credit bond volume cap for qualified school construction
bonds, to be issued for the benefit of charter schools, or to be
further assigned and distributed to one or more issuers in the state
for the benefit of charter schools, as the authority shall determine.

   (2) A charter school may apply for the federal qualified school
construction bond volume cap if it meets all of the following
criteria:
   (A) The charter school is operated as, or is operated by, a
nonprofit entity.
   (B) The charter school has an approved charter in place that is
current at the time of application and continuously through the date
of bond issuance.
   (C) The chartering authority certifies that the charter school is
in good standing and is in compliance with the terms of its charter.
   (D) The charter school provides the level of classroom-based
instruction specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section
47612.5.
   (E) The applicant has completed at least three full school years
of instructional operation as a charter school as of the end of the
previous school year.
   (3) Five business days after the effective date of this section,
the California School Finance Authority shall post the application
form and fee schedule on its Internet Web site.
   (4) An application shall not be postmarked until 30 business days
after the effective date of this section.
   (5) Following a review of all applications and a preliminary award
of borrowing authority, the California School Finance Authority
shall ask applicants to provide additional information as necessary
for the issuance of the bonds.
   (6) Applications that meet the conditions set forth in paragraph
(2) shall be considered by the California School Finance Authority on
a first-come-first-served basis by date of postmark. If the program
is oversubscribed, staff shall present a priority list to the
authority pursuant to paragraph (7).
   (7)  In the event that   If   
the program is oversubscribed, priority shall be assigned first to
those charter schools that are best able to demonstrate to the
California School Finance Authority, in its sole discretion, that
they will be capable of accessing the capital markets or be privately
placed with an investor. The order of allocation shall be
established using the following criteria:
   (A) Applicants  who   that  are able to
obtain credit enhancement for a qualified school construction bond
financing, including a bank letter of credit,  who 
 or  contribute substantial equity to a project, or 
who  are otherwise able to obtain investment-grade credit
ratings shall receive priority over other applicants.
   (B)  In the event that   If  multiple
applicants satisfy the criteria described in subparagraph (A),
priority shall be assigned to applications with the earliest postmark
date. An application that is hand delivered and does not have a
postmark date will be ranked based on the time the application is
received by the California School Finance Authority.
   (8) Applicants shall not apply for more than twenty-five million
dollars ($25,000,000) of qualified school construction bond
authorization per project.
   (9) Subsequent application cycles may be considered if borrowing
authority for qualified school construction bonds remains available
after the initial application period.
   (10) Subject to the sole discretion of the California School
Finance Authority,  any  authorization to borrow
qualified school construction bond proceeds is contingent on the
issuance of the qualified school construction bonds by December 31,
2011, after which time the authorization expires and the authority
may allocate the authorization to another qualified applicant.
   (11) The California School Finance Authority shall allocate
reverted federal qualified school construction bond authorization as
it becomes available and until all of the authorization is issued.
   (12) If an applicant uses any federal tax credit bond volume cap
in conjunction with a bond that will serve as a local match for
purposes of the Charter School Facilities Program established by
Section 17078.52, the applicant, in addition to the requirements of
this section, shall comply with all of the requirements of the
Charter School Facilities Program.
  SEC. 50.  Section 17250.30 of the Education Code is amended to
read:
   17250.30.  (a) Any design-build entity that is selected to design
and build a project pursuant to this chapter shall possess or obtain
sufficient bonding to cover the contract amount for nondesign
services, and errors and omissions insurance coverage sufficient to
cover all design and architectural services provided in the contract.
This chapter does not prohibit a general or engineering contractor
from being designated the lead entity on a design-build entity for
the purposes of purchasing necessary bonding to cover the activities
of the design-build entity.
   (b) Any payment or performance bond written for the purposes of
this chapter shall use a bond form developed by the Department of
General Services pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 14661 of the
Government Code. The purpose of this subdivision is to promote
uniformity of bond forms to be used on school district design-build
projects throughout the state.
   (c) (1) All subcontracts that were not listed by the design-build
entity in accordance with Section 17250.25 shall be awarded by the
design-build entity.
   (2) The design-build entity shall do  all  
both  of the following:
   (A) Provide public notice of the availability of work to be
subcontracted.
   (B) Provide a fixed date and time on which the subcontracted work
will be awarded.
   (3) Subcontractors bidding on contracts pursuant to this
subdivision shall be afforded the protections contained in Chapter 4
(commencing with Section 4100) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public
Contract Code.
   (4) (A) If the school district elects to award a project pursuant
to this section, retention proceeds withheld by the school district
from the design-build entity shall not exceed 5 percent if a
performance and payment bond, issued by an admitted surety insurer,
is required in the solicitation of bids.
   (B) In a contract between the design-build entity and a
subcontractor, and in a contract between a subcontractor and any
subcontractor thereunder, the percentage of the retention proceeds
withheld shall not exceed the percentage specified in the contract
between the school district and the design-build entity. If the
design-build entity provides written notice to any subcontractor who
is not a member of the design-build entity, prior to or at the time
the bid is requested, that a bond may be required and the
subcontractor subsequently is unable or refuses to furnish a bond to
the design-build entity, then the design-build entity may withhold
retention proceeds in excess of the percentage specified in the
contract between the school district and the design-build entity from
any payment made by the design-build entity to the subcontractor.
   (5) In accordance with the provisions of applicable state law, the
design-build entity may be permitted to substitute securities in
lieu of the withholding from progress payments. Substitutions shall
be made in accordance with Section 22300 of the Public Contract Code.

   (d) (1) For contracts awarded prior to the effective date of
either the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial
Relations pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor
Code or the fees established by the department pursuant  to
 paragraph (2), the school district shall establish and enforce
a labor compliance program containing the requirements outlined in
Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code or shall contract with a third party
to operate a labor compliance program containing the requirements
outlined in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code. This requirement shall
not apply to projects where the school district or the design-build
entity has entered into a collective bargaining agreement that binds
all of the contractors performing work on the project.
   (2) For contracts awarded on or after the effective date of both
the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial Relations
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code and
the fees established by the department pursuant to this paragraph,
the school district shall pay a fee to the department, in an amount
that the department shall establish, and as it may from time to time
amend, sufficient to support the department's costs in ensuring
compliance with and enforcing prevailing wage requirements on the
project, and labor compliance enforcement as set forth in subdivision
(b) of Section 1771.55. All fees collected pursuant to this
subdivision shall be deposited in the State Public Works Enforcement
Fund created by Section 1771.3 of the Labor Code, and shall be used
only for enforcement of prevailing wage requirements on those
projects.
   (3) The Department of Industrial Relations may waive the fee set
forth in paragraph (2) for a school district that has previously been
granted approval by the director to initiate and operate a labor
compliance program on the district's projects, and that requests to
continue to operate that labor compliance program on its projects in
lieu of labor compliance by the department pursuant to subdivision
(b) of Section 1771.55. The fee shall not be waived for a district
that contracts with a third party to initiate and enforce labor
compliance programs on the district's projects.
  SEC. 51.  Section 37222 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   37222.  (a) On each day designated and set apart as a day having
special significance, all public schools and educational institutions
are encouraged to observe that day and to conduct suitable
commemorative exercises.
   (b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the exercises
encouraged by  this section   subdivision (a)
 be integrated into the regular school program, and be conducted
by the school or institution within the amount  of time
otherwise budgeted for educational programs.
  SEC. 52.  Section 37222.10 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 3 of Chapter 114 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.10.  (a) The second Wednesday in May is designated and set
apart as the Day of the Teacher, a day having special significance
pursuant to Section 37222.
   (b) On the Day of the Teacher, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises commemorating and
directing attention to teachers and the teaching profession.

  SEC. 53.  Section 37222.10 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 3 of Chapter 115 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.10.  (a) The second Wednesday in May is designated and set
apart as the Day of the Teacher, a day having special significance
pursuant to Section 37222.
   (b) On the Day of the Teacher, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises commemorating and
directing attention to teachers and the teaching profession.

  SEC. 54.  Section 37222.11 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 4 of Chapter 114 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.11.  (a) April 21 of each year is designated and set apart
as John Muir Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On John Muir Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises stressing the
importance that an ecologically sound natural environment plays in
the quality of life for all of us, and emphasizing John Muir's
significant contributions to the fostering of that awareness and the
indelible mark he left on the State of California. 
  SEC. 55.  Section 37222.11 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 4 of Chapter 115 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.11.  (a) April 21 of each year is designated and set apart
as John Muir Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On John Muir Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises stressing the
importance that an ecologically sound natural environment plays in
the quality of life for all of us, and emphasizing John Muir's
significant contributions to the fostering of that awareness and the
indelible mark he left on the State of California. 
  SEC. 56.  Section 37222.12 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 5 of Chapter 114 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.12.  (a) April 6 of each year is designated and set apart as
California Poppy Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On California Poppy Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises honoring the
California Poppy, including instruction about native plants,
particularly the California Poppy, and the economic and aesthetic
value of wildflowers; promoting responsible behavior toward our
natural resources and a spirit of protection toward them; and
emphasizing the value of natural resources and conservation of
natural resources. 
  SEC. 57.  Section 37222.12 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 5 of Chapter 115 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.12.  (a) April 6 of each year is designated and set apart as
California Poppy Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On California Poppy Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises honoring the
California Poppy, including instruction about native plants,
particularly the California Poppy, and the economic and aesthetic
value of wildflowers; promoting responsible behavior toward our
natural resources and a spirit of protection toward them; and
emphasizing the value of natural resources and conservation of
natural resources. 
  SEC. 58.  Section 37222.13 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 6 of Chapter 114 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.13.  (a) May 22 of each year is designated and set apart as
Harvey Milk Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On Harvey Milk Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises remembering the life
of Harvey Milk, recognizing his accomplishments, and familiarizing
pupils with the contributions he made to this state. 
  SEC. 59.  Section 37222.13 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 6 of Chapter 115 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.13.  (a) May 22 of each year is designated and set apart as
Harvey Milk Day, a day having special significance pursuant to
Section 37222.
   (b) On Harvey Milk Day, all public schools and educational
institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises remembering the life
of Harvey Milk, recognizing his accomplishments, and familiarizing
pupils with the contributions he made to this state. 
  SEC. 60.  Section 37222.14 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 7 of Chapter 114 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.14.  (a) March 30 of each year is designated and set apart
as Welcome Home Vietnam Veterans Day, a day having special
significance pursuant to Section 37222.
   (b) On Welcome Home Vietnam Veterans Day, all public schools and
educational institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises
recognizing the contributions of all those involved in the Vietnam
War and remembering the sacrifices they made for their country.

  SEC. 61.  Section 37222.14 of the Education Code, as added by
Section 7 of Chapter 115 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   37222.14.  (a) March 30 of each year is designated and set apart
as Welcome Home Vietnam Veterans Day, a day having special
significance pursuant to Section 37222.
   (b) On Welcome Home Vietnam Veterans Day all public schools and
educational institutions are encouraged to conduct exercises
recognizing the contributions of all those involved in the Vietnam
War and remembering the sacrifices they made for their country.

  SEC. 62.  Section 41203 of the Education Code, as added by Section
8 of Chapter 83 of the Statutes of 1989, is amended to read:
   41203.  Any calculation of the  monies  
moneys  to be applied by the state for the support of school
districts and community college districts, pursuant to subdivision
(b) of Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, shall
be made as a single, aggregate calculation for the school districts
serving kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive, for the community
college districts, and for the direct elementary and secondary level
instructional services provided by the State of California.
  SEC. 63.  Section 41204 of the Education Code, as amended by
Section 26 of Chapter 427 of the Statutes of 1992, is amended to
read:
   41204.  (a) It is the intent of the Legislature, pursuant to "The
Classroom Instructional Improvement and Accountability Act," that
school districts, as defined in Section 41302.5, and community
college districts, as constituted during  the  1986-87
fiscal year, annually receive a basic minimum portion of the revenues
that is equivalent to the percentage of revenues that were deposited
to the General Fund in that year.
   (b) In recognition of this intent, it is further the intent of the
Legislature that both houses and the Governor be guided by the
following:
   (1) If the revenues of a tax that were deposited in the General
Fund in the 1986-87 fiscal year are redirected to another fund, or
level of government, then the percentages of General Fund revenues
required to be applied by the state for the support of school
districts, community college districts, and state agencies providing
direct elementary and secondary level instructional services shall be
recalculated as if those revenues were not deposited in the General
Fund in the 1986-87 fiscal year.
   (2) If the allocated local proceeds of taxes, as defined by
subdivisions (g) and (h) of Section 41202, received by a school
district or community college district during the 1986-87 fiscal year
are redirected to other entities or statutorily or constitutionally
reduced or eliminated, the additional General Fund support provided
to replace the allocated local proceeds of taxes may not be counted
as General Fund revenues required to be applied for the support of
school districts, community college districts, and state agencies
providing direct elementary and secondary level instructional
services pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 8 of
Article XVI of the California Constitution, unless the percentage of
General Fund revenues appropriated to school districts, community
college districts, and state agencies providing direct elementary and
secondary level instructional services in the 1986-87 fiscal year is
adjusted to reflect the amount of General Fund support that would
have been provided in the 1986-87 fiscal year had the allocated local
proceeds of taxes been correspondingly reduced.
   (3) If a program of a school district, as defined in Section
41302.5, or of a community college district was supported by state
funds from a source other than the General Fund during the 1986-87
fiscal year and General Fund moneys are subsequently provided in
support of the program and in lieu of the other source of funds, the
supplanting General Fund revenues shall not be counted as 
monies   moneys  to be applied by the state for the
support of school districts or community college districts pursuant
to subdivision (b) of Section 8 of Article XVI of the California
Constitution.
   (c) Programs that existed in the 1986-87 fiscal year, and were not
the functional responsibility of school districts or community
college districts                                           in that
fiscal year, shall not be shifted to the responsibility or financial
support of school districts or community college districts without
appropriate corresponding adjustment to the calculations made
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 8 of Article XVI of the
California Constitution. Nothing in this subdivision shall be
construed to prevent the creation of a new educational program that
is supported by a General Fund appropriation made in conformity with
subdivision (b) of Section 8 of Article XVI of the California
Constitution.
   (d) Enrollment, average daily attendance, or average daily
attendance equivalents used for the purpose of calculating "increases
in enrollment" pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of
Section 8 of Article XVI of the California Constitution shall not be
redefined, adjusted, or otherwise recalculated unless the appropriate
action is taken to neutralize the effect of the change with respect
to the adjustment required to be made for increases in enrollment.
  SEC. 64.  Section 41320.1 of the Education Code is amended to read:

   41320.1.  Acceptance by the district of the apportionments made
pursuant to Section 41320 constitutes the agreement by the district
to all of the following conditions:
   (a) The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall appoint a
trustee who has recognized expertise in management and finance and
may employ, on a short-term basis, any staff necessary to assist the
trustee, including, but not limited to, certified public accountants,
as follows:
   (1) The expenses incurred by the trustee and any necessary staff
shall be borne by the district.
   (2) The Superintendent shall establish the terms and conditions of
the employment, including the remuneration of the trustee. The
trustee shall serve at the pleasure of, and report directly to, the
Superintendent.
   (3) The trustee, and any necessary staff, shall serve until the
loan authorized by this section is repaid, the district has adequate
fiscal systems and controls in place, and the Superintendent has
determined that the district's future compliance with the fiscal plan
approved for the district under Section 41320 is probable. The
Superintendent shall notify the county superintendent of schools, the
Legislature, the Department of Finance, and the Controller no less
than 60 days prior to the time that the Superintendent expects these
conditions to be met.
   (4) Before the district repays the loan, including interest, the
recipient of the loan shall select an auditor from a list established
by the Superintendent and the Controller to conduct an audit of its
fiscal systems. If the fiscal systems are deemed to be inadequate,
the Superintendent may retain the trustee until the deficiencies are
corrected. The cost of this audit and any additional cost of the
trustee shall be borne by the district.
   (5) Notwithstanding any other law, all reports submitted to the
trustee are public records.
   (6) To facilitate the appointment of the trustee and the
employment of any necessary staff, for the purposes of this section,
the Superintendent is exempt from the requirements of Article 6
(commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the
Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100)
of  Division 2 of  the Public  Contracts 
 Contract  Code.
   (7) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may appoint
an employee of the department to act as trustee for up to the
duration of the trusteeship. The salary and benefits of that employee
shall be established by the Superintendent and paid by the school
district. During the time of appointment, the employee is an employee
of the school district, but shall remain in the same retirement
system under the same plan as if the employee had remained in the
department. Upon the expiration or termination of the appointment,
the employee shall have the right to return to his or her former
position, or to a position at substantially the same level as that
position, with the department. The time served in the appointment
shall be counted for all purposes as if the employee had served that
time in his or her former position with the department.
   (b) The trustee appointed by the Superintendent shall monitor and
review the operation of the district. During the period of his or her
service, the trustee may stay or rescind any action of the local
district governing board that, in the judgment of the trustee, may
affect the financial condition of the district. The Superintendent
may establish timelines and prescribe formats for reports and other
materials to be used by the trustee to monitor and review the
operations of the district. The trustee shall approve or reject all
reports and other materials required from the district as a condition
of receiving the apportionment. The Superintendent, upon the
recommendation of the trustee, may reduce any apportionment to the
district in an amount up to two hundred dollars ($200) per day for
each late or unacceptable report or other material required under
 Part 24 (commencing with Section 41000)   this
part  , and shall report to the Legislature any failure of the
district to comply with the requirements of this section. If the
Superintendent determines, at any time, that the fiscal plan approved
for the district under Section 41320 is unsatisfactory, he or she
may modify the plan as necessary, and the district shall comply with
the plan as modified.
   (c) At the request of the Superintendent, the Controller shall
transfer to the department, from  any   an 
apportionment to which the district would otherwise have been
entitled pursuant to Section 42238, the amount necessary to pay the
expenses incurred by the trustee and  any 
associated costs incurred by the county superintendent of schools.
   (d) For the fiscal year in which the apportionments are disbursed
and each year thereafter, the Controller, or his or her designee,
shall cause an audit to be conducted of the books and accounts of the
district, in lieu of the audit required by Section 41020. At the
Controller's discretion, the audit may be conducted by the
Controller, his or her designee, or an auditor selected by the
district and approved by the Controller. The costs of these audits
shall be borne by the district. These audits shall be required until
the Controller determines, in consultation with the Superintendent,
that the district is financially solvent, but in no event earlier
than one year following the implementation of the plan or later than
the time the apportionment made is repaid, including interest. In
addition, the Controller shall conduct quality control reviews
pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 14504.2.
   (e) For all purposes of errors and omissions liability insurance
policies, the trustee appointed pursuant to this section is an
employee of the local education agency to which he or she is
assigned. For the purpose of workers' compensation benefits, the
trustee is an employee of the local education agency to which he or
she is assigned, except that a trustee appointed pursuant to
paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) is an employee of the department for
that purpose.
   (f) Except for an individual appointed by the Superintendent as
trustee pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a), the
state-appointed trustee is a member of the State Teachers' Retirement
System, if qualified, for the period of service as trustee, unless
the trustee elects in writing not to become a member. A person who is
a member or retirant of the State Teachers' Retirement System at the
time of appointment shall continue to be a member or retirant of the
system for the duration of the appointment. If the trustee chooses
to become a member or is already a member, the trustee shall be
placed on the payroll of the school district for the purposes of
providing appropriate contributions to the system. The Superintendent
may also require that any individual appointed as trustee pursuant
to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) be placed on the payroll of the
school district for purposes of remuneration, other benefits, and
payroll deductions. For the purpose of workers' compensation
benefits, the state-appointed trustee is deemed an employee of the
local education agency to which he or she is assigned, except that a
trustee who is appointed pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a)
is an employee of the department for that purpose.
  SEC. 65.  Section 41326 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   41326.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code, the
acceptance by a school district of an apportionment made pursuant to
Section 41320 that exceeds an amount equal to 200 percent of the
amount of the reserve recommended for that district under the
standards and criteria adopted pursuant to Section 33127 constitutes
the agreement by the district to the conditions set forth in this
article. Prior to applying for an emergency apportionment in the
amount identified in this subdivision, a school district governing
board shall discuss the need for that apportionment at a regular or
special meeting of the governing board and, at that meeting, shall
receive testimony regarding the apportionment from parents, exclusive
representatives of employees of the district, and other members of
the community. For purposes of this article, "qualifying school
district" means a school district that accepts a loan as described in
this subdivision.
   (b) The Superintendent shall assume all the legal rights, duties,
and powers of the governing board of a qualifying school district.
The Superintendent, in consultation with the county superintendent of
schools, shall appoint an administrator to act on his or her behalf
in exercising the authority described in this subdivision in
accordance with all of the following:
   (1) The administrator shall serve under the direction and
supervision of the Superintendent until terminated by the
Superintendent at his or her discretion. The Superintendent shall
consult with the county superintendent of schools before terminating
the administrator.
   (2) The administrator shall have recognized expertise in
management and finance.
   (3) To facilitate the appointment of the administrator and the
employment of any necessary staff, for the purposes of this section,
the Superintendent of Public Instruction is exempt from the
requirements of Article 6 (commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6
of Division 4 of the Military and Veterans Code and Part 2
(commencing with Section 10100) of  Division 2 of  the
Public  Contracts   Contract  Code.
   (4) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may appoint
an employee of the state or the office of the county superintendent
of schools to act as administrator for up to the duration of the
administratorship. During the tenure of his or her appointment, the
administrator, if he or she is an employee of the state or the office
of the county superintendent of schools, is an employee of the
school district, but shall remain in the same retirement system under
the same plan that has been provided by his or her employment with
the state or the office of the county superintendent of schools. Upon
the expiration or termination of the appointment, the employee shall
have the right to return to his or her former position, or to a
position at substantially the same level as that position, with the
state or the office of the county superintendent of schools. The time
served in the appointment shall be counted for all purposes as if
the administrator had served that time in his or her former position
with the state or the office of the county superintendent of schools.

   (5) Except for an individual appointed as an administrator by the
Superintendent of Public Instruction pursuant to paragraph (4), the
administrator shall be a member of the State Teachers' Retirement
System, if qualified, for the period of service as administrator,
unless he or she elects in writing not to become a member. A person
who is a member or retirant of the State Teachers' Retirement System
at the time of appointment shall continue to be a member or retirant
of the system for the duration of the appointment. If the
administrator chooses to become a member or is already a member, the
administrator shall be placed on the payroll of the school district
for the purposes of providing appropriate contributions to the
system. The Superintendent may also require the administrator to be
placed on the payroll of the school district for purposes of
remuneration, other benefits, and payroll deductions.
   (6) For the purposes of workers' compensation benefits, the
administrator is an employee of the qualifying district, except that
an administrator appointed pursuant to paragraph (4) may be deemed an
employee of the state or office of the county superintendent of
schools, as applicable.
   (7) The qualifying district shall add the administrator as a
covered employee of the school district  all  for
 all  purposes of errors and omissions liability insurance
policies.
   (8) The salary and benefits of the administrator shall be
established by the Superintendent of Public Instruction and paid by
the qualifying school district.
   (9) The Superintendent or the administrator may, on a short-term
basis, employ at district expense any staff necessary to assist the
administrator, including, but not limited to, a certified public
accountant.
   (10) The administrator may do all of the following:
   (A) Implement substantial changes in the fiscal policies and
practices of the district, including, if necessary, the filing of a
petition under Chapter 9  of the federal Bankruptcy Code
  (commencing with Section 901) of Title 11 of the
United States Code  for the adjustment of indebtedness.
   (B) Revise the educational program of the district to reflect
realistic income projections and pupil performance relative to state
standards.
   (C) Encourage all members of the school community to accept a fair
share of the burden of the fiscal recovery of the district.
   (D) Consult, for the purposes described in this subdivision, with
the governing board of the school district, the exclusive
representatives of the employees of the district, parents, and the
community.
   (E) Consult with, and seek recommendations from, the
Superintendent, county superintendent of schools, and the County
Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team authorized
pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 42127.8 for the purposes
described in this article.
   (F) With the approval of the Superintendent, enter into agreements
on behalf of the district and, subject to any contractual obligation
of the district, change any existing district rules, regulations,
policies, or practices as necessary for the effective implementation
of the recovery plans referred to in Sections 41327 and 41327.1.
   (c) (1) For the period of time during which the Superintendent of
Public Instruction exercises the authority described in subdivision
(b), the governing board of the qualifying school district shall
serve as an advisory body reporting to the state-appointed
administrator, and has no rights, duties, or powers, and is not
entitled to any stipend, benefits, or other compensation from the
district.
   (2) Upon the appointment of an administrator pursuant to this
section, the district superintendent of schools is no longer an
employee of the district.
   (3) A determination of the severance compensation for the district
superintendent shall be made pursuant to subdivision (j).
   (d) Notwithstanding Section 35031 or any other law, the
administrator may, after according the employee reasonable notice and
the opportunity for a hearing, terminate the employment of any
deputy, associate, assistant superintendent of schools, or any other
district level administrator who is employed by a school district
under a contract of employment signed or renewed after January 1,
1992, if the employee fails to document, to the satisfaction of the
administrator, that prior to the date of the acceptance of the
apportionment he or she either advised the governing board of the
district, or his or her superior, that actions contemplated or taken
by the governing board could result in the fiscal insolvency of the
district, or took other appropriate action to avert that fiscal
insolvency.
   (e) The authority of the Superintendent, and the administrator,
under this section shall continue until all of the following occur:
   (1) (A)  At any time after   After  one
complete fiscal year has elapsed following the district's acceptance
of a loan as described in subdivision (a), the administrator
determines, and so notifies the Superintendent and the county
superintendent of schools, that future compliance by the school
district with the recovery plans approved pursuant to paragraph (2)
is probable.
   (B) The Superintendent may return power to the governing board for
any area listed in subdivision (a) of Section 41327.1 if performance
under the recovery plan for that area has been demonstrated to the
satisfaction of the Superintendent.
   (2) The Superintendent has approved all of the recovery plans
referred to in subdivision (a) of Section 41327 and the County Office
Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team completes the
improvement plans specified in Section 41327.1 and has completed a
minimum of two reports identifying the district's progress in
implementing the improvement plans.
   (3) The administrator certifies that all necessary collective
bargaining agreements have been negotiated and ratified, and that the
agreements are consistent with the terms of the recovery plans.
   (4) The district has completed all reports required by the
Superintendent and the administrator.
   (5) The Superintendent determines that future compliance by the
school district with the recovery plans approved pursuant to
paragraph (2) is probable.
   (f) When the conditions stated in subdivision (e) have been met,
and at least 60 days after the Superintendent of Public Instruction
has notified the Legislature, the Department of Finance, the
Controller, and the county superintendent of schools that he or she
expects the conditions prescribed pursuant to this section to be met,
the school district governing board shall regain all of its legal
rights, duties, and powers, except for the powers held by the trustee
provided for pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320).
The Superintendent shall appoint a trustee under Section 41320.1 to
monitor and review the operations of the district until the
conditions of subdivision (b) of that section have been met.
   (g) Notwithstanding subdivision (f), if the district violates any
provision of the recovery plans approved by the Superintendent
pursuant to this article within five years after the trustee
appointed pursuant to Section 41320.1 is removed, the Superintendent
may reassume, either directly or through an administrator appointed
in accordance with this section, all of the legal rights, duties, and
powers of the governing board of the district. The Superintendent
shall return to the school district governing board all of its legal
rights, duties, and powers reassumed under this subdivision when he
or she determines that future compliance with the approved recovery
plans is probable, or after a period of one year, whichever occurs
later.
   (h) Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320) shall apply except
as otherwise specified in this article.
   (i) It is the intent of the Legislature that the legislative
budget subcommittees annually conduct a review of each qualifying
school district that includes an evaluation of the financial
condition of the district, the impact of the recovery plans upon the
district's educational program, and the efforts made by the
state-appointed administrator to obtain input from the community and
the governing board of the district.
   (j) (1) The district superintendent is entitled to a due process
hearing for purposes of determining final compensation. The final
compensation of the district superintendent shall be between zero and
six times his or her monthly salary. The outcome of the due process
hearing shall be reported to the Superintendent of Public Instruction
and the public. The information provided to the public shall explain
the rationale for the compensation.
   (2) This subdivision applies only to a contract for employment
negotiated on or after June 21, 2004.
   (k) (1) When the Superintendent assumes control over a school
district pursuant to subdivision (b), he or she shall, in
consultation with the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management
Assistance Team, review the fiscal oversight of the district by the
county superintendent of schools. The Superintendent may consult with
other fiscal experts, including other county superintendents of
schools and regional fiscal teams  ,  in conducting this
review.
   (2) Within three months of assuming control over a qualifying
district, the Superintendent shall report his or her findings to the
Legislature and shall provide a copy of that report to the Department
of Finance. This report shall include findings as to fiscal
oversight actions that were or were not taken and may include
recommendations as to an appropriate legislative response to improve
fiscal oversight.
   (3) If after performing the duties described in paragraphs (1) and
(2), the Superintendent determines that the county superintendent of
schools failed to carry out his or her responsibilities for fiscal
oversight as required by this code, the Superintendent may exercise
the authority of the county superintendent of schools who has
oversight responsibilities for a qualifying school district. If the
Superintendent finds, based on the report required in paragraph
 (1)   (2)  , that the county
superintendent of schools failed to appropriately take into account
particular types of indicators of financial distress  ,  or
failed to take appropriate remedial actions in the qualifying
district, the Superintendent shall further investigate whether the
county superintendent of schools failed to take into account those
indicators  ,  or similarly failed to take appropriate
actions in other districts with negative or qualified certifications
 ,  and shall provide an additional report on the fiscal
oversight practices of the county superintendent to the appropriate
policy and fiscal committees of each house of the Legislature and the
Department of Finance.
  SEC. 66.  Section 41500 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   41500.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a school
district and county office of education may expend in a fiscal year
up to 15 percent of the amount apportioned for the block grants set
forth in Article 3 (commencing with Section 41510), Article 5
(commencing with Section 41530), Article 6 (commencing with Section
41540), or Article 7 (commencing with Section 41570) for any other
programs for which the school district or county office is eligible
for funding, including programs whose funding is not included in any
of the block grants established pursuant to this chapter. The total
amount of funding a school district or county office of education may
expend for a program to which funds are transferred pursuant to this
section  may   shall  not exceed 120
percent of the amount of state funding allocated to the school
district or county office  of education  for purposes of
that program in a fiscal year. For purposes of this subdivision,
"total amount" means the amount of state funding allocated to a
school district or county office  of education  for purposes
of a particular program in a fiscal year plus the amount transferred
in that fiscal year to that program pursuant to this section.
   (b) A school district that transfers funding, pursuant to this
section, from the amount apportioned for the School and Library
Improvement Block Grant, as set forth in Article 7 (commencing with
Section 41570), shall utilize no less than 85 percent of the amount
remaining after the transfer for direct services to pupils.
   (c) A school district and county office of education shall not,
pursuant to this section, transfer funds from Article 2 (commencing
with Section 41505) and Article 4  (commending  
(commencing  with Section 41520).
   (d) Before a school district or county office of education may
expend funds pursuant to this section, the governing board of the
school district or the county board of education, as applicable,
shall discuss the matter at a noticed public meeting.
   (e) A school district shall track transfers made pursuant to this
section.
  SEC. 67.  Section 44237 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   44237.  (a) Every person, firm, association, partnership, or
corporation offering or conducting private school instruction on the
elementary or high school level shall require each applicant for
employment in a position requiring contact with minor pupils who does
not possess a valid credential issued by the commission or is not
currently licensed by another state agency that requires a criminal
record summary that directly relates to services provided in a
facility described in this section and has background clearance
criteria that meets or exceeds the requirements of this section, to
submit two sets of fingerprints prepared for submittal by the
employer to the Department of Justice for the purpose of obtaining
criminal record summary information from the Department of Justice
and the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
   (b) (1) As used in this section, "employer" means every person,
firm, association, partnership, or corporation offering or conducting
private school instruction on the elementary or high school level.
   (2) As use in this section, "employment" means the act of engaging
the services of a person, who will have contact with pupils, to work
in a position at a private school at the elementary or high school
level on or after September 30, 1997, on a regular, paid full-time
basis, regular, paid part-time basis  ,  or paid full- or
part-time seasonal basis.
   (3) As used in this section, "applicant" means any person who is
seriously being considered for employment by an employer.
   (4) This section does not apply to a secondary school pupil
working at the school he or she attends or a parent or legal guardian
working exclusively with his or her children.
   (c) (1) Upon receiving the identification cards, the Department of
Justice shall ascertain whether the applicant has been arrested or
convicted of any crime insofar as that fact can be ascertained from
information available to the  department  
Department of Justice  and forward the information to the
employer submitting the fingerprints no more than 15 working days
after                                              receiving the
identification cards. The Department of Justice shall not forward
information regarding criminal proceedings that did not result in a
conviction but shall forward information on arrests pending
adjudication.
   (2) Upon implementation of an electronic fingerprinting system
with terminals located statewide and managed by the Department of
Justice, the Department of Justice shall ascertain the information
required pursuant to this subdivision within three working days. If
the Department of Justice cannot ascertain the information required
pursuant to this subdivision within three working days, the 
department   Department of Justice  shall notify
the employer submitting the fingerprints that it cannot so ascertain
the required information. This notification shall be delivered by
telephone or  electronic mail   e-mail  to
the employer submitting the fingerprints. If the employer submitting
the fingerprints is notified by the Department of Justice that it
cannot ascertain the required information about a person, the
employer  may   shall  not employ that
person until the Department of Justice ascertains that information.
   (3) The Department of Justice shall review the criminal record
summary it obtains from the Federal Bureau of Investigation to
ascertain whether an applicant for employment has a conviction, or an
arrest pending final adjudication, for any sex offense, controlled
substance offense, crime of violence, or serious or violent felony.
The Department of Justice shall provide written notification to the
private school employer only as to whether an applicant for
employment has any convictions, or arrests pending final
adjudication, for any of these crimes.
   (d) An employer shall not employ a person until the Department of
Justice completes its check of the state criminal history file as set
forth in this section.
   (e) (1) An employer shall not employ a person who has been
convicted of a violent or serious felony or a person who would be
prohibited from employment by a public school district pursuant to
any provision of this code because of his or her conviction for any
crime.
   (2) A person who would be prohibited from employment by a private
school pursuant to paragraph (1) may not, on or after July 1, 1999,
own or operate a private school offering instruction on the
elementary or high school level.
   (f) An employer shall request subsequent arrest service from the
Department of Justice as provided under Section 11105.2 of the Penal
Code.
   (g) This section applies to any violent or serious offense which,
if committed in this state, would have been punishable as a violent
or serious felony.
   (h) For purposes of this section, a violent felony is any felony
listed in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 of the Penal Code and a
serious felony is any felony listed in subdivision (c) of Section
1192.7 of the Penal Code.
   (i) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a person shall not be denied
employment or terminated from employment solely on the basis that the
person has been convicted of a violent or serious felony if the
person has obtained a certificate of rehabilitation and pardon
pursuant to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 4852.01) of Title 6
of Part 3 of the Penal Code.
   (j) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a person shall not be denied
employment or terminated from employment solely on the basis that the
person has been convicted of a serious felony that is not also a
violent felony if that person can prove to the sentencing court of
the offense in question, by clear and convincing evidence, that he or
she has been rehabilitated for the purposes of school employment for
at least one year. If the offense in question occurred outside this
state, then the person may seek a finding of rehabilitation from the
court in the county in which he or she is a resident.
   (k) The commission shall make available to each private school a
listing of all credentialholders who have had final adverse action
taken against their credential. The information shall be identical to
that made available to public schools in the state. The commission
shall also send on a quarterly basis a complete and updated list of
all teachers who have had their teaching credentials revoked or
suspended, excluding teachers who have had their credentials
reinstated, or who are deceased.
   (  l  ) The Department of Justice may charge a reasonable
fee to cover costs associated with the processing, reviewing, and
supplying of the criminal record summary as required by this section.
 In no event shall the fee   The fee shall not
 exceed the actual costs incurred by the  department
  Department of Justice  .
   (m) Where reasonable access to the statewide  , 
electronic fingerprinting network is available, the Department of
Justice may mandate electronic submission of the fingerprints and
related information required by this section.
   (n) All information obtained from the Department of Justice is
confidential. Agencies handling Department of Justice information
shall ensure the following:
   (1)  No   A    recipient shall
 not  disclose its contents or provide copies of
information.
   (2) Information received shall be stored in a locked file separate
from other files, and shall only be accessible to the custodian of
records.
   (3) Information received shall be destroyed upon the hiring
determination in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section 708 of
Title 11 of the California Code of Regulations.
   (4) Compliance with destruction, storage, dissemination, auditing,
backgrounding, and training requirements as set forth in Sections
700  through   to  708, inclusive, of Title
11 of the California Code of Regulations and Section 11077 of 
the  Penal Code governing the use and security of criminal
offender record information is the responsibility of the entity
receiving the information from the Department of Justice.
  SEC. 68.  Section 45330 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   45330.  (a) As used in this section, a paraprofessional means a
person who assists classroom teachers and other certificated
personnel in instructing reading, writing, and mathematics. A
paraprofessional includes an instructional aide as defined in
subdivision (a) of Section 45343 and a teacher aide as described in
Section 45360.
   (b) A paraprofessional shall perform only duties that, in the
 judgement   judgment  of the certificated
personnel to whom the instructional aide is assigned, may be
performed by a person not licensed as a classroom teacher. These
duties shall not include assignment of grades to pupils.
   (c) Pursuant to the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (P.L.
107-110), a local education agency that receives funding from Title
 1   I  of that act shall ensure that every
paraprofessional hired on or after January 8, 2002, who is supported
by those Title  1   I  funds and who
assists in instruction has demonstrated at least one of the following
in addition to any other requirements under that act:
   (1) Completion of at least two years of study at an institution of
higher education.
   (2) Possession of an associate's degree or higher.
   (3) Through a local or state assessment, that is appropriate to
the responsibilities to be assigned to the paraprofessional,
knowledge of, and ability to assist in, instructing reading, writing,
and mathematics.
   (d) Except as provided in subdivision (h), a paraprofessional
hired prior to January 8, 2002, who is supported by federal funds
from Title I of the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (P.L.
107-110) shall meet the requirements of subdivision (c) no later than
January 8, 2006.
   (e) No person shall be initially assigned to assist in instruction
as a paraprofessional in kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive,
unless the person has demonstrated proficiency in reading, writing,
and mathematics skills up to or exceeding that required by the
employing district for high school seniors pursuant to subdivisions
(a) and (f) of Section 51220 if the employing district educates high
school  students   pupils .
   (f) If the employing district is an elementary school district,
the paraprofessional shall demonstrate proficiency in reading,
writing, and mathematics skills up to or exceeding that required for
high school seniors pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (f) of Section
51220 in the high school district that includes all or the largest
portion of the elementary district.
   (g) In establishing the educational qualifications or in
developing a proficiency exam, a school district shall align the
qualifications and proficiency exams pursuant to paragraph (3) of
subdivision (c).
   (h) A paraprofessional who is supported by federal funds from
Title I of the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (P.L.
107-110) and who meets either of the following conditions is exempt
from the requirements described in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive,
of subdivision (c):
   (1) The paraprofessional is proficient in English and a language
other than English and provides services primarily to enhance
participation of pupils by acting as a translator.
   (2) The paraprofessional's duties consist solely of conducting
parental involvement activities.
   (i) A paraprofessional who was hired on or before January 1, 2003,
and who has previously demonstrated, through a local assessment,
knowledge of, and an ability to assist in, instructing reading,
writing, and mathematics, is deemed to have met the proficiency exam
requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c).
   (j) A school district may use an existing proficiency assessment
or may develop a new proficiency assessment to meet the requirements
of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c).
   (k) Pursuant to the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 
(P.L. 107-110)  , a local education agency may use a portion of
the funds from that act for staff development for paraprofessionals,
to the extent that those funds are appropriated in the annual Budget
Act for this purpose.
  SEC. 69.  Section 51223.3 of the Education Code is amended to read:

   51223.3.  (a) During the  next   first 
revision of the physical education framework  that occurs on or
after January 1, 2011  , the state board and the Curriculum
Development and Supplemental Materials Commission shall include
self-defense instruction and safety instruction in that framework for
pupils in grades 7, 8, 9, 11, and 12.
   (b) As used in this section:
   (1) "Safety instruction" includes, but is not necessarily limited
to, awareness and avoidance of potentially dangerous situations.
   (2) "Self-defense instruction" includes, but is not necessarily
limited to, martial arts, boxing, and other defensive techniques.
  SEC. 70.  Section 51913 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   51913.  The plan for a comprehensive health education program
shall include a statement setting forth the district's educational
program for health education on a districtwide basis. The 
State Board of Education   state board  shall
establish standards and criteria to be used in the evaluation of
plans submitted by school districts. The standards and criteria for
review and approval of plans by the  State Board of Education
  state board  shall include, but not be limited
to, provision for:
   (a) Assessment of the health educational needs of the pupils.
   (b) Defined and measurable program objectives and methods of
assessing the effectiveness of the program.
   (c) Coordination of all district resources with the objectives of
the plan.
   (d) Utilization of health care professionals representing, at the
school district's option, the varied fields of  heath
  health  care, including voluntary collaborations
with managed health care and health care providers; local public and
private health, safety, and community service agencies; and other
appropriate community resources in the development and implementation
of the plan.
   (e) Direct participation of health care professionals
representing, at the school district's option, the varied fields of
health care, including voluntary collaborations with managed health
care, health care providers, and local public and private health,
safety, and community service agencies in the course evaluation.
   (f) Staff development and in-service training.
   (g) Evaluation of the program by the governing board of the school
district with the assistance of administrators, teachers, parents,
pupils, and participants in the program from the community.
  SEC. 71.  Section 66152 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   66152.  (a) The Trustees of the California State University shall
not, and the Regents of the University of California are requested
not to, allocate any student-imposed athletics fees that are
collected from registered students for purposes of supporting
intercollegiate athletics programs for any purpose that is not
 and  in  the  amounts that
 is   are  not approved pursuant to the
election approving the fees.
   (b) At the end of each academic year, the Trustees of the
California State University shall, and the Regents of the University
of California are requested to, refund to each feepaying student a
pro rata share of any portion of the student-imposed athletics fee
that is collected and is not allocated for the approved purposes
during that academic year.
  SEC. 72.  Section 66739.6 of the Education Code is amended to read:

   66739.6.   (a)    In a manner that is consistent
with Section 71027, the Office of the Chancellor of the California
Community Colleges shall establish a process to facilitate the
identification of courses that satisfy lower division preparation
requirements throughout the California Community  College
  Colleges  system.
   (b) A description of the process established by the Office of the
Chancellor of the California Community Colleges to comply with
subdivision (a) shall be included as part of the report required by
subdivision (a) of Section 66749.
   (c) It is the intent of the Legislature that community college
districts accept credits from other community college districts
toward an associate degree for transfer.
   (d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2011.
  SEC. 73.  Section 67365 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   67365.  (a) For purposes of this section, the following
definitions shall apply:
   (1) "Athletic program" means any intercollegiate athletic program
from a postsecondary educational institution in the State of
California that solicits student athletes to apply, enroll, or attend
the postsecondary educational institution in order to have the
student athlete participate in intercollegiate sporting events,
contests, exhibitions, or programs at that institution.
   (2) "Student athlete" means an individual who attends an
elementary, junior high, high school, or postsecondary educational
institution, and who participates in any interscholastic athletic
program in California, including an individual who receives
scholarship funds for his or her athletic participation and an
individual who does not receive scholarship funds for his or her
athletic participation.
   (b) Commencing January 1, 2012, a California postsecondary
educational institution that offers athletic scholarships shall
provide all of the following information on its Internet Web site:
   (1) All of the following athletic scholarship information:
   (A) The most recent cost of attendance expenses as published by
the postsecondary educational institution's financial aid offices for
the academic year and for the summer year.
   (B) The sum of expenses identified in subparagraph (A) that are
prohibited from inclusion in a full grant-in-aid athletic scholarship
pursuant to the National Collegiate Athletic Association's (NCAA)
rules and regulations.
   (C) The policy of the postsecondary educational institution's
athletic program as to whether student athletes will receive athletic
scholarships for summer school, and, if so, whether these
scholarships are proportional to athletic scholarships received
during the regular academic school year.
   (D) The average monthly full grant-in-aid athletic scholarship
payment received by student athletes who live on-campus and
off-campus, respectively, during the regular academic year and summer
school session.
   (E) The following information relating to NCAA scholarship rules:
"Pursuant to NCAA rules, a verbal commitment is not binding on either
the student athlete or the institution. The National Letter of
Intent is a binding agreement between a prospective student athlete
and an institution in which the institution agrees to provide a
prospective student athlete who is admitted to the institution and is
eligible for financial aid under NCAA rules athletics aid for one
academic year in exchange for the prospective student athlete's
agreement to attend the institution for one academic year. The
National Letter of Intent must be accompanied by an institutional
financial aid agreement. If the prospective student athlete signs the
National Letter of Intent but does not enroll at that institution
for a full academic year, he or she may be subject to specific
penalties, including loss of a season of eligibility and a mandatory
residence requirement."
   (2) All of the following athletic scholarship renewal information:

   (A) The NCAA's policy on scholarship duration.
   (B) The policy of the postsecondary educational institution's
athletic program concerning the renewal or nonrenewal of an athletic
scholarship, including circumstances in which a student athlete in
good standing suffers a temporary or permanent sports-related injury,
there is a coaching change, or a student athlete's athletic
performance is deemed to be below expectations.
   (3) All of the following athletically related medical expenses
information:
   (A) The NCAA's policy on whether athletic programs are mandated to
pay for athletically related medical expenses.
   (B) The policy of the postsecondary educational institution's
athletic program on whether it will pay for student athletes'
athletically related medical expenses, including deductibles,
 copays   copayments  , coinsurance, and
whether the program will pay for athletically related medical
expenses that exceed any maximum insurance coverage limits.
   (C) The policy of the institution's athletic program concerning
who is required to pay for any required athletically related
insurance premiums for student athletes who do not have such
insurance.
   (D) The duration of time the postsecondary educational institution'
s athletic program continues to pay for athletically related medical
expenses after a student athlete's athletic eligibility expires.
   (E) Whether or not an athletic program's medical policy covers
expenses associated with attaining a second medical opinion for an
athletically related injury from a medical physician who is not
associated with the athletic program, and whether the athletic
program provides coverage for services received by such a physician.
   (4) All of the following athletic release information:
   (A) The NCAA policy on whether an athletic program may refuse to
grant an athletic release to a student athlete who wishes to transfer
to another postsecondary educational institution.
   (B) The policy of the postsecondary educational institution's
athletic program concerning whether it may use any power to refuse to
grant an athletic release for a student athlete who wishes to
transfer to another postsecondary educational institution.
   (c) Commencing January 1, 2012, a postsecondary educational
institution that provides, by any delivery method, written material
regarding its athletic program to a student athlete shall include a
direct link to the institution's Internet Web  page 
 site  , where the student athlete shall be able to access
all of the information regarding the institution's athletic
scholarship program as described in subdivision (b).
  SEC. 74.  Section 68074 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   68074.  (a) (1) An undergraduate student who is a natural or
adopted child, stepchild, or spouse who is a dependent of a member of
the  armed forces   Armed Forces  of the
United States stationed in this state on active duty shall be
entitled to resident classification only for the purpose of
determining the amount of tuition and fees.
   (2) A student seeking a graduate degree who is a natural or
adopted child, stepchild, or spouse who is a dependent of a member of
the  armed forces   Armed Forces  of the
United States stationed in this state on active duty shall be
entitled to resident classification only for the purpose of
determining the amount of tuition and fees for no more than one
academic year, and shall thereafter be subject to Article 5
(commencing with Section 68060).
   (b) If that member of the  armed forces  
Armed Forces  of the United States, whose dependent natural or
adopted child, stepchild, or spouse is in attendance at an
institution, (1) is thereafter transferred on military orders to a
place outside this state where the member continues to serve in the
 armed forces   Armed Forces  of the United
States, or (2) is thereafter retired as an active member of the
 armed forces   Armed Forces  of the United
States, the student dependent shall not lose his or her resident
classification until he or she has resided in the state the minimum
time necessary to become a resident.
  SEC. 75.  Section 89090 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   89090.  (a) The trustees, alumni associations, and auxiliary
organizations may distribute the names, addresses, and electronic
mail addresses of alumni of the California State University to a
business as described in subdivision (b), in order to accomplish any
or all of the following:
   (1) To provide those persons with informational materials relating
to the university and its programs and activities.
   (2) To provide those persons, the trustees, the alumni
associations, and the auxiliary organizations with commercial
opportunities that provide a benefit to those persons, or to the
trustees, alumni associations, or auxiliary organizations.
   (3) To promote and support the educational mission of the
university, the trustees, the alumni associations, or the auxiliary
organizations.
   (b) The disclosures authorized in subdivision (a) shall be
permitted only if all of the following requirements are met:
   (1) (A) The trustees, the alumni associations, or the auxiliary
organizations have a written agreement with a business, as defined in
subdivision (a) of Section 1798.80 of the Civil Code, that maintains
control over this data that requires the business to maintain the
confidentiality of the names, addresses, and electronic mail
addresses of the alumni, that requires that the California State
University retain the right to approve or reject any purpose for
which the private information is to be used by the business, and to
review and approve the text of mailings sent to alumni pursuant to
this section, and that prohibits the business from using the
information for any purposes other than those described in
subdivision (a). The text of a mailing intended to be sent to alumni
pursuant to this section shall not be approved by the trustees, the
affected alumni association, or the affected auxiliary organization
unless and until the mailing conspicuously identifies the university,
the alumni association, or the auxiliary organization as associated
with the business described in the mailing.
   (B) If an affinity partner, as defined in Section 4054.6 of the
Financial Code, sends any message to any electronic mail address
obtained pursuant to this section, that message shall include at
least both of the following:
   (i) The identity of the sender of the message.
   (ii) A cost-free means for the recipient to notify the sender not
to electronically transmit any further message to the recipient.
   (2) The trustees, an alumni association, or an auxiliary
organization shall not disclose to, or share alumni nonpublic
personal information with, a business, as defined in paragraph (1),
unless the institution, association, or organization has clearly and
conspicuously notified the alumnus, pursuant to subdivision (c), that
the nonpublic personal information may be disclosed to the business
and that the alumnus has not directed that the nonpublic personal
information not be disclosed.
   (3) The disclosure of alumni names, addresses, and electronic mail
addresses does not include the names, addresses, and electronic mail
addresses of alumni who, pursuant to subdivision (c) or in another
manner, have directed the trustees, an alumni association, or an
auxiliary organization not to disclose their names, addresses, or
electronic mail addresses.
   (4) No information regarding either of the following is disclosed:

   (A) The current students of the California State University.
   (B) An alumnus who, as a student at a campus of the California
State University, indicated that, pursuant to the  federal 
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, he or she did not wish his
or her name, address, and electronic mail address to be disclosed.
   (c) (1) The trustees, the affected alumni association, or the
affected auxiliary organization shall satisfy the notice requirements
of subdivision (b) if it uses the form set forth in paragraph (2).
The form set forth in this subdivision or a form that complies with
subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive,  of this paragraph
 shall be provided by the trustees, the alumni association,
or the auxiliary organization to the alumnus as required in this
subdivision, and shall describe the nature of the information the
alumnus would receive should the alumnus choose not to opt out, so
that the alumnus may make a decision and provide direction to the
trustees, the alumni association, or the auxiliary organization
regarding the sharing of his or her name, address, and electronic
mail address:
   (A) The form uses the title "IMPORTANT PRIVACY CHOICE" and the
header, if applicable, as follows: "Restrict Information Sharing With
Affinity Partners."
   (B) The titles and headers in the form are clearly and
conspicuously displayed, and no text in the form is smaller than
10-point type.
   (C) The form is a separate document, except as provided by
subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3).
   (D) The choice or choices provided in the form are stated
separately, and may be selected by checking a box.
   (E) The form is designed to call attention to the nature and
significance of the information in the document.
   (F) The form presents information in clear and concise sentences,
paragraphs, and sections.
                      (G) The form uses short explanatory sentences
(an average of 15 to 20 words) or bullet lists whenever possible.
   (H) The form avoids multiple negatives, legal terminology, and
highly technical terminology whenever possible.
   (I) The form avoids explanations that are imprecise and readily
subject to different interpretations.
   (J) The form is not more than one page.
   (2) The form reads as follows:


   IMPORTANT PRIVACY CHOICE
   You have the right to control whether we share your name, address,
and electronic mail address with our affinity partners (companies
that we partner with to offer products or services to our alumni).
Please read the following information carefully before you make your
choice below:
   Your Rights
   You have the following rights to restrict the sharing of your
name, address, and electronic mail address with our affinity
partners. This form does not prohibit us from sharing your
information when we are required to do so by law. This includes
sending you information about the alumni association, the university,
or other products or services.
   Your Choice
   Restrict Information Sharing With Affinity Partners:
   Unless you say "NO," we may share your name, address, and
electronic mail address with our affinity partners. Our affinity
partners may send you offers to purchase various products or services
that we may have agreed they can offer in partnership with us.
   ( ) NO, please do not share my name, address, and electronic mail
address with your affinity partners.
   Time Sensitive Reply
   You may decide at any time that you do not want us to share your
information with our affinity partners. Your choice marked here will
remain unless you state otherwise. However, if we do not hear from
you, we may share your name, address, and electronic mail address
with our affinity partners.
   If you decide that you do not want to receive information from our
partners, you may do one of the following:
   (1) Call this toll-free telephone number: (xxx-xxx-xxxx).
   (2) Reply electronically by contacting us through the following
Internet option: xxxxxxxxxxxx.com.
   (3) Fill out, sign, and send back this form to us at the following
address (you may want to make a copy for your records).
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Name:
   Address:
   Signature:


   (3) (A) The trustees, the affected alumni association, or the
affected auxiliary organization shall not be in violation of this
subdivision solely because they include in the form one or more brief
examples or explanations of the purpose or purposes for which, or
the context within which, names, addresses, and electronic mail
addresses will be shared, as long as those examples meet the clarity
and readability standards set forth in paragraph (1).
   (B) The form shall be provided to alumni in each of the following
communications:
   (i) The solicitation to students, upon their graduation, from the
trustees or the alumni association, encouraging students to join the
alumni association or to avail themselves of the services or benefits
of the association, shall include the form.
   (ii) The alumni association magazine or newsletter, or both, shall
include the form on an annual or more frequent basis.
   (iii) The Internet Web site for the alumni association shall
include a link to the form, which shall be located on either the
homepage of the association's Internet Web site or in the association'
s privacy policy.
   (iv) A one-time mailing to all alumni on the university mailing
list as of January 1, 2006.
   (v) An annual electronic communication to those alumni for whom
electronic mail addresses are available.
   (4) The trustees, the affected alumni associations, or the
affected auxiliary organizations shall provide at least two
alternative cost-free means for alumni to communicate their privacy
choices, such as calling a toll-free telephone number or using
electronic means. The trustees, the alumni association, or the
auxiliary organization shall clearly and conspicuously disclose in
the form required by this subdivision the information necessary to
direct the alumnus on how to communicate his or her choice, including
the toll-free telephone or facsimile number or  Internet 
Web site address that may be used, if those means of communication
are offered.
   (5) (A) An alumnus may direct at any time that his or her name,
address, and electronic mail address not be disclosed. The trustees,
the affected alumni association, or the affected auxiliary
organization shall comply with the direction of an alumnus concerning
the sharing of his or her name, address, and electronic mail address
within 45 days of receipt by the trustees, the alumni association,
or the auxiliary organization. When an alumnus directs that his or
her name, address, and electronic mail address not be disclosed, that
direction is in effect until otherwise stated by the alumnus.
   (B) Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the disclosure of
the name, address, and electronic mail address of an alumnus as
allowed by other applicable provisions of state law.
   (6) The trustees, or the affected alumni association or the
affected auxiliary organization, may provide a joint notice from the
trustees or from one or more alumni associations, as identified in
the notice, so long as the notice is accurate with respect to the
trustees and the alumni association or associations or auxiliary
organization or organizations participating in the joint notice.
   (d) As used in this section, "auxiliary organization" has the same
meaning as set forth in Section 89901.
   (e) This section shall not be construed to authorize the release
of any social security numbers.
  SEC. 76.  Section 92630 of the Education Code is amended to read:
   92630.  (a) The regents and alumni associations may distribute the
names, addresses, and electronic mail addresses of alumni of the
University of California to a business as described in subdivision
(b) in order to accomplish any or all of the following:
   (1) To provide those persons with informational materials relating
to the university or college and its programs and activities.
   (2) To provide those persons, the regents,  the board of
directors,  and the alumni associations with commercial
opportunities that provide a benefit to those persons, or to the
regents  , the board of directors,  or the alumni
associations.
   (3) To promote and support the educational mission of the
university, the regents,  the board of directors, 
or the alumni associations.
   (b) The disclosures authorized in subdivision (a) shall be
permitted only if all of the following requirements are met:
   (1) (A) The regents  , the board of directors, 
or the alumni associations have a written agreement with a business,
as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1798.80 of the Civil Code
that maintains control over this data that requires the business to
maintain the confidentiality of the names, addresses, and electronic
mail addresses of the alumni, that requires that the University of
California retain the right to approve or reject any purpose for
which the private information is to be used by the business and to
review and approve the text of mailings sent to alumni pursuant to
this section, and that prohibits the business from using the
information for any purposes other than those described in
subdivision (a). The text of a mailing intended to be sent to alumni
pursuant to this section shall not be approved by the regents or the
affected alumni association unless and until the mailing
conspicuously identifies the university or the alumni association as
associated with the business described in the mailing.
   (B) If an affinity partner, as defined in Section 4054.6 of the
Financial Code, sends any message to any electronic mail address
obtained pursuant to this section, that message shall include at
least both of the following:
   (i) The identity of the sender of the message.
   (ii) A cost-free means for the recipient to notify the sender not
to electronically transmit any further message to the recipient.
   (2) The regents  , the board of directors,  or an
alumni association shall not disclose to, or share a consumer's
nonpublic personal information with, a business, as defined in
paragraph (1), unless the institution, association, or organization
has clearly and conspicuously notified the consumer pursuant to
subdivision (c), that the nonpublic personal information may be
disclosed to the business and that the alumnus has not directed that
the nonpublic personal information not be disclosed.
   (3)  The disclosure of alumni names, addresses, and electronic
mail addresses does not include the names, addresses, and electronic
mail addresses of alumni who, pursuant to subdivision (c) or in
another manner, have directed the regents  , the board of
directors,  or an alumni association not to disclose their
names, addresses, or electronic mail addresses.
   (4) No information regarding either of the following is disclosed:

   (A) The current students of the University of California.
   (B) An alumnus who, as a student of a campus of the University of
California, indicated that, pursuant to the  federal  Family
Educational Rights and Privacy Act, he or she did not wish his or
her name, address, and electronic mail address to be disclosed.
   (c) (1) The regents  , the board of directors, 
or the affected alumni association shall satisfy the notice
requirements of subdivision (b) if it uses the form set forth in
paragraph (2). The form set forth in this subdivision or a form that
complies with subparagraphs (A) to (J), inclusive,  of this
paragraph  shall be provided by the regents  , the
board of directors,  or the alumni association to the
alumnus as required in this subdivision, and shall describe the
nature of the information the alumnus would receive should the
alumnus choose not to opt out, so that the alumnus may make a
decision and provide direction to the regents and the alumni
association regarding the sharing of his or her name, address, and
electronic mail address:
   (A) The form uses the title "IMPORTANT PRIVACY CHOICE" and the
header, if applicable, as follows: "Restrict Information Sharing With
Affinity Partners."
   (B) The titles and headers in the form are clearly and
conspicuously displayed, and no text in the form is smaller than
10-point type.
   (C) The form is a separate document, except as provided by
subparagraph (B) of paragraph (3).
   (D) The choice or choices provided in the form are stated
separately, and may be selected by checking a box.
   (E) The form is designed to call attention to the nature and
significance of the information in the document.
   (F) The form presents information in clear and concise sentences,
paragraphs, and sections.
   (G) The form uses short explanatory sentences (an average of 15 to
20 words) or bullet lists whenever possible.
   (H) The form avoids multiple negatives, legal terminology, and
highly technical terminology whenever possible.
   (I) The form avoids explanations that are imprecise and readily
subject to different interpretations.
   (J) The form is not more than one page.
   (2) The form reads as follows:


   IMPORTANT PRIVACY CHOICE
   You have the right to control whether we share your name, address,
and electronic mail address with our affinity partners (companies
that we partner with to offer products or services to our alumni).
Please read the following information carefully before you make your
choice below:
   Your Rights
   You have the following rights to restrict the sharing of your
name, address, and electronic mail address with our affinity
partners. This form does not prohibit us from sharing your
information when we are required to do so by law. This includes
sending you information about the alumni association, the university,
or other products or services.
   Your Choice
   Restrict Information Sharing With Affinity Partners:
   Unless you say "NO," we may share your name, address, and
electronic mail address with our affinity partners. Our affinity
partners may send you offers to purchase various products or services
that we may have agreed they can offer in partnership with us.
   ( ) NO, please do not share my name, address, and electronic mail
address with your affinity partners.
   Time Sensitive Reply
   You may decide at any time that you do not want us to share your
information with our partners. Your choice marked here will remain
unless you state otherwise. However, if we do not hear from you, we
may share your name, address, and electronic mail address with our
affinity partners.
   If you decide that you do not want to receive information from our
partners, you may do one of the following:
   (1) Call this toll-free telephone number: (xxx-xxx-xxxx).
   (2) Reply electronically by contacting us through the following
Internet option: xxxxxxxxxxxx.com.
   (3) Fill out, sign, and send back this form to us at the following
address (you may want to make a copy for your records).
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
   Name:
   Address:
   Signature:


   (3) (A) The regents  , the board of directors, 
or the affected alumni association shall not be in violation of this
subdivision solely because they include in the form one or more brief
examples or explanations of the purpose or purposes for which, or
the context within which, names, addresses, and electronic mail
addresses will be shared, as long as those examples meet the clarity
and readability standards set forth in paragraph (1).
   (B) The form shall be provided to alumni in each of the following
communications:
   (i) The solicitation to students, upon their graduation, from the
regents  , the board of directors,  or the alumni
association, encouraging students to join the alumni association or
to avail themselves of the services or benefits of the association,
shall include the form.
   (ii) The alumni association magazine or newsletter, or both, shall
include the form on an annual or more frequent basis.
   (iii) The Internet Web site for the alumni association shall
include a link to the form, which shall be located on either the
homepage of the association's Internet Web site or in the association'
s privacy policy.
   (iv) A one-time mailing to all alumni on the university or college
mailing list as of January 1, 2006.
   (v) An annual electronic communication to those alumni for whom
electronic mail addresses are available.
   (4) The regents  , the board of directors,  or
the affected alumni associations shall provide at least two
alternative cost-free means for alumni to communicate their privacy
choice, such as calling a toll-free telephone number, or using
electronic means. The regents  , the board of directors,
 or the alumni association shall clearly and conspicuously
disclose in the form required by this subdivision the information
necessary to direct the alumnus on how to communicate his or her
choices, including the toll-free telephone or facsimile number or
 Internet  Web site address that may be used, if those means
of communication are offered.
   (5) (A) An alumnus may direct at any time that his or her name,
address, and electronic mail address not be disclosed. The regents
 , the board of directors,  or the affected alumni
association shall comply with the direction of an alumnus concerning
the sharing of his or her name, address, and electronic mail address
within 45 days of receipt by the regents  , the board of
directors,  or the alumni association. When an alumnus
directs that his or her name, address, or electronic mail address not
be disclosed, that direction is in effect until otherwise stated by
the alumnus.
   (B) Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit the disclosure of
the name, address, or electronic mail address of an alumnus as
allowed by other applicable provisions of state law.
   (6) The regents  , the board of directors,  or
the affected alumni association may provide a joint notice from the
regents  , from the board of directors,  or from one
or more alumni associations, as identified in the notice, so long as
the notice is accurate with respect to the regents  or the
board of directors  and the alumni association or
associations participating in the joint notice.
   (d) This section shall not be construed to authorize the release
of any social security numbers.
  SEC. 77.  Section 99221.5 of the Education Code is amended to read:

   99221.5.  (a) The Regents of the University of California are
requested to authorize the President of the University of California
or his or her designee to jointly develop English Language
Development Professional Institutes with the Chancellor of the
California State University, the Chancellor of the California
Community Colleges, the independent colleges and universities, and
the Superintendent, or their designees. In order to provide maximum
access, the institutes shall be offered at sites widely distributed
throughout the state, which shall include programs offered through
instructor-led, interactive online courses, in accordance with
existing state law. In order to maximize access to teachers and
administrators who may be precluded from participating in an onsite
institute due to geographical, physical, or time constraints, each
institute shall accommodate at least 5 percent of the participants
through existing state-approved online instructor-led courses,
programs, or both. The California subject matter projects, an
intersegmental, discipline-based professional development network
administered by the University of California, is requested to be the
organizing entity for the institutes and followup programs.
   (b) (1) The institutes shall provide instruction for school teams
from each school participating in the program established pursuant to
this section. The institutes may provide instruction for school
teams serving English language learners in kindergarten and grades 1
to 12, inclusive. A school team shall include teachers who do not
hold crosscultural or bilingual-crosscultural certificates or their
equivalents, teachers who hold those certificates or their
equivalents, and a schoolsite administrator. The majority of the team
shall be teachers who do not hold those crosscultural certificates
or their equivalents. If the participating school team employs
instructional assistants who provide instructional services to
English language learners, the team may include these instructional
assistants.
   (2) Commencing in July 2000, the English Language 
Professional  Development Institutes shall provide instruction
to an additional 10,000 participants. These participants shall be in
addition to the 5,000 participants authorized as of January 1, 2000.
Commencing July 2001, and each fiscal year thereafter, the number of
participants receiving instruction through the English Language
Development  Professional  Institutes shall be specified in
the annual Budget Act.
   (3) Criteria and priority for selection of participating school
teams shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the
following:
   (A) Schools whose pupils' reading scores are at or below the 40th
percentile on the English language arts portion of the achievement
test authorized by Section 60640.
   (B) Schools in which a high percentage of pupils score below grade
level on the English language development assessment authorized by
Section 60810, when it is developed.
   (C) Schools with a high number of new, underprepared, and
noncredentialed teachers. Underprepared teachers shall be defined as
teachers who do not possess a crosscultural or
bilingual-crosscultural certificate, or their equivalents.
   (D) Schools in which the enrollment of English language learners
exceeds 25 percent of the total school enrollment.
   (E) Schools with a full complement of team members as described in
paragraph (1).
   (4) In any fiscal year, if funding is inadequate to accommodate
the participation of all eligible school teams, first priority shall
be given to schools meeting the criteria set forth in subparagraph
(C) of paragraph (3).
   (c) Each team member who satisfactorily completes an institute
authorized by this section shall receive a stipend, commensurate with
the duration of the institute, of not less than one thousand dollars
($1,000) nor more than two thousand dollars ($2,000), as determined
by the University of California.
   (d) Instruction provided by the institutes shall be consistent
with state-adopted academic content standards and with the English
language development standards adopted pursuant to Section 60811.
   (e) (1) Instruction at the institutes shall consist of an
intensive, sustained training period of no less than 40 hours nor
more than 80 hours during the summer or during an intersession break
or an equivalent instructor-led, online course and shall be
supplemented during the following school year with no fewer than 80
hours nor more than 120 hours of instruction and schoolsite meetings,
held on at least a monthly basis, to focus on the academic progress
of English language learners at that school.
   (2) Instruction at the institutes shall be of sufficient scope,
depth, and duration to fully equip instructional personnel to offer a
comprehensive and rigorous instructional program for English
language learners and to assess pupil progress so these pupils can
meet the academic content and performance standards adopted by the
state board. The instruction shall be designed to increase the
capacity of teachers and other school personnel to provide and assess
standards-based instruction for English language learners.
   (3) The instruction shall be multidisciplinary and focus on
instruction in disciplines for which the state board has adopted
academic content standards. The instruction shall also be
research-based and provide effective models of professional
development in order to ensure that instructional personnel increase
their skills, at a minimum, in all of the following:
   (A) Literacy instruction and assessment for diverse pupil
populations, including instruction in the teaching of reading that is
research-based and consistent with the balanced, comprehensive
strategies required under Section 44757.
   (B) English language development and second language acquisition
strategies.
   (C) Specially designed instruction and assessment in English.
   (D) Application of appropriate assessment instruments to assess
language proficiency and utilization of benchmarks for
reclassification of pupils from English language learners to fully
English proficient.
   (E) Examination of pupil work as a basis for the alignment of
standards, instruction, and assessment.
   (F) Use of appropriate instructional materials to assist English
language learners to attain academic content standards.
   (G) Instructional technology and its integration into the school
curriculum for English language learners.
   (H) Parent involvement and effective practices for building
partnerships with parents.
   (f) A local educational agency may use its economic impact aid
funds for purposes of this section.
   (g) It is the intent of the Legislature that a local educational
agency or postsecondary institution that offers an accredited program
of professional preparation consider providing partial and
proportional credit toward satisfaction of the course requirements to
an enrolled candidate who satisfactorily completes a California
English Language Development Institute program if the program has
been certified by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing as meeting
preparation standards.
   (h) This section does not prohibit a team member from attending an
institute authorized by this section in more than one academic year.

   (i) This section shall not apply to the University of California
unless and until the Regents of the University of California act, by
resolution, to make it applicable.
  SEC. 78.  Section 332.5 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   332.5.  "Nominate" means the selection, at a state-conducted
primary election, of candidates who are entitled by law to
participate in the general election for that office, but does not
mean any other lawful mechanism that a political party may adopt for
the purposes of choosing the candidate who is preferred by the party
for a nonpartisan or  voter nominated   voter-
  nominated  office.
  SEC. 79.  Section 337 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   337.  "Partisan office" or  "party nominated 
 "party-   nominated  office" means any of the
following offices:
   (a) President of the United States, Vice President of the United
States, and the delegates therefor.
   (b) Elected member of a party committee.
  SEC. 80.  Section 2151 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   2151.  (a) At the time of registering and of transferring
registration, each elector may disclose the name of the political
party that he or she prefers. The name of that political party shall
be stated in the affidavit of registration and the index.
   (b) (1) The voter registration card shall inform the affiant that
any elector may decline to state a political party  reference
  preference  , but no person shall be entitled to
vote the ballot of any political party at any primary election for
President of the United States or for a party committee unless he or
she has disclosed the name of the party that he or she prefers or
unless he or she has declined to disclose a party preference and the
political party, by party rule duly noticed to the Secretary of
State, authorizes a person who has declined to disclose a party
preference to vote the ballot of that political party. The voter
registration card shall further inform the affiant that any
registered voter may vote for any candidate at a primary election for
state elective office or congressional office, regardless of the
disclosed party preference of the registrant or the candidate seeking
that office or the refusal of the registrant or candidate to
disclose a party preference. This notice shall be printed in 
12 point   12-   point  Times New Roman
font.
   (2) The voter registration card shall include a listing of all
qualified political parties. The voter registration card shall
include a listing of all qualified political parties. As part of that
listing, the voter registration card shall also contain an option
designated "No Party Preference." This option shall be placed at the
beginning of the listing of qualified political parties.
   (c) No person shall be permitted to vote the ballot of any party
or for any delegates to the convention of any party other than the
party disclosed as preferred
     in his or her registration, except as provided by Section 2152
or unless he or she has declined to disclose a party preference and
the party, by party rule duly noticed to the Secretary of State,
authorizes a person who has declined to state a party affiliation to
vote the party ballot or for delegates to the party convention.
   (d) As of the effective date of the statute that added this
subdivision, any voter who previously stated a political party
affiliation when registering to vote shall be deemed to have
disclosed that same party as his or her  a 
political party preference unless the voter files a new affidavit of
registration disclosing a different political party preference or no
political party preference. Any voter who previously declined to
state a party affiliation shall be deemed to have chosen the "No
Party Preference" option unless the voter files a new affidavit of
registration disclosing a different political party preference.
  SEC. 81.  Section 3103.5 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   3103.5.  (a) A special absentee voter who is temporarily living
outside of the territorial limits of the United States or the
District of Columbia, or is called for military service within the
United States on or after the final date to make application for a
vote by  absent voter   mail  ballot, may
return his or her ballot by facsimile transmission. To be counted,
the ballot returned by facsimile transmission must be received by the
voter's elections official no later than the closing of the polls on
election day and must be accompanied by an identification envelope
containing all of the information required by Section 3011 and an
oath of voter declaration in substantially the following form:
                   OATH OF VOTER
I,_______, acknowledge that by returning my voted
ballot by facsimile transmission I have waived
my right to have my ballot
kept secret. Nevertheless, I understand that, as
with any vote by mail
voter, my signature, whether on this oath of
voter form or my identification
envelope, will be permanently separated
from my voted ballot to maintain
its secrecy at the outset of the tabulation
process and thereafter.
My residence address is________
                         (Street
____________________________.
Address)                      (City)  (ZIP Code)
My current mailing address is________
                               (Street
___________________________.
Address)                      (City)  (ZIP Code)
My e-mail address is _________________. My
facsimile
transmission
number is       _________________.
I am a resident of __________ County, State of
California, and I have
not
applied, nor intend to apply, for a vote by mail
ballot from any other jurisdiction for the same
election.
I declare under penalty of perjury under the
laws of the State of California that the
foregoing is true and correct.
Dated this __________ day of ______, 20_____.
(Signature)______________________________________
              voter  (power of attorney cannot be
accepted)
YOUR BALLOT CANNOT BE COUNTED UNLESS YOU SIGN
THE
ABOVE OATH AND INCLUDE IT WITH YOUR BALLOT
AND
IDENTIFICATION ENVELOPE, ALL OF WHICH ARE
RETURNED
BY FACSIMILE TRANSMISSION.


   (b) Notwithstanding the voter's waiver of the right to a secret
ballot, each elections official shall adopt appropriate procedures to
protect the secrecy of ballots returned by facsimile transmission.
   (c) Upon receipt of a ballot returned by facsimile transmission,
the elections official shall determine the voter's eligibility to
vote by comparing the signature on the return information with the
signature on the voter's affidavit of registration. The ballot shall
be duplicated and all materials preserved according to procedures set
forth in this code.
   (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a special absentee voter who
is permitted to return his or her ballot by facsimile transmission
is, nonetheless, encouraged to return his or her ballot by mail or in
person if possible. A special absentee voter should return a ballot
by facsimile transmission only if doing so is necessary for the
ballot to be received before the close of polls on election day.
  SEC. 82.  Section 6950 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   6950.  Within three days of receiving the names of delegate
candidates from the chairpersons of the steering committees  ,
 the Secretary of State shall transmit to each elections
official a certified list, for each congressional district wholly or
partially within that county, containing the names of the delegate
candidates selected and pledged to each candidate or uncommitted
delegation who is entitled to be voted for on the ballot at the
presidential primary.
   The certified list shall be in substantially the following form:




    Certified List of Delegate Candidates
In the ____ Congressional District


To the County Elections Official of ____ County:
   I, ____, Secretary of State, do hereby certify that the following
persons, listed beneath the name of the presidential candidate or
uncommitted delegation they are pledged to, are the delegate
candidates who will represent the voters of this congressional
district at the ____ Democratic National Convention to the extent,
based on his or her proportional share of the total votes for
president in this district, that each presidential candidate or
uncommitted delegation is entitled to delegates from this district.
            List of Delegates Pledged to
                    Presidential
             Candidates and Uncommitted
                    Delegations
        In the _____ Congressional District
Delegates Pledged        Delegates Pledged
to                       to
Rosaly                   Janice
Lever                    Atkinson
Deborah                  John Mott-
Seiler                   Smith
Elaine                   Rosa Garcia-
Ginnold                  Viteri
George Mann              Bruce
                          Bolinger
Darren Chesin            Mary DeLost
                          Delegates Pledged
Delegates Pledged        to
to                       Unpledged
Christopher Zirkle       Delegation,
                          James Ashford,
                          Chairperson
Mark Terry               Abra
                          Reynaga
Romulo                   Sylvia
Lopez                    Cheng
Linda M.                 Michael
Gonzalez                 Ognisty
Joe Ayala                Bill
                          Pitts
Lori Joseph              Lynne Chinn
  Dated at Sacramento, California, this ________
day of
________, 20__.
                          ______Secretary of State
(seal)


  SEC. 83.  Section 7110 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   7110.  (a) Notwithstanding Section 8148, if the Democratic
National Convention will conclude after the deadline for the
Secretary of State to deliver certificates of nomination to local
elections officials pursuant to Section 8148, the Chairperson of the
Democratic State Central Committee shall do one of the following:
   (1) Notify the Secretary of State of the apparent nomination of
the Democratic candidates for President and Vice President of the
United States not less than 78 days prior to the election, if all of
the following conditions apply:
   (A) A candidate for President has attained a sufficient number of
delegate votes to  assure   ensure  his or
her nomination at the Democratic National Convention.
   (B) The candidate described in subparagraph (A) has identified a
person who will be nominated to run for the office of Vice President.

   (C) The Democratic National Convention is likely to nominate the
person who is the choice of the candidate for President in the Vice
Presidential nomination.
   (2) Notify the Secretary of State of the apparent nomination of
the Democratic candidates for President and Vice President of the
United States as soon as each of these apparent nominations become
known but not less than 61 days prior to the election, if all of the
following conditions apply:
   (A) A candidate for President has attained a sufficient number of
delegate votes to  assure   ensure  his or
her nomination at the Democratic National Convention.
   (B) The candidate described in subparagraph (A) has identified a
person who will be nominated to run for the office of Vice President.

   (C) The Democratic National Convention is likely to nominate the
person who is the choice of the candidate for President in the Vice
Presidential nomination.
   (b) The Secretary of State shall prepare the certificates of
nomination required in Section 8148 to include the names of the
Democratic candidates for President and Vice President as notified by
the Chairperson of the Democratic State Central Committee.
   (c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2013, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2013, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 84.  Section 8002.5 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   8002.5.  (a) A candidate for a voter-nominated office may indicate
his or her party preference, or lack of party preference, as
disclosed upon the candidate's most recent statement of registration,
upon his or her declaration of candidacy. If a candidate indicates
his or her party preference on his or her declaration of candidacy,
it shall appear on the primary and general election ballot in
conjunction with his or her name. The candidate's designated party
preference on the ballot shall not be changed between the primary and
general election. A candidate for voter-nominated office may also
choose not to have the party preference disclosed upon the candidate'
s most recent affidavit of registration indicated upon the ballot.
   (b) Regardless of the disclosed party preference of the candidate
or the voter, any qualified voter may vote for any candidate for a
voter-nominated office if the voter is otherwise entitled to vote for
candidates for the office to be filled. Nothing in Section 2151,
3006, 3007.5, 3205, or  3102   13102  shall
be construed to limit the ability of a voter to cast a primary
election ballot for any candidate for a voter-nominated office,
regardless of the party preference, or lack of party preference,
designated by the candidate for inclusion upon the ballot pursuant to
this section, provided that the voter is otherwise qualified to cast
a ballot for the office at issue.
   (c) A candidate designating a party preference pursuant to
subdivision (a) shall not be deemed to be the official nominee of the
party designated as preferred by the candidate. A candidate's
designation of party preference shall not be construed as an
endorsement of that candidate by the party designated. The party
preference designated by the candidate is shown for the information
of the voters only and may in no way limit the options available to
voters.
   (d) All references to party preference or affiliation shall be
omitted from all forms required to be filed by a voter-nominated
candidate pursuant to this division in the same manner that such
references are omitted from forms required to be filed by nonpartisan
candidates pursuant to Section 8002, except that the declaration of
candidacy required by Section 8040 shall include space for the
candidate to list the party preference disclosed upon the candidate's
most recent affidavit of registration, in accordance with 
subsection   subdivision  (a).
  SEC. 85.  Section 8121 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   8121.  (a) Not less than five days before he or she transmits the
certified list of candidates to the county elections officials, as
provided in Section 8120, the Secretary of State shall notify each
candidate for partisan office and voter-nominated office of the
names, addresses, offices, occupations, and party preferences of all
other persons who have filed for the same office.
   (b) (1) Beginning not less than five days before he or she
transmits the certified list of candidates to the county elections
officials, as required by Section 8120, the Secretary of State shall
post, in a conspicuous place on his or her Internet Web site, the
party preference history of each candidate for voter-nominated office
for the preceding 10 years. The candidates' party preference history
shall be continuously posted until such time as the official canvass
is completed for the general or special election at which a
candidate is elected to the voter-nominated office sought, except
that, in the case of a candidate who participated in the primary
election and who was not nominated to participate in the general
election, the candidate's party preference history need not continue
to be posted following the completion of the official canvass for the
primary election in question.
   (2) For purposes of this subdivision,  the phrase
 "party preference history" also refers to the candidate's
history of party registration during the 10 years preceding the
effective date of this section.
   (3) The Secretary of State shall also conspicuously post on the
same  web page   Internet Web site  as that
containing the candidates' party preference history the notice
specified by  of  subdivision (b) of Section 9083.5.

  SEC. 86.  Section 10735 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   10735.  (a) (1) In the case of a special election due to a
catastrophe that causes a vacancy in at least 101 offices of the
 of the  United States House of Representatives, the
county elections official shall, to the greatest extent practicable,
deliver vote by mail ballots requested pursuant to Chapter 4
(commencing with Section 3300) of Division 3 not later than 15 days
after the date on which the Speaker of the United States House of
Representatives announces the vacancy.
   (2) In the case of a special election due to a catastrophe that
causes a vacancy in at least one-fourth of the total offices of the
United States House of Representatives representing California but
not a vacancy in at least 101 of the offices of the United States
House of Representatives, the county elections official shall, to the
greatest extent practicable, deliver vote by mail ballots requested
pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 3300) of Division 3
not later than 15 days after the date on which the Governor issues
the proclamation calling the election to fill the vacancy.
   (b) A vote by mail ballot cast pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing
with Section 3300) of Division 3 in a special general election
conducted pursuant to this chapter shall be postmarked not later than
the date of the election, shall be received by the county elections
official not later than 45 days after the date on which the elections
official transmitted the ballot to the voter, and shall comply with
all other relevant requirements of this code.
   (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any deadlines
relating to canvassing, announcement of election results, or
certification of election results may be extended for a reasonable
period of time to facilitate the tabulating and processing of ballots
cast pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 3300) of
Division 3. An extension of a deadline pursuant to this section must
be authorized by the Secretary of State.
  SEC. 87.  Section 12108 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   12108.  In any case where this chapter requires the posting or
distribution of a list of the names of precinct board members, or a
portion of the list, the officers charged with the duty of posting
shall ascertain the name of the political party, if any, for which
each precinct board member has expressed a preference, as shown in
the affidavit of registration of that person. When the list is posted
or distributed, there shall be printed the name of the board member'
s party preference or an abbreviation of the name to the right of the
name, or immediately below the name, of each precinct board member.
If a precinct board member has not expressed a preference for a
political party, the words  " "No   "No 
Party Preference" shall be printed in place of the party name.
  SEC. 88.  Section 13207 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   13207.  (a) There shall be printed on the ballot in parallel
columns all of the following:
   (1) The respective offices.
   (2) The names of candidates with sufficient blank spaces to allow
the voters to write in names not printed on the ballot.
   (3) Whatever measures have been submitted to the voters.
   (b) In the case of a ballot which is intended for use in a party
primary and which carries both partisan offices, voter-nominated
offices, and nonpartisan offices, a vertical solid black line shall
divide the columns containing partisan offices, on the left, from the
columns containing nonpartisan offices and voter-nominated offices,
on the right.
   (c) The standard width of columns containing partisan offices,
nonpartisan offices, and voter-nominated offices, shall be three
inches, but  a   an  elections official may
vary the width of these columns up to 10 percent more or less than
the three-inch standard. However, the column containing presidential
and vice presidential candidates may be as wide as four inches.
   (d) Any measures that are to be submitted to the voters shall be
printed in one or more parallel columns to the right of the columns
containing the names of candidates and shall be of sufficient width
to contain the title and summary of each measure. To the right of
each title and summary shall be printed, on separate lines, the words
"Yes" and "No."
  SEC. 89.  Section 13208 of the Elections Code is amended to read:
   13208.  (a) In the right-hand margin of each column light vertical
lines shall be printed in such a way as to create a voting square
after the name of each candidate for partisan office, voter-nominated
office, nonpartisan office (except for  justice 
 Justice  of the Supreme Court or  justice of a 
court of appeal), or for  chairman   chairperson
 of a group of candidates for delegate to a national convention
who express no preference for a presidential candidate. In the case
of Supreme Court or appellate justices and in the case of measures
submitted to the voters, the lines shall be printed so as to create
voting squares to the right of the words "Yes" and "No." The voting
squares shall be used by the voters to express their choices as
provided for in the instruction to voters.
   (b) The standard voting square shall be at least three-eighths of
an inch square but may be up to one-half inch square. Voting squares
for measures may be as tall as is required by the space occupied by
the title and summary.
  SEC. 90.  Section 1390 of the Evidence Code is amended to read:
   1390.  (a) Evidence of a statement is not made inadmissible by the
hearsay rule if the statement is offered against a party that has
engaged  ,  or aided and abetted  ,  in the
wrongdoing that was intended to, and did, procure the unavailability
of the declarant as a witness.
   (b) (1) The party seeking to introduce a statement pursuant to
subdivision (a) shall establish, by a preponderance of the evidence,
that the elements of subdivision (a) have been met at a foundational
hearing.
   (2) The hearsay evidence that is the subject of the foundational
hearing is admissible at the foundational hearing. However, a finding
that the elements of subdivision (a) have been met shall not be
based solely on the unconfronted hearsay statement of the unavailable
declarant, and shall be supported by independent corroborative
evidence.
   (3) The foundational hearing shall be conducted outside the
presence of the jury. However, if the hearing is conducted after a
jury trial has begun, the judge presiding at the hearing may consider
evidence already presented to the jury in deciding whether the
elements of subdivision (a) have been met.
   (4) In deciding whether or not to admit the statement, the judge
may take into account whether it is trustworthy and reliable.
   (c) This section shall apply to any civil, criminal, or juvenile
case or proceeding initiated or pending as of January 1, 2011.
   (d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2016, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends
that date. If this section is repealed, the fact that it is repealed
 ,  should it occur, shall not be deemed to give rise to any
ground for an appeal or a postverdict challenge based on its use in
a criminal or juvenile case or proceeding before January 1, 2016.
  SEC. 91.  Section 4326 of the Family Code is amended to read:
   4326.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (d), in a proceeding
in which a spousal support order exists or in which the court has
retained jurisdiction over a spousal support order, if a companion
child support order is in effect, the termination of child support
pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 3901 constitutes a change of
circumstances that may be the basis for a request by either party for
modification of spousal support.
   (b) A motion to modify spousal support based on the change of
circumstances described in subdivision (a) shall be filed by either
party no later than six months from the date the child support order
terminates.
   (c) If a motion to modify a spousal support  order 
pursuant to subdivision (a) is filed, either party may request the
appointment of a vocational training counselor pursuant to Section
4331.
   (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), termination of the child
support order does not constitute a change of circumstances under
subdivision (a) in any of the following circumstances:
   (1) The child and spousal support orders are the result of a
marital settlement agreement or judgment and the marital settlement
agreement or judgment contains a provision regarding what is to occur
when the child support order terminates.
   (2) The child and spousal support orders are the result of a
marital settlement agreement or judgment, which provides that the
spousal support order is nonmodifiable or that spousal support is
waived and the court's jurisdiction over spousal support has been
terminated.
   (3) The court's jurisdiction over spousal support was previously
terminated.
   (e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2014, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 92.  Section 5616 of the Family Code is amended to read:
   5616.  (a) Every court order for child support issued on or after
January 1, 2010, and every child support agreement providing for the
payment of child support approved by a court on or after January 1,
2010, shall include a separate money judgment owed by the child
support obligor to pay a fee not to exceed 33 and 1/3 percent of the
total amount in arrears, and not to exceed 50 percent of the fee as
charged by a private child support collector pursuant to a contract
complying with  the requirements of  this chapter
and any other child support collections costs expressly permitted by
the child support order for the collection efforts undertaken by the
private child support collector. The money judgment shall be in favor
of the private child support collector and the child support
obligee, jointly, but shall not constitute a private child support
collector lien on real property unless an abstract of judgment is
recorded pursuant to subdivision (d). Except as provided in
subdivision (c), the money  judgement   judgment
 may be enforced by the private child support collector by any
means available to the obligee for the enforcement of the child
support order without any additional action or order by the court.
Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to grant the private child
support collector any enforcement remedies beyond those authorized
by federal or state law. Any fee collected from the obligor pursuant
to a contract complying with  the requirements of 
this chapter, shall not constitute child support.
   (b) If the child support order makes the obligor responsible for
payment of collection fees and costs, fees that are deducted by a
private child support collector may not be credited against child
support arrearages or interest owing on arrearages or any other money
owed by the obligor to the obligee.
   (c) If the order for child support requires payment of collection
fees and costs by the obligor, then not later than five days after
the date that the private child support collector makes its first
collection, written notice shall be provided to the obligor of (1)
the amount of arrearages subject to collection, (2) the amount of the
collection that shall be applied to the arrearage, and (3) the
amount of the collection that shall be applied to the fees and costs
of collection. The notice shall provide that, in addition to any
other procedures available, the obligor has 30 days to file a motion
to contest the amount of collection fees and costs assessed against
the obligor.
   (d) Any fees or monetary obligations resulting from the contract
between an obligee parent and a private child support collector, or
moneys owed to a private child support collector by the obligor
parent or obligee parent as a result of the private child support
collector's efforts, does not create a lien on real property, unless
an abstract of judgment is obtained from the court and recorded by
the private child support collector against the real property in the
county in which it is located, nor shall that amount be added to any
existing lien created by a recorded abstract of support or be added
to an obligation on any abstract of judgment. A private child support
collector lien shall have the force, effect, and priority of a
judgment lien.
   (e) An assignment to a private child support collector is a
voluntary assignment for the purpose of collecting the domestic
support obligation as defined in Section 101 of Title 11 of the
United States Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C.  Section 
 Sec.  101 (14 A)).
  SEC. 93.  Section 6228 of the Family Code is amended to read:
   6228.  (a) State and local law enforcement agencies shall provide,
without charging a fee, one copy of all domestic violence incident
report face sheets, one copy of all domestic violence incident
reports, or both, to a victim of domestic violence, or to his or her
representative as defined in subdivision (g), upon request. For
purposes of this section, "domestic violence" has the definition
given in Section 6211.
   (b) A copy of a domestic violence incident report face sheet shall
be made available during regular business hours to a victim of
domestic violence or his or her
               representative no later than 48 hours after being
requested by the victim or his or her representative, unless the
state or local law enforcement agency informs the victim or his or
her representative of the reasons why, for good cause, the domestic
violence incident report face sheet is not available, in which case
the domestic violence incident report face sheet shall be made
available to the victim or his or her representative no later than
five working days after the request is made.
   (c) A copy of the domestic violence incident report shall be made
available during regular business hours to a victim of domestic
violence or his or her representative no later than five working days
after being requested by a victim or his or her representative,
unless the state or local law enforcement agency informs the victim
or his or her representative of the reasons why, for good cause, the
domestic violence incident report is not available, in which case the
domestic violence incident report shall be made available to the
victim or his or her representative no later than 10 working days
after the request is made.
   (d) Any person requesting copies under this section shall present
state or local law enforcement with his or her identification, such
as a current, valid driver's license, a state-issued identification
card, or a passport and, if the person is a representative of the
victim and the victim is deceased, a certified copy of the death
certificate or other satisfactory evidence of the death of the victim
at the time a request is made.
   (e) This section shall apply to requests for face sheets or
reports made within five years from the date of completion of the
domestic violence incident report.
   (f) This section shall be known  ,  and may be
cited  ,  as the Access to Domestic Violence Reports
Act of 1999.
   (g) (1) For purposes of this section, if the victim is deceased, a
 representative   "   representative
 of the  victim   victim"  means any
of the following:
   (A) The surviving spouse.
   (B) A surviving child of the decedent who has attained 18 years of
age.
   (C) A domestic partner, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section
297.
   (D) A surviving parent of the decedent.
   (E) A surviving adult relative.
   (F) The personal representative of the victim, as defined in
Section 58 of the Probate Code, if one is appointed.
   (G) The public administrator if one has been appointed.
   (2) For purposes of this section, if the victim is not deceased, a
 representative   "   representative
 of the  victim   victim"  means any
of the following:
   (A) A parent, guardian, or adult child of the victim, or an adult
sibling of a victim 12 years of age or older, who shall present to
law enforcement identification pursuant to subparagraph (A) of
paragraph (4), and if the victim is 12 years of age or older, a
signed authorization by the victim allowing that family member or
guardian to act on the victim's behalf. A guardian shall also present
to law enforcement a copy of his or her letters of guardianship
demonstrating that he or she is the appointed guardian of the victim.

   (B) An attorney for the victim, who shall present to law
enforcement identification pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph
(4) and written proof that he or she is the attorney for the victim.
   (C) A conservator of the victim who shall present to law
enforcement identification pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph
(4) and a copy of his or her letters of conservatorship demonstrating
that he or she is the appointed conservator of the victim.
   (3) A representative of the victim does not include any person who
has been convicted of murder in the first degree, as defined in
Section 189 of the Penal Code, of the victim, or any person
identified in the incident report face sheet as a suspect.
   (4) Domestic violence incident report face sheets may not be
provided to a representative of the victim unless both of the
following conditions are met:
   (A) The representative presents his or her identification, such as
a current, valid driver's license, a state-issued identification
card, or a passport.
   (B) The representative presents one of the following:
   (i) If the victim is deceased, a certified copy of the death
certificate or other satisfactory evidence of the death of the victim
at the time of the request.
   (ii) If the victim is alive, 12 years of age or older, and not the
subject of a conservatorship, a written authorization signed by the
victim making him or her the victim's personal representative.
  SEC. 94.  Section 1805 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
   1805.  This chapter does not apply to the following:
   (a) The United States or a department, agency, or instrumentality
thereof, including any federal reserve bank and any federal home loan
bank.
   (b) Money transmission by the United States Postal Service or by a
contractor on behalf of the United States Postal Service.
   (c) A state, county, city, or any other governmental agency or
governmental subdivision of a state.
   (d) A commercial bank or industrial bank, the deposits of which
are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or its
successor, or any foreign (other nation) bank that is licensed under
Article 3 (commencing with Section 1750) of Chapter 13.5 or that is
authorized under federal law to maintain a federal agency or federal
branch office in this state; a trust company licensed pursuant to
Section 401 or a national association authorized under federal law to
engage in a trust banking business; an association or federal
association, as defined in Section 5102  , the deposits of
which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or its
successor; and any federally or state chartered credit union the
member accounts of which are insured or guaranteed as provided in
Section 14858.
   (e) Electronic funds transfer of governmental benefits for a
federal, state, county, or local governmental agency by a contractor
on behalf of the United States or a department, agency, or
instrumentality thereof, or a state or governmental subdivision,
agency, or instrumentality thereof.
   (f) A board of trade designated as a contract market under the
federal Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C.  Secs. 1-25, incl.)
  Sec. 1 et seq.)  or a person that, in the
ordinary course of business, provides clearance and settlement
services for a board of trade to the extent of its operation as or
for such a board.
   (g) A person that provides clearance or settlement services
pursuant to a registration as a clearing agency or an exemption from
registration granted under the federal securities laws to the extent
of its operation as such a provider.
   (h) An operator of a payment system to the extent that it provides
processing, clearing, or settlement services, between or among
persons excluded by this section, in connection with wire transfers,
credit card transactions, debit card transactions, stored value
transactions, automated  clearing house  
clearinghouse  transfers, or similar funds transfers, to the
extent of its operation as such a provider.
   (i) A person registered as a securities broker-dealer under
federal or state securities laws to the extent of its operation as
such a broker-dealer.
   (j) A person listed under subdivision (d) is exempted from all the
provisions of this chapter, except Sections 1827 and 1828.
  SEC. 95.  Section 1822 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
   1822.  (a) In addition to the fees provided in Section 1818, the
commissioner shall levy an assessment each fiscal year, on a pro rata
basis, on those licensees that at any time during the preceding
calendar year engaged in the business of money transmission in
California in an amount that is, in his or her judgment, sufficient
to meet the commissioner's expenses in administering  the
provisions of  this chapter and to provide a reasonable
reserve for contingencies.
   (b) For licensees that sell or issue payment instruments or stored
value, the amount of the annual assessment on any licensee shall not
exceed the sum of the products determined by multiplying (1)
increments of the aggregate face amount of payment instruments and
stored value issued or sold in California by the licensee, directly
or indirectly through agents, in the calendar year next preceding the
date of such assessment, by (2) percentages of the base assessment
rate, according to the following table:
Aggregate face amount of           Percentage
payment instruments and            of base
stored value sold (in              assessment
millions)                          rate
First $ 1.....................     100.0
Next $9.......................     25.0
Next $40......................     12.5
Next $50......................     6.0
Next $400.....................      3 
 
                                     3.0 
Next $500.....................      2 
 
                                     2.0 
Excess over $1,000............      1   
                                     1.0 


   The base assessment rate shall be fixed from time to time by the
commissioner but shall not exceed one dollar ($1) per one thousand
dollars ($1,000) face amount of payment instruments and stored value
sold.
   (c) For licensees receiving money for transmission, the basis of
the apportionment of the assessment among the licensees assessed
shall be the proportion that the total amount of money received for
transmission by the licensee in California bears in relation to the
total amount of money received for transmission by all licensees in
California, as shown by the reports of licensees to the commissioner
for the preceding calendar year. The assessment rate shall be fixed
from time to time by the commissioner but shall not exceed one dollar
($1) per one thousand dollars ($1,000) of money received for
transmission in California by the licensee.
   (d) The commissioner shall notify each licensee by mail of the
amount levied against it. The licensee shall pay the amount levied
within 20 days. If payment is not made to the commissioner within
that time, the commissioner shall assess and collect, in addition to
the annual assessment, a penalty of 5 percent of the assessment for
each month or part thereof that the payment is delinquent.
  SEC. 96.  Section 14315 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
   14315.  (a) On taking possession of the business and assets of any
credit union as provided in this chapter, the commissioner may
proceed to liquidate the credit union in the manner provided by
Article 8 (commencing with Section 305) of Chapter 2 of Division 1,
and  the provisions of  that article, except
Sections 325, 325.1, 325.2, and 330, shall apply as if the California
credit union were a California state commercial bank, or he or she
may appoint a liquidating agent or a liquidating committee of three
members of the credit union to liquidate the business and assets of
the credit union in the manner provided in Article 2 (commencing with
Section 15250) of Chapter 9, except that in lieu of the certificate
required under Section 15252 the commissioner shall prepare and file
in the office of the Secretary of State a certificate of commencement
of liquidation proceedings upon taking possession of the business
and assets, and the commissioner or his  or her  authorized
deputy shall countersign the certificate referred to in Sections
15257 and 15258 whenever liquidation is involuntary. The commissioner
may, however, prepare and file a final certificate whenever he or
she retains possession of the assets of any credit union for the
purpose of liquidation. The liquidating agent need not be a member of
the credit union to be liquidated, and may be a person, firm, or
corporation as determined by the commissioner.
   (b) If the commissioner takes possession of the property and
business of a California credit union pursuant to Section 14313, the
commissioner may tender to the National Credit Union Administration
an appointment as conservator or receiver of the California credit
union. If the National Credit Union Administration accepts the
appointment, the National Credit Union Administration shall have, in
addition to any powers conferred by federal law, the powers conferred
on the commissioner pursuant to subdivision (a).
  SEC. 97.  Section 17345.1 of the Financial Code is amended to read:

   17345.1.  (a) A member or successor in interest aggrieved by any
action or decision of Fidelity Corporation may file a written request
for a hearing with the commissioner within 30 days from the action
or decision.
   (b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), the hearing shall
be conducted by an administrative law judge on the staff of the
Office of Administrative Hearings and the administrative law judge's
proposed decision shall be made within 120 days from the date of the
request for hearing. This time limit does not constitute a
jurisdictional deadline and may be extended by stipulation of the
parties or by order of the administrative law judge for good cause.
   (2) The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with the
administrative adjudication provisions of Chapters 4.5 (commencing
with Section 11400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of
Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, except as
specified in this subdivision.
   (3) The following sections of the Government Code shall not apply
to a hearing under this subdivision: Section 11503 (relating to
accusations), Section 11504 (relating to statements of issues),
Section 11505 (relating to contents of the statement to respondent),
Section 11506 (relating to the notice of defense), Section 11507
(relating to amended or supplemental accusations), and Section 11516
(relating to amendment of accusations after submission of case).
   (4) The sole parties to the hearing shall be the member or
successor in interest (complainant) and Fidelity Corporation
(respondent). Third-party intervention shall not be permitted. The
disputes, claims, and interests of third parties shall not be within
the jurisdiction of the proceedings. However, nothing in this
paragraph prohibits any interested party from submitting an amicus
brief upon approval by the administrative law judge, after a duly
noticed motion demonstrating good cause.
   (5) Within 10 days of receipt of the request for a hearing, the
commissioner shall schedule the hearing with the Office of
Administrative Hearings and shall serve each party by personal
service or mail with notice of the hearing, which is to include the
date, time, and place of the hearing.
   (A) Within 10 days of service of the notice of hearing, the
complainant shall file with the Office of Administrative Hearings,
and serve upon the respondent by personal service or mail, a written
statement setting forth the matters to be considered at the hearing
in sufficient detail to permit the respondent to prepare and present
its response. The statement shall contain the following:
   (i) A brief statement of the facts that give rise to the hearing.
   (ii) A statement of the issues to be considered at the hearing
including relevant statutes and rules. If the statement includes
issues not raised in the proof of loss claim or considered by
respondent in its decision, respondent may move for abatement of the
proceedings for consideration of those issues by respondent. The
administrative law judge may abate the proceedings for a period not
to exceed 60 days from the issuance of the order to abate. The
administrative law judge may extend the time period for good cause
upon motion by respondent or by stipulation of the parties. If
respondent has not issued a revised decision within the period of
abatement, the administrative law judge shall reset the matter for
hearing.
   (B) Within 20 days of service of the statement, respondent may
file with the Office of Administrative Hearings, and serve upon the
complainant by personal service or mail a written response to the
statement.
   (C) The statement of issues and response may be amended upon
completion of discovery, except that notice of the amendment shall be
no later than 30 days before the date set for hearing.
   (6) Where the statement of issues includes a claim for a loss of
trust obligations that has been denied by respondent, complainant
shall bear the burden of establishing by a preponderance of the
evidence that a loss as defined in Section 17304 has occurred and
that respondent is required to pay the claim in accordance with this
chapter. Each legal issue shall be adjudicated in the proposed
decision and the commissioner's decision, except for any issue either
withdrawn or waived by complainant or respondent, upon the
submission of the case after hearing.
   (7) Any party may move for a  judgement  
judgment  on the pleadings or summary judgment, as a dispositive
motion, pursuant to the Rules of Procedure of the Office of
Administrative Hearings. The evidence in support of and standards for
deciding the motions shall be as set forth in the Code of Civil
Procedure. If the administrative law judge denies the motion, the
matter shall be heard on the merits by the administrative law judge.
If the administrative law judge grants the motion, the order shall be
in the form of a proposed decision to the commissioner pursuant to
subdivision (b) of Section 11517 of the Government Code.
   (8) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require the
losing party to pay the other party's costs and expenses, including
attorney's fees.
   (9) If the statement of issues is abated and respondent issues a
revised decision, the parties may amend their pleadings within a
reasonable period of time, as ordered by the administrative law
judge.
   (c) (1) If a request for hearing includes a claim for loss of
trust obligations that has been denied by Fidelity Corporation and
the claim involves the factors described in paragraph (3), the
commissioner, upon the request of Fidelity Corporation and as
provided herein, shall abstain from proceeding with a hearing. The
matter may be adjudicated in a court of competent jurisdiction upon
the filing of an action by the member or successor in interest.
Fidelity Corporation shall notify the commissioner, in writing, of
the grounds for abstention of jurisdiction within five days of the
filing of the request for a hearing by the member or successor in
interest. The commissioner shall rule on the abstention of
jurisdiction request within 10 days of the notice and the ruling
shall be considered final. In making a determination on the request
for abstention, the commissioner may examine and investigate all
facts connected with the request for abstention and may request
information from any person as deemed necessary.
   (2) If the commissioner denies the request for abstention of
jurisdiction, the hearing shall be conducted in accordance with
subdivision (b), except that compliance by the commissioner with
paragraph (5) of subdivision (b) shall be within five days of the
ruling denying the abstention request.
   (3) The factors requiring abstention of jurisdiction by the
commissioner are as follows:
   (A) The claim for a loss is based upon an alleged escrow
transaction in which an officer, director, trustee, stockholder,
manager, or employee of the member was a principal to the
transaction.
   (B) The claim involves (i) the need to determine conflicting
claims or disputes to real property and (ii) there is a potential for
double recovery by any principal to an escrow.
   (4) The commissioner shall abstain if determination of the claim
will cause some escrows to have preferable or favorable treatment
over the other escrows held by the member or successor in interest.
  SEC. 98.  Section 22349.1 of the Financial Code is amended to read:

   22349.1.  The commissioner shall not approve any licensee to
participate in the program  ,  unless that licensee
has been accepted as a data furnisher by at least one of the national
credit reporting agencies for the purpose of reporting borrower
payment performance.
  SEC. 99.  Section 22352 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
   22352.  (a) Any loan made pursuant to this section shall comply
with the following requirements:
   (1) The loan shall be unsecured.
   (2) Interest on the loan accrues on a simple-interest basis,
through the application of a daily periodic rate to the actual unpaid
principal balance each day.
   (3) The licensee discloses the following to the consumer in
writing at the time of application:
   (A) The annual percentage rate, the periodic payment amount, and
the total finance charge, calculated as required by Federal Reserve
Board Regulation Z, as to a loan of an amount and term substantially
similar to the loan applied for by the consumer.
   (B) That the consumer shall have the right to rescind the loan by
notifying the licensee of the consumer's intent to rescind the loan
and returning the principal advanced by the end of the business day
following the date of the consummation of the loan.
   (4) The loan has a minimum principal amount upon origination of
two hundred fifty dollars ($250) and a term of not less than the
following:
   (A) Ninety days for loans whose principal balance upon origination
is less than five hundred dollars ($500).
   (B) One hundred twenty days for loans whose principal balance upon
origination is at least five hundred dollars ($500), but is less
than one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500).
   (C) One hundred eighty days for loans whose principal balance upon
origination is at least one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500).
   (5) The licensee complies with the requirements of any applicable
state or federal law.
   (b) As an alternative to the charges authorized by Section 22303
or 22304, a licensee approved by the commissioner to participate in
the program may contract for and receive charges for a loan made
pursuant to this section at a rate not exceeding the sum of the
following:
   (1) Two and one-half percent per month on that part of the unpaid
principal balance of the loan up to and including, but not in excess
of, one thousand dollars ($1,000).
   (2) Two and one-sixth percent per month on that portion of the
unpaid principal balance of the loan in excess of one thousand
dollars ($1,000).
   (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), a licensee approved by the
commissioner to participate in the program shall reduce the rate on
each subsequent loan to the same borrower by a minimum of one-twelfth
of 1 percent per month, if all of the following conditions are met:
   (1) The subsequent loan is originated no more than 180 days after
the prior loan is fully repaid.
   (2) The borrower was never more than 15 days delinquent on the
prior loan.
   (3) The prior loan was outstanding for at least one-half of its
original term prior to its repayment.
   (d) As to any loan made under this section, a licensee approved by
the commissioner to participate in the program may contract for and
receive an administrative fee, which shall be fully earned
immediately upon making the loan, in an amount not in excess of
either 5 percent of the principal amount, exclusive of the
administrative fee, or sixty-five dollars ($65), whichever is less. A
licensee shall not charge the same borrower more than one 
origination   administrative  fee in any six-month
period. An administrative fee shall not be contracted for or received
in connection with the refinancing of a loan unless at least one
year has elapsed since the receipt of a previous administrative fee
paid by the borrower. Only one administrative fee shall be contracted
for or received until the loan has been repaid in full. Section
22305 shall not apply to any loan made under this section.
   (e) Notwithstanding subdivision (a) of Section 22320.5, a licensee
approved by the commissioner to participate in the program may
contract for and receive a delinquency fee that is one of the
following amounts:
   (1) For a period in default of not less than seven days, an amount
not in excess of twelve dollars ($12).
   (2) For a period in default of not less than 14 days, an amount
not in excess of eighteen dollars ($18).
   (f) If a licensee opts to impose a delinquency fee, it shall use
the delinquency fee schedule described in subdivision (e), subject to
all of the following:
   (1) No more than one delinquency fee may be imposed per delinquent
payment.
   (2) No more than two delinquency fees may be imposed during any
period of 30 consecutive days.
   (3) No delinquency fee may be imposed on a borrower who is 180
days or more past due if that fee would result in the sum of the
borrower's remaining unpaid principal balance, accrued interest, and
delinquency fees exceeding 180 percent of the original principal
amount of the borrower's loan.
   (4) The licensee or any of its wholly owned subsidiaries shall
attempt to collect a delinquent payment for a period of at least 30
days following the start of the delinquency before selling or
assigning that unpaid debt to an independent party for collection.
   (g) The following shall apply to a loan made by a licensee
pursuant to this section:
   (1) Prior to disbursement of loan proceeds, the licensee shall
either (A) offer a credit education program or seminar to the
borrower that has been previously reviewed and approved by the
commissioner for use in complying with this section; or (B) invite
the borrower to a credit education program or seminar offered by an
independent third party that has been previously reviewed and
approved by the commissioner for use in complying with this section.
The borrower shall not be required to participate in either of these
education programs or seminars.
   (2) The licensee shall report each borrower's payment performance
to at least one of the national credit reporting agencies in the
United States.
   (3) (A) The licensee shall underwrite each loan to determine a
borrower's ability and willingness to repay the loan pursuant to the
loan terms, and shall not make a loan if it determines, through its
underwriting, that the borrower's total monthly debt service
payments, at the time of origination, including the loan for which
the borrower is being considered, and across all outstanding forms of
credit that can be independently verified by the licensee, exceed 50
percent of the borrower's gross monthly income.
   (B) (i) The licensee shall seek information and documentation
pertaining to all of a borrower's outstanding debt obligations during
the loan application and underwriting process, including loans that
are self reported by the borrower but not available through
independent verification. The licensee shall verify that information
using a credit report from at least one of the three
                          major credit bureaus or through other
available electronic debt verification services that provide reliable
evidence of a borrower's outstanding debt obligations.
   (ii) Notwithstanding the verification requirement in subparagraph
(A), the licensee shall request from the borrower and include all
information obtained from the borrower regarding outstanding deferred
deposit transactions in the calculation of the borrower's
outstanding debt obligations.
   (iii) The licensee shall not be required to consider, for purposes
of debt-to-income ratio evaluation, loans from friends or family.
   (C) The licensee shall also verify the borrower's income that the
licensee relies on to determine the borrower's debt-to-income ratio
using information from either of the following:
   (i) Electronic means or services that provide reliable evidence of
the borrower's actual income.
   (ii) Internal Revenue Service Form W-2, tax returns, payroll
receipts, bank statements, or other third-party documents that
provide reasonably reliable evidence of the borrower's actual income.

   (h) (1) Notwithstanding Sections 22311 to 22315, inclusive, no
person, in connection with, or incidental to, the making of any loan
made pursuant to this article, may offer, sell, or require the
borrower to contract for "credit insurance" as defined in paragraph
(1) of subdivision (a) of Section 22314 or insurance on tangible
personal or real property of the type specified in Section 22313.
   (2) Notwithstanding Sections 22311 to 22315, inclusive, no
licensee, finder, or any other person that participates in the
origination of a loan under this article shall refer a borrower to
any other person for the purchase of "credit insurance" as defined in
paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 22314 or insurance on
tangible personal or real property of the type specified in Section
22313.
   (i) (1) No licensee shall require, as a condition of providing the
loan, that the borrower waive any right, penalty, remedy, forum, or
procedure provided for in any law applicable to the loan, including
the right to file and pursue a civil action or file a complaint with
or otherwise communicate with the commissioner or any court or other
public entity, or that the borrower agree to resolve disputes in a
jurisdiction outside of California or to the application of laws
other than those of California, as provided by law. Any such waiver
by a borrower must be knowing, voluntary, and in writing, and
expressly not made a condition of doing business with the licensee.
Any such waiver that is required as a condition of doing business
with the licensee shall be presumed involuntary, unconscionable,
against public policy, and unenforceable. The licensee has the burden
of proving that a waiver of any rights, penalties, forums, or
procedures was knowing, voluntary, and not made a condition of the
contract with the borrower.
   (2) No licensee shall refuse to do business with or discriminate
against a borrower or applicant on the basis that the borrower or
applicant refuses to waive any right, penalty, remedy, forum, or
procedure, including the right to file and pursue a civil action or
complaint with, or otherwise notify, the commissioner or any court or
other public entity. The exercise of a person's right to refuse to
waive any right, penalty, remedy, forum, or procedure, including a
rejection of a contract requiring a waiver, shall not affect any
otherwise legal terms of a contract or an agreement.
   (3) This subdivision shall not apply to any agreement to waive any
right, penalty, remedy, forum, or procedure, including any agreement
to arbitrate a claim or dispute, after a claim or dispute has
arisen. Nothing in this subdivision shall affect the enforceability
or validity of any other provision of the contract.
   (j) This section shall not apply to any loan of a bona fide
principal amount of two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) or
more as determined in accordance with Section 22251. For purposes of
this subdivision, "bona fide principal amount" shall be determined in
accordance with Section 22251.
  SEC. 100.  Section 22355 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
   22355.  (a) At the time the finder receives or processes an
application for a  pilot  program loan, the finder
shall provide the following statement to the applicant, on behalf of
the licensee, in no smaller than 10-point type, and shall ask the
applicant to acknowledge receipt of the statement in writing:


   "Your loan application has been referred to us by Name of Finder].
We may pay a fee to Name of Finder] for the successful referral of
your loan application. IF YOU ARE APPROVED FOR THE LOAN, NAME OF
LICENSEE] WILL BECOME YOUR LENDER, AND YOU WILL BE BUILDING A
RELATIONSHIP WITH NAME OF LICENSEE]. If you wish to report a
complaint about Name of Finder] or Name of Licensee] regarding this
loan transaction, you may contact the California Department of
Corporations at 1-866-ASK-CORP (1-866-275-2677), or file your
complaint online at www.corp.ca.gov."


   (b) If the loan is consummated, the licensee shall mail or give to
the borrower a copy of the disclosure notice within two weeks of the
date of the loan consummation.
  SEC. 101.  Section 2250 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to
read:
   2250.  It is unlawful to import or transport  any live muskrat
(genus Ondatra)  into  ,  or possess any live muskrat
 (genus Ondatra)  in  ,  California except
under permit issued by the department pursuant to Section 2118, or as
otherwise provided by law. A county agricultural commissioner, fish
and game deputy, or state plant quarantine officer may enter upon
lands or waters west of the crest of the Cascade-Sierra Nevada
mountain system, and west and south of the Tehachapi, Liebre, San
Gabriel, San  Bernadino   Bernardino  , San
Jacinto, Cuyamaca, and connected mountains south to the
international boundary, or in any watershed tributary to, or draining
into, the Pacific Ocean to remove or destroy the muskrats.
  SEC. 102.  Section 2942 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to
read:
   2942.  (a) There is in the Natural Resources Agency the Salton Sea
Restoration Council, which is established as a state agency to
oversee the restoration of the Salton Sea, including all of the
following:
   (1) Early start habitat demonstration projects.
   (2) Biological investigations relating to the restoration of the
Salton Sea.
   (3) Investigations of water quality, sedimentation, and inflows
relating to the restoration of the Salton Sea.
   (4) Air quality investigations relating to the restoration of the
Salton Sea.
   (5) Geotechnical investigations relating to the restoration of the
Salton Sea.
   (6) Coordination with the Imperial Irrigation District, the
Coachella Valley Water District, the Torres Martinez  Des 
 ert Cahuilla Indian  Tribe, and other landowners in the
vicinity of the Salton Sea.
   (7) Investigations of access and utility agreements relating to
the restoration of the Salton Sea.
   (b) For the purpose of developing a restoration plan pursuant to
this section, the council shall evaluate Salton Sea restoration
plans, including, but not limited to, the alternatives described in
Chapter 3 of Volume I of the Salton Sea  Ecosystem 
Restoration Program Draft Programmatic Environmental Impact Report,
dated October 2006, and the program components of those alternatives.

   (c) The council shall report to the Governor and the Legislature
by June 30, 2013, with a recommended Salton Sea restoration plan. In
recommending a restoration plan, the council shall consider the
impacts of the restoration plan on air quality, fish and wildlife
habitat, water quality, and the technical and financial feasibility
of the restoration plan.
   (d) In conducting its duties pursuant to this section, the council
shall comply with both of the following requirements:
   (1) The council shall act consistent with the purposes of the
Salton Sea Restoration Fund specified in Section 2932.
   (2) The council shall work collaboratively with local governments
and interested parties.
  SEC. 103.  Section 6612 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to
read:
   6612.  (a) Upon receipt of an application to partially remove an
offshore oil structure pursuant to this chapter, the department shall
determine whether the application is complete and includes all
information needed by the department.
   (b) (1) Upon a determination that the application is complete, the
applicant shall provide surety bonds executed by an admitted surety
insurer, irrevocable letters of credit, trust funds, or other forms
of financial assurances, determined by the department to be available
and adequate, to ensure that the applicant will provide sufficient
funds to the department, council, commission, and conservancy to
carry out all required activities pursuant to this article, including
all of the following:
   (A) Environmental review of the proposed project pursuant to
Section 6604.
   (B) A determination of net environmental benefit pursuant to
Section 6613.
   (C) A determination of cost savings pursuant to Section 6614.
   (D) Preparation of a management plan for the structure pursuant to
Section 6615.
   (E) Implementation of the management plan and ongoing maintenance
of the structure after the department takes title pursuant to Section
6620.
   (F) Development of an advisory spending plan pursuant to Section
6621.
   (G) Other activities undertaken to meet the requirements of this
article, including the costs of reviewing applications for
completeness,  and  reviewing, approving, and permitting the
proposed project, which includes the costs of determining whether
the project meets the requirements of all applicable laws and
regulations and the costs of environmental assessment and review.
   (2) The department shall consult with the council, commission, and
conservancy in determining appropriate funding for activities to be
carried out by those agencies.
   (3) The funds provided pursuant to paragraph (1) shall not be
considered in the calculation of cost savings pursuant to Section
6614 or the apportionment of cost savings pursuant to Section 6618.
   (c) The first person to file an application on and after January
1, 2011, to partially remove an offshore oil structure pursuant to
this chapter  ,  shall pay, in addition to all costs
identified under subdivision (b), the startup costs incurred by the
department or the commission to implement this chapter, including the
costs to develop and adopt regulations pursuant to this chapter.
This payment of startup costs shall be reimbursed by the department
as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 6618.
   (d) As soon as feasible after reaching the agreement pursuant to
subdivision (b), the lead agency shall begin the environmental review
of the proposed project as required pursuant to Section 6604.
  SEC. 104.  Section 481 of the Food and Agricultural Code is amended
to read:
   481.  (a) The department may, with the approval of the Governor,
cooperate with officials of the United States Department of
Agriculture or with officials of other states in the conduct of pest
or disease investigations outside of this state in the interest of
the protection of the agricultural industry of this state from any
pest or disease which is not generally distributed in this state.
   (b) The department may enter into cooperative agreements with the
United States Department of Agriculture to carry out a program for
the prevention and control of avian influenza. The department shall,
in accordance with the Administrative  Procedures 
 Procedure  Act, adopt any regulations necessary to
implement program requirements set out in the agreement.
  SEC. 105.  Section 11504 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
amended to read:
   11504.  Prior to the adoption of regulations by a commissioner, a
notice of intention to adopt regulations shall be published in the
county, pursuant to Section 6061 of the  Goverment 
 Government  Code, at least 10 days in advance of the time
the regulations are to be adopted, amended, or repealed.
  SEC. 106.  Section 13184 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
amended to read:
   13184.  (a) In implementing Section 13183, the department shall
establish and maintain an Internet website   Web
site  as a comprehensive directory of resources describing and
promoting least-hazardous practices at schoolsites. The 
website   Web site  shall also make available an
electronic copy of the model program guidebook, its updates, and
supporting documentation. The department shall also establish and
maintain on its  website   Web site  an
easily identified link that provides the public with all appropriate
information regarding the public health and environmental impacts of
pesticide active ingredients and ways to reduce the use of pesticides
at school facilities.
   (b) It is the intent of the Legislature that the state assist
school districts to ensure that compliance with Section 17612 of the
Education Code is simple and inexpensive. The department shall
include in its  website   Web site 
Internet-based links that allow schools to properly identify and list
the active ingredients of pesticide products they expect to be
applied during the upcoming year. Use of these links by schools is
not mandatory but shall be made available to all schools at no cost.
The department shall ensure that adequate resources are available to
respond to inquiries from school facilities or districts regarding
the use of integrated pest management practices.
  SEC. 107.  Section 79691 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
amended to read:
   79691.  A civil penalty not exceeding one thousand dollars
($1,000) may be levied by the commission upon a person who willfully
does any of the following:
   (a) Renders or furnishes a false report, statement, or record
required by the commission.
   (b) Fails to render or furnish a report, statement, or record
required by the commission.
   (c) Conducts  oneself   himself or herself
 in any way to affect the shipment of pollination units, bees,
honey, or hive products in order to avoid payment of assessments.
   (d) Secretes, destroys, or alters records required to be kept by
this chapter.
  SEC. 108.  Section 79702 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
amended to read:
   79702.  Following a hearing, and favorable referendum if required,
the process specified in Section 79701 shall be conducted by the
secretary every fifth year thereafter  ,  between January 1
and December 31, unless a referendum is conducted as the result of a
petition pursuant to Section 79703.
  SEC. 109.  Section 831.7 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   831.7.  (a) Neither a public entity nor a public employee is
liable to any person who participates in a hazardous recreational
activity, including any person who assists the participant, or to any
spectator who knew or reasonably should have known that the
hazardous recreational activity created a substantial risk of injury
to himself or herself and was voluntarily in the place of risk, or
having the ability to do so failed to leave, for any damage or injury
to property or persons arising out of that hazardous recreational
activity.
   (b) As used in this section, "hazardous recreational activity"
means a recreational activity conducted on property of a public
entity that creates a substantial, as distinguished from a minor,
trivial, or insignificant, risk of injury to a participant or a
spectator.
   "Hazardous recreational activity" also means:
   (1) Water contact activities, except diving, in places where, or
at a time when, lifeguards are not provided and reasonable warning
thereof has been given, or the injured party should reasonably have
known that there was no lifeguard provided at the time.
   (2) Any form of diving into water from other than a diving board
or diving platform, or at any place or from any structure where
diving is prohibited and reasonable warning thereof has been given.
   (3) Animal riding, including equestrian competition, archery,
bicycle racing or jumping, mountain bicycling, boating, cross-country
and downhill skiing, hang gliding, kayaking, motorized vehicle
racing, off-road motorcycling or four-wheel driving of any kind,
orienteering, pistol and rifle shooting, rock climbing, rocketeering,
rodeo, self-contained underwater breathing apparatus (SCUBA) diving,
spelunking, skydiving, sport parachuting, paragliding, body contact
sports, surfing, trampolining, tree climbing, tree rope swinging,
waterskiing, white water rafting, and windsurfing. For the purposes
of this subdivision, "mountain bicycling" does not include riding a
bicycle on paved pathways, roadways, or sidewalks. For the purpose of
this paragraph, "body contact sports" means sports in which it is
reasonably foreseeable that there will be rough bodily contact with
one or more participants.
   (c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), this section does not
limit liability that would otherwise exist for any of the following:
   (A) Failure of the public entity or employee to guard or warn of a
known dangerous condition or of another hazardous recreational
activity known to the public entity or employee that is not
reasonably assumed by the participant as inherently a part of the
hazardous recreational activity out of which the damage or injury
arose.
   (B) Damage or injury suffered in any case where permission to
participate in the hazardous recreational activity was granted for a
specific fee. For the purpose of this subparagraph,  a
 "specific fee" does not include a fee or consideration
charged for a general purpose such as a general park admission
charge, a vehicle entry or parking fee, or an administrative or group
use application or permit fee, as distinguished from a specific fee
charged for participation in the specific hazardous recreational
activity out of which the damage or injury arose.
   (C) Injury suffered to the extent proximately caused by the
negligent failure of the public entity or public employee to properly
construct or maintain in good repair any structure, recreational
equipment or machinery, or substantial work of improvement utilized
in the hazardous recreational activity out of which the damage or
injury arose.
   (D) Damage or injury suffered in any case where the public entity
or employee recklessly or with gross negligence promoted the
participation in or observance of a hazardous recreational activity.
For purposes of this  paragraph   subparagraph
 , promotional literature or a public announcement or
advertisement that merely describes the available facilities and
services on the property does not in itself constitute a reckless or
grossly negligent promotion.
   (E) An act of gross negligence by a public entity or a public
employee that is the proximate cause of the injury.
   (2) Nothing in this subdivision creates a duty of care or basis of
liability for personal injury or damage to personal property.
   (d) Nothing in this section limits the liability of an independent
concessionaire, or any person or organization other than the public
entity, whether or not the person or organization has a contractual
relationship with the public entity to use the public property, for
injuries or damages suffered in any case as a result of the operation
of a hazardous recreational activity on public property by the
concessionaire, person, or organization.
  SEC. 110.  Section 901 of the Government Code is amended to read:
   901.  For the purpose of computing the time limits prescribed by
Sections 911.2, 911.4,  912, and  945.6,  and
946.6,  the date of the accrual of a cause of action to which a
claim relates is the date upon which the cause of action would be
deemed to have accrued within the meaning of the statute of
limitations which would be applicable thereto if there were no
requirement that a claim be presented to and be acted upon by the
public entity before an action could be commenced thereon. However,
the date upon which a cause of action for equitable indemnity or
partial equitable indemnity accrues shall be the date upon which a
defendant is served with the complaint giving rise to the defendant's
claim for equitable indemnity or partial equitable indemnity against
the public entity.
  SEC. 111.  Section 912.5 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   912.5.  (a) The Trustees of the California State University shall
act on a claim against the California State University in accordance
with the procedure that the Trustees of the California State
University  provides   provide  by rule.
   (b) Nothing in this section authorizes the Trustees of the
California State University to adopt any rule that is inconsistent
with this part.
   (c) If a claim for money or damages against the California State
University is mistakenly presented to the Victim Compensation and
Government Claims Board, the Victim Compensation and Government
Claims Board shall immediately notify the claimant of the error and
shall include information on proper filing of the claim.
  SEC. 112.  Section 935.9 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   935.9.  The Trustees of the California State University may adjust
and pay any claim arising out of the activities of the California
State University. The Trustees of the California State University
may, by rule, authorize the Office of Risk Management at the 
Chancellor's  Office of the  Chancellor of the 
California State University to perform the functions of the Trustees
of the California State University under this section.
  SEC. 113.  Section 3254.5 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   3254.5.  (a) An administrative appeal instituted by a firefighter
under this chapter shall be conducted in conformance with rules and
procedures adopted by the employing department or licensing or
certifying agency that are in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing
with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2.
   (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), if the employing department
is subject to a memorandum of understanding that provides for binding
arbitration of administrative appeals, the arbitrator or arbitration
panel shall serve as the hearing officer in accordance with Chapter
5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2
and  ,  notwithstanding any other provision  , 
that hearing officer's decision shall be binding. However, a
memorandum of understanding negotiated with an employing agency shall
not control the process for administrative appeals instituted with
licensing or certifying agencies. Any administrative appeal
instituted with licensing or certifying agencies shall adhere to the
requirements prescribed in subdivision (a).
  SEC. 114.  Section 6585 of the Government Code is amended to read:
   6585.  The definitions in this section shall govern the
construction and interpretation of this article.
   (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), "authority"
means an entity created pursuant to Article 1 (commencing with
Section 6500).
   (2) In the case of an authority issuing bonds pursuant to this
chapter in which VLF receivables, as defined in subdivision (j), are
pledged to the payment of the bonds, other than VLF receivables so
pledged for a county of the first class, an authority shall consist
of not  less   fewer  than 100 local
agencies.
   (3) In the case of an authority issuing bonds pursuant to this
chapter in which Proposition 1A receivables, as defined in
subdivision (g), are pledged to the payment of the bonds, an
authority shall consist of not  less   fewer
 than 250 local agencies.
   (b) "Bond purchase agreement" means a contractual agreement
executed between the authority and the local agency whereby the
authority agrees to purchase bonds of the local agency.
   (c) "Bonds" means all of the following:
   (1) Bonds, including, but not limited to, assessment bonds,
redevelopment agency bonds,  government issued  
government-   issued  mortgage bonds, and industrial
development bonds.
   (2) Notes, including bond, revenue, tax, or grant anticipation
notes.
   (3) Commercial paper, floating rate and variable maturity
securities, and any other evidences of indebtedness.
   (4) Certificates of participation or lease-purchase agreements.
   (d) "Cost," as applied to a public capital improvement or portion
thereof financed under this part, means all of the following:
   (1) All or any part of the cost of construction, renovation, and
acquisition of all lands, structures, real or personal property,
rights, rights-of-way, franchises, easements, and interests acquired
or used for a public capital improvement.
   (2) The cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring any
lands to which the buildings or structures may be moved  ;
  , and  the cost of all machinery and equipment.
   (3) Finance charges.
   (4) Interest prior to, during, and for a period after, completion
of that construction, as determined by the authority.
   (5) Provisions for working capital, reserves for principal and
interest and for extensions, enlargements, additions, replacements,
renovations, and improvements.
   (6) The cost of architectural, engineering, financial and legal
services, plans, specifications, estimates, and administrative
expenses.
   (7) Other expenses necessary or incident to determining the
feasibility of constructing any project or incident to the
construction or acquisition or financing of any public capital
improvement.
   (e) "Legislative body" means the governing body of a local agency.

   (f) "Local agency" means a party to the agreement creating the
authority, or an agency or subdivision of that party, sponsoring a
project of public capital improvements, or any city, county, city and
county, authority, district, or public corporation of this state.
   (g) "Proposition 1A receivable" means the right to payment of
moneys due or to become due to a local agency, pursuant to clause
(iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of
Section 25.5 of Article XIII of the California Constitution and
Section 100.06 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (h) "Public capital improvements" means one or more projects
specified in Section 6546.
   (i) "Revenue" means income and receipts of the authority from any
of the following:
   (1) A bond purchase agreement.
   (2) Bonds acquired by the authority.
   (3) Loans installment sale agreements, and other revenue-producing
agreements entered into by the authority.
   (4) Projects financed by the authority.
   (5) Grants and other sources of income.

        (6) VLF receivables purchased pursuant to Section 6588.5.
   (7) Proposition 1A receivables purchased pursuant to Section
6588.6.
   (8) Interest or other income from any investment of any money in
any fund or account established for the payment of principal or
interest or premiums on bonds.
   (j) "VLF receivable" means the right to payment of moneys due or
to become due to a local agency out of funds payable in connection
with vehicle license fees to a local agency pursuant to Section
10754.11 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (k) "Working capital" means money to be used by, or on behalf of,
a local agency for any purpose for which a local agency may borrow
money pursuant to Section 53852, or for any purpose for which a VLF
receivable or a Proposition 1A receivable sold to an authority could
have been used by the local agency.
  SEC. 115.  Section 7480 of the Government Code, as amended by
Section 30 of Chapter 697 of the Statutes of 2010, is repealed.

   7480.  Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit any of the
following:
   (a) The dissemination of any financial information that is not
identified with, or identifiable as being derived from, the financial
records of a particular customer.
   (b) When any police or sheriff's department or district attorney
in this state certifies to a bank, credit union, or savings
association in writing that a crime report has been filed that
involves the alleged fraudulent use of drafts, checks, access cards,
or other orders drawn upon any bank, credit union, or savings
association in this state, the police or sheriff's department or
district attorney, a county adult protective services office when
investigating the financial abuse of an elder or dependent adult, or
a long-term care ombudsman when investigating the financial abuse of
an elder or dependent adult, may request a bank, credit union, or
savings association to furnish, and a bank, credit union, or savings
association shall furnish, a statement setting forth the following
information with respect to a customer account specified by the
requesting party for a period 30 days prior to, and up to 30 days
following, the date of occurrence of the alleged illegal act
involving the account:
   (1) The number of items dishonored.
   (2) The number of items paid that created overdrafts.
   (3) The dollar volume of the dishonored items and items paid which
created overdrafts and a statement explaining any credit arrangement
between the bank, credit union, or savings association and customer
to pay overdrafts.
   (4) The dates and amounts of deposits and debits and the account
balance on these dates.
   (5) A copy of the signature card, including the signature and any
addresses appearing on a customer's signature card.
   (6) The date the account opened and, if applicable, the date the
account closed.
   (7) Surveillance photographs and video recordings of persons
accessing the crime victim's financial account via an automated
teller machine (ATM) or from within the financial institution for
dates on which illegal acts involving the account were alleged to
have occurred. Nothing in this paragraph does any of the following:
   (A) Requires a financial institution to produce a photograph or
video recording if it does not possess the photograph or video
recording.
   (B) Affects any existing civil immunities as provided in Section
47 of the Civil Code or any other provision of law.
   (8) A bank, credit union, or savings association that provides the
requesting party with copies of one or more complete account
statements prepared in the regular course of business shall be deemed
to be in compliance with paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4).
   (c) When any police or sheriff's department or district attorney
in this state certifies to a bank, credit union, or savings
association in writing that a crime report has been filed that
involves the alleged fraudulent use of drafts, checks, access cards,
or other orders drawn upon any bank, credit union, or savings
association doing business in this state, the police or sheriff's
department or district attorney, a county adult protective services
office when investigating the financial abuse of an elder or
dependent adult, or a long-term care ombudsman when investigating the
financial abuse of an elder or dependent adult, may request, with
the consent of the accountholder, the bank, credit union, or savings
association to furnish, and the bank, credit union, or savings
association shall furnish, a statement setting forth the following
information with respect to a customer account specified by the
requesting party for a period 30 days prior to, and up to 30 days
following, the date of occurrence of the alleged illegal act
involving the account:
   (1) The number of items dishonored.
   (2) The number of items paid that created overdrafts.
   (3) The dollar volume of the dishonored items and items paid which
created overdrafts and a statement explaining any credit arrangement
between the bank, credit union, or savings association and customer
to pay overdrafts.
   (4) The dates and amounts of deposits and debits and the account
balance on these dates.
   (5) A copy of the signature card, including the signature and any
addresses appearing on a customer's signature card.
   (6) The date the account opened and, if applicable, the date the
account closed.
   (7) Surveillance photographs and video recordings of persons
accessing the crime victim's financial account via an automated
teller machine (ATM) or from within the financial institution for
dates on which illegal acts involving this account were alleged to
have occurred. Nothing in this paragraph does any of the following:
   (A) Requires a financial institution to produce a photograph or
video recording if it does not possess the photograph or video
recording.
   (B) Affects any existing civil immunities as provided in Section
47 of the Civil Code or any other provision of law.
   (8) A bank, credit union, or savings association doing business in
this state that provides the requesting party with copies of one or
more complete account statements prepared in the regular course of
business shall be deemed to be in compliance with paragraphs (1),
(2), (3), and (4).
   (d) For purposes of subdivision (c), consent of the accountholder
shall be satisfied if an accountholder provides to the financial
institution and the person or entity seeking disclosure, a signed and
dated statement containing all of the following:
   (1) Authorization of the disclosure for the period specified in
subdivision (c).
   (2) The name of the agency or department to which disclosure is
authorized and, if applicable, the statutory purpose for which the
information is to be obtained.
   (3) A description of the financial records that are authorized to
be disclosed.
   (e) (1) The Attorney General, a supervisory agency, the Franchise
Tax Board, the State Board of Equalization, the Employment
Development Department, the Controller or an inheritance tax referee
when administering the Prohibition of Gift and Death Taxes (Part 8
(commencing with Section 13301) of Division 2 of the Revenue and
Taxation Code), a police or sheriff's department or district
attorney, a county adult protective services office when
investigating the financial abuse of an elder or dependent adult, a
long-term care ombudsman when investigating the financial abuse of an
elder or dependent adult, a county welfare department when
investigating welfare fraud, a county auditor-controller or director
of finance when investigating fraud against the county, or the
Department of Corporations when conducting investigations in
connection with the enforcement of laws administered by the
Commissioner of Corporations, from requesting of an office or branch
of a financial institution, and the office or branch from responding
to a request, as to whether a person has an account or accounts at
that office or branch and, if so, any identifying numbers of the
account or accounts.
   (2) No additional information beyond that specified in this
section shall be released to a county welfare department without
either the accountholder's written consent or a judicial writ, search
warrant, subpoena, or other judicial order.
   (3) A county auditor-controller or director of finance who
unlawfully discloses information he or she is authorized to request
under this subdivision is guilty of the unlawful disclosure of
confidential data, a misdemeanor, which shall be punishable as set
forth in Section 7485.
   (f) The examination by, or disclosure to, any supervisory agency
of financial records that relate solely to the exercise of its
supervisory function. The scope of an agency's supervisory function
shall be determined by reference to statutes that grant authority to
examine, audit, or require reports of financial records or financial
institutions as follows:
   (1) With respect to the Commissioner of Financial Institutions by
reference to Division 1 (commencing with Section 99), Division 1.5
(commencing with Section 4800), Division 2 (commencing with Section
5000), Division 5 (commencing with Section 14000), Division 7
(commencing with Section 18000), Division 15 (commencing with Section
31000), and Division 16 (commencing with Section 33000), of the
Financial Code.
   (2) With respect to the Controller by reference to Title 10
(commencing with Section 1300) of Part 3 of the Code of Civil
Procedure.
   (3) With respect to the Administrator of Local Agency Security by
reference to Article 2 (commencing with Section 53630) of Chapter 4
of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5 of the Government Code.
   (g) The disclosure to the Franchise Tax Board of (1) the amount of
any security interest that a financial institution has in a
specified asset of a customer or (2) financial records in connection
with the filing or audit of a tax return or tax information return
that are required to be filed by the financial institution pursuant
to Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001), Part 11 (commencing with
Section 23001), or Part 18 (commencing with Section 38001), of the
Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (h) The disclosure to the State Board of Equalization of any of
the following:
   (1) The information required by Sections 6702, 6703, 8954, 8957,
30313, 30315, 32383, 32387, 38502, 38503, 40153, 40155, 41122,
41123.5, 43443, 43444.2, 44144, 45603, 45605, 46404, 46406, 50134,
50136, 55203, 55205, 60404, and 60407 of the Revenue and Taxation
Code.
   (2) The financial records in connection with the filing or audit
of a tax return required to be filed by the financial institution
pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001), Part 2 (commencing
with Section 7301), Part 3 (commencing with Section 8601), Part 13
(commencing with Section 30001), Part 14 (commencing with Section
32001), and Part 17 (commencing with Section 37001), of Division 2 of
the Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (3) The amount of any security interest a financial institution
has in a specified asset of a customer, if the inquiry is directed to
the branch or office where the interest is held.
   (i) The disclosure to the Controller of the information required
by Section 7853 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (j) The disclosure to the Employment Development Department of the
amount of any security interest a financial institution has in a
specified asset of a customer, if the inquiry is directed to the
branch or office where the interest is held.
   (k) The disclosure by a construction lender, as defined in Section
8006 of the Civil Code, to the Registrar of Contractors, of
information concerning the making of progress payments to a prime
contractor requested by the registrar in connection with an
investigation under Section 7108.5 of the Business and Professions
Code.
   (l) Upon receipt of a written request from a local child support
agency referring to a support order pursuant to Section 17400 of the
Family Code, a financial institution shall disclose the following
information concerning the account or the person named in the
request, whom the local child support agency shall identify, whenever
possible, by social security number:
   (1) If the request states the identifying number of an account at
a financial institution, the name of each owner of the account.
   (2) Each account maintained by the person at the branch to which
the request is delivered, and, if the branch is able to make a
computerized search, each account maintained by the person at any
other branch of the financial institution located in this state.
   (3) For each account disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2),
the account number, current balance, street address of the branch
where the account is maintained, and, to the extent available through
the branch's computerized search, the name and address of any other
person listed as an owner.
   (4) Whenever the request prohibits the disclosure, a financial
institution shall not disclose either the request or its response, to
an owner of the account or to any other person, except the officers
and employees of the financial institution who are involved in
responding to the request and to attorneys, employees of the local
child support agencies, auditors, and regulatory authorities who have
a need to know in order to perform their duties, and except as
disclosure may be required by legal process.
   (5) No financial institution, or any officer, employee, or agent
thereof, shall be liable to any person for (A) disclosing information
in response to a request pursuant to this subdivision, (B) failing
to notify the owner of an account, or complying with a request under
this paragraph not to disclose to the owner, the request or
disclosure under this subdivision, or (C) failing to discover any
account owned by the person named in the request pursuant to a
computerized search of the records of the financial institution.
   (6) The local child support agency may request information
pursuant to this subdivision only when the local child support agency
has received at least one of the following types of physical
evidence:
   (A) Any of the following, dated within the last three years:
   (i) Form 599.
   (ii) Form 1099.
   (iii) A bank statement.
   (iv) A check.
   (v) A bank passbook.
   (vi) A deposit slip.
   (vii) A copy of a federal or state income tax return.
   (viii) A debit or credit advice.
   (ix) Correspondence that identifies the child support obligor by
name, the bank, and the account number.
   (x) Correspondence that identifies the child support obligor by
name, the bank, and the banking services related to the account of
the obligor.
   (xi) An asset identification report from a federal agency.
   (B) A sworn declaration of the custodial parent during the 12
months immediately preceding the request that the person named in the
request has had or may have had an account at an office or branch of
the financial institution to which the request is made.
   (7) Information obtained by a local child support agency pursuant
to this subdivision shall be used only for purposes that are directly
connected with the administration of the duties of the local child
support agency pursuant to Section 17400 of the Family Code.
   (m) (1) As provided in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section
666 of Title 42 of the United States Code, upon receipt of an
administrative subpoena on the current federally approved interstate
child support enforcement form, as approved by the federal Office of
Management and Budget, a financial institution shall provide the
information or documents requested by the administrative subpoena.
   (2) The administrative subpoena shall refer to the current federal
Office of Management and Budget control number and be signed by a
person who states that he or she is an authorized agent of a state or
county agency responsible for implementing the child support
enforcement program set forth in Part D (commencing with Section 651)
of Subchapter IV of Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code.
A financial institution may rely on the statements made in the
subpoena and has no duty to inquire into the truth of any statement
in the subpoena.
   (3) If the person who signs the administrative subpoena directs a
financial institution in writing not to disclose either the subpoena
or its response to any owner of an account covered by the subpoena,
the financial institution shall not disclose the subpoena or its
response to the owner.
   (4) No financial institution, or any officer, employee, or agent
thereof, shall be liable to any person for (A) disclosing information
or providing documents in response to a subpoena pursuant to this
subdivision, (B) failing to notify any owner of an account covered by
the subpoena or complying with a request not to disclose to the
owner, the subpoena or disclosure under this subdivision, or (C)
failing to discover any account owned by the person named in the
subpoena pursuant to a computerized search of the records of the
financial institution.
   (n) The dissemination of financial information and records
pursuant to any of the following:
   (1) Compliance by a financial institution with the requirements of
Section 2892 of the Probate Code.
   (2) Compliance by a financial institution with the requirements of
Section 2893 of the Probate Code.
   (3) An order by a judge upon a written ex parte application by a
peace officer showing specific and articulable facts that there are
reasonable grounds to believe that the records or information sought
are relevant and material to an ongoing investigation of a felony
violation of Section 186.10 or of any felony subject to the
enhancement set forth in Section 186.11.
   (A) The ex parte application shall specify with particularity the
records to be produced, which shall be only those of the individual
or individuals who are the subject of the criminal investigation.
   (B) The ex parte application and any subsequent judicial order
shall be open to the public as a judicial record unless ordered
sealed by the court, for a period of 60 days. The sealing of these
records may be extended for 60-day periods upon a showing to the
court that it is necessary for the continuance of the investigation.
Sixty-day extensions may continue for up to one year or until
termination of the investigation of the individual or individuals,
whichever is sooner.
   (C) The records ordered to be produced shall be returned to the
peace officer applicant or his or her designee within a reasonable
time period after service of the order upon the financial
institution.
   (D) Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude the financial
institution from notifying a customer of the receipt of the order for
production of records unless a court orders the financial
institution to withhold notification to the customer upon a finding
that the notice would impede the investigation.
   (E) Where a court has made an order pursuant to this paragraph to
withhold notification to the customer under this paragraph, the peace
officer or law enforcement agency who obtained the financial
information shall notify the customer by delivering a copy of the ex
parte order to the customer within 10 days of the termination of the
investigation.
   (4) No financial institution, or any officer, employee, or agent
thereof, shall be liable to any person for any of the following:
   (A) Disclosing information to a probate court pursuant to Sections
2892 and 2893.
   (B) Disclosing information in response to a court order pursuant
to paragraph (3).
   (C) Complying with a court order under this subdivision not to
disclose to the customer, the order, or the dissemination of
information pursuant to the court order.
   (o) Disclosure by a financial institution to a peace officer, as
defined in Section 830.1 of the Penal Code, pursuant to the
following:
   (1) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1748.95 of the
Civil Code, provided that the financial institution has first
complied with the requirements of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a)
and subdivision (b) of Section 1748.95 of the Civil Code.
   (2) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 4002 of the
Financial Code, provided that the financial institution has first
complied with the requirements of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a)
and subdivision (b) of Section 4002 of the Financial Code.
   (3) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 22470 of the
Financial Code, provided that any financial institution that is a
finance lender has first complied with the requirements of paragraph
(2) of subdivision (a) and subdivision (b) of Section 22470 of the
Financial Code.
   (p) When the governing board of the Public Employees' Retirement
System or the State Teachers' Retirement System certifies in writing
to a financial institution that a benefit recipient has died and that
transfers to the benefit recipient's account at the financial
institution from the retirement system occurred after the benefit
recipient's date of death, the financial institution shall furnish
the retirement system with the name and address of any coowner,
cosigner, or any other person who had access to the funds in the
account following the date of the benefit recipient's death, or if
the account has been closed, the name and address of the person who
closed the account.
   (q) When the retirement board of a retirement system established
under the County Employees Retirement Law of 1937 certifies in
writing to a financial institution that a retired member or the
beneficiary of a retired member has died and that transfers to the
account of the retired member or beneficiary of a retired member at
the financial institution from the retirement system occurred after
the date of death of the retired member or beneficiary of a retired
member, the financial institution shall furnish the retirement system
with the name and address of any coowner, cosigner, or any other
person who had access to the funds in the account following the date
of death of the retired member or beneficiary of a retired member, or
if the account has been closed, the name and address of the person
who closed the account.
   (r) When the Franchise Tax Board certifies in writing to a
financial institution that (1) a taxpayer filed a tax return that
authorized a direct deposit refund with an incorrect financial
institution account or routing number that resulted in all or a
portion of the refund not being received, directly or indirectly, by
the taxpayer; (2) the direct deposit refund was not returned to the
Franchise Tax Board; and (3) the refund was deposited directly on a
specified date into the account of an accountholder of the financial
institution who was not entitled to receive the refund, then the
financial institution shall furnish to the Franchise Tax Board the
name and address of any coowner, cosigner, or any other person who
had access to the funds in the account following the date of direct
deposit refund, or if the account has been closed, the name and
address of the person who closed the account. 
  SEC. 116.  Section 7513.87 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   7513.87.  (a) A person acting as a placement agent in connection
with any potential system investment made by a local public
retirement                                               system shall
file any applicable reports with a local government agency that
requires lobbyists to register and file reports and shall comply with
any applicable requirements imposed by a local government agency
pursuant to Section 81013.
   (b) This section does not apply to an individual who is an
employee, officer, director, equityholder, partner, member, or
trustee of an external manager  a  nd  who spends
one-third or more of his or her time, during a calendar year,
managing the securities or assets owned, controlled, invested, or
held by the external manager.
  SEC. 117.  Section 7514 of the Government Code, as added by Section
1 of Chapter 220 of the Statutes of 1984, is amended and renumbered
to read:
    7514.   7513.97.   As used in Section
11 of Article VII of the Constitution, the following terms have the
following meanings:
   (a) "Actuarial equivalent" means a benefit of equal value when
computed upon the basis of the mortality tables adopted and the
actuarial interest rate fixed by the Board of Administration of the
Public Employees' Retirement System.
   (b) "Beneficiary" means any person or corporation designated by a
member, a retired member, or statute, or the estate of a member or
retired member designated by the member or retired member, to receive
a benefit under the retirement system, on account of the death of
the member or retired member.
   (c) "Salary" means the actual wages paid but shall not include any
other benefits, such as, but not limited to, health and dental
benefits, retirement benefits, vacation pay, and per diem.
   (d) "Unmodified pension or retirement allowance" means the maximum
pension or retirement allowance receivable, prior to any selection
of an optional settlement and includes any cost-of-living adjustment
and any other increase granted subsequent to retirement.
  SEC. 118.  Section 11019.5 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   11019.5.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, but to
the extent consistent with applicable federal law or regulation, any
state department and the Controller pursuant to  subdivision
(b) of  Section 15202, after receiving a request by a board
of supervisors of an affected county which has a population of
150,000 or less as of January 1, 1983, and upon determining that
advance payment is essential to the effective implementation of a
particular program, and further to the extent that funds are
available, and not more frequently than once each month, may advance
to the county an amount not to exceed one-twelfth of the annual
allocations, subventions, or reimbursements required for the delivery
of services by a county.
   (b) The director of each department and the Controller shall
promulgate regulations or guidelines and a plan to establish control
procedures to define the scope of operational information required
from a county in order to guarantee advance payments pursuant to this
section. No county may receive an advance payment unless the county
has complied with the provisions of the department's plan and
regulations. Each department plan shall be approved by the Department
of Finance prior to its implementation.
   (c) Claim schedules for advance payments shall be presented to the
appropriate department in the manner prescribed by the department.
Payment of claims shall be made within 60 days after a claim is
received by the department.
   (d) Each department and the Controller shall review periodically
and adjust advances to actual expenditures for the claim period.
Additionally, each department and the Controller shall take into
consideration the timing of the implementation of new programs in the
computation of advances. The authority contained in this chapter
shall not supersede or limit any other provision of law authorizing
the state to conduct required audits of claims transactions.
   (e) A county, upon determining that an advance payment is
essential for the effective implementation of a particular program,
to the extent funds are available, and not more frequently than once
each month, may advance to other affected local public agencies
located within its jurisdiction  (i.e.   ,
including, but not limited to  , school districts, special
districts,  or  cities,  etc.)  an amount
not to exceed one-twelfth of the annual allocations, reimbursements,
or subventions required for the delivery of services pursuant to
related state and federal laws.
   (f) This section does not apply to the State Department of Social
Services.
  SEC. 119.  Section 11544 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 32 of Chapter 74 of the Statutes of 2005, is repealed.

   11544.  (a) The Department of Technology Services Revolving Fund,
hereafter known as the fund, is hereby created within the State
Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director, pursuant to
the department's plan of operations, to receive all revenues from
the sale of technology or technology services provided for in this
chapter and all other moneys properly credited to the board and
department from any other source, and, subject to appropriation by
the Legislature, to pay all costs arising from this chapter,
including, but not limited to, operating and other expenses of the
board and department and costs associated with approved information
technology projects, and to establish reserves. At the discretion of
the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be
established.
   (b) The fund shall consist of all of the following:
   (1) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for
the purpose of this chapter.
   (2) Any other moneys that may be made available to the department
for the purpose of this chapter from any other source, including the
return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.
   (c) The department may collect payments from public agencies for
providing services to those agencies that the agencies have
contracted with the department to provide. The department may require
monthly payments by client agencies for the services the agencies
have contracted the department to provide. Pursuant to Section 11255,
the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the
department, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to
the fund. The department shall notify each affected state agency upon
requesting the Controller to make the transfer.
   (d) If the balance remaining in the fund at the end of any fiscal
year exceeds 25 percent of the department's current fiscal year
budget, the excess amount shall be used to reduce the billing rates
for services rendered during the following fiscal year. 
  SEC. 120.  Section 12517 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   12517.  When in his  or her  opinion it may be necessary
for the collection or enforcement of any judgment in favor or for the
use of the state, the Attorney General shall institute and
prosecute,  in   on  behalf of the state,
actions or proceedings to set aside and annul all conveyances
fraudulently made by judgment debtors. When allowed by the Department
of General Services, the necessary cost shall be paid out of any
available appropriation.
  SEC. 121.  Section 12627 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   12627.  The Attorney General shall adopt regulations pursuant to
the portion of the Administrative  Procedures  
Procedure  Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of
Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2) pertaining to rulemaking, as
follows:
   (a) Regulations on the standards and requirements that
organizations must meet that are consistent with the regulations
adopted by the USIA pursuant to the Mutual Educational and Cultural
Exchange Act of 1961 (22 U.S.C. Sec. 2451) as set forth in Section
514.1 and following of Title 22 of the Code of Federal Regulations as
those regulations existed on March 19, 1993. If the federal
regulations adopted by the USIA at a minimum require the same
standards and requirements of this article, the Attorney General
shall permit organizations designated by the USIA pursuant to those
regulations to, in lieu of documentation that would otherwise be
required by this article and the regulations adopted pursuant to this
subdivision, provide evidence of designation by the USIA.
   (b) Any regulations that are necessary for the administration of
this article.
  SEC. 122.  Section 14661.1 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   14661.1.  (a) For purposes of this section, the definitions in
subdivision (a) of Section 13332.19 shall apply. For purposes of
subdivision (a) of Section 13332.19, references to the Department of
General Services shall be deemed to be references to the Department
of General Services or the Department of Corrections and
Rehabilitation, as applicable.
   (b) Notwithstanding any provision of the Public Contract Code or
any other provision of law, when the Legislature appropriates funds
for a specific project, or for any project using funds appropriated
pursuant to Chapter 3.2.1 (commencing with Section 15819.40) or 3.2.2
(commencing with Section 15819.41) of Part 10b  of this
division  , the Director of General Services or the
Secretary of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, as
appropriate, may contract and procure state office facilities and
prison facilities pursuant to this section.
   (c) Prior to contracting with a design-build entity for the
procurement of a state office facility or prison facility under this
section, the Director of General Services or the Secretary of the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall:
   (1) Prepare a program setting forth the performance criteria for
the design-build project. The performance criteria shall be prepared
by a design professional duly licensed and registered in the State of
California.
   (2) (A) Establish a competitive prequalification and selection
process for design-build entities, including any subcontractors
listed at the time of bid, that clearly specifies the
prequalification criteria, and states the manner in which the winning
design-build entity will be selected.
   (B) Prequalification shall be limited to consideration of all of
the following criteria:
   (i) Possession of all required licenses, registration, and
credentials in good standing that are required to design and
construct the project.
   (ii) Submission of evidence that establishes that the design-build
entity members have completed, or demonstrated the capability to
complete, projects of similar size, scope, or complexity, and that
proposed key personnel have sufficient experience and training to
competently manage and complete the design and construction of the
project.
   (iii) Submission of a proposed project management plan that
establishes that the design-build entity has the experience,
competence, and capacity needed to effectively complete the project.
   (iv) Submission of evidence that establishes that the design-build
entity has the capacity to obtain all required payment and
performance bonding, liability insurance, and errors and omissions
insurance, as well as a financial statement that assures the
Department of General Services or the Department of Corrections and
Rehabilitation that the design-build entity has the capacity to
complete the project.
   (v) Provision of a declaration certifying that applying members of
the design-build entity have not had a surety company finish work on
any project within the last five years.
   (vi) Provision of information and a declaration providing detail
concerning all of the following:
   (I) Any construction or design claim or litigation totaling more
than five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) or 5 percent of the
annual value of work performed, whichever is less, settled against
any member of the design-build entity over the last five years.
   (II) Serious violations of the California Occupational Safety and
Health Act of 1973, as provided in Part 1 (commencing with Section
6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code, settled against any member of
the design-build entity.
   (III) Violations of federal or state law, including, but not
limited to, those laws governing the payment of wages, benefits, or
personal income tax withholding, of Federal Insurance Contributions
Act (FICA) withholding requirements, state disability insurance
withholding, or unemployment insurance payment requirements, settled
against any member of the design-build entity over the last five
years. For purposes of this subclause, only violations by a
design-build member as an employer shall be deemed applicable, unless
it is shown that the design-build entity member, in his or her
capacity as an employer, had knowledge of his or her subcontractor's
violations or failed to comply with the conditions set forth in
subdivision (b) of Section 1775 of the Labor Code.
   (IV) Information required by Section 10162 of the Public Contract
Code.
   (V) Violations of the Contractors' State License Law (Chapter 9
(commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the Business and
Professions Code), excluding alleged violations or complaints.
   (VI) Any conviction of any member of the design-build entity of
submitting a false or fraudulent claim to a public agency over the
last five years.
   (vii) Provision of a declaration that the design-build entity will
comply with all other provisions of law applicable to the project,
including, but not limited to, the requirements of Chapter 1
(commencing with Section 1720) of Part 7 of Division 2 of the Labor
Code.
   (C) The Director of General Services or the Secretary of the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, when requested by the
design-build entity, shall hold in confidence any information
required by clauses (i) to (vi), inclusive, of subparagraph (B).
   (D) Any declaration required under subparagraph (B) shall state
that reasonable diligence has been used in its preparation and that
it is true and complete to the best of the signer's knowledge. A
person who certifies as true any material matter that he or she knows
to be false is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by not
more than one year in a county jail, by a fine of not more than five
thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both the fine and imprisonment.
   (3) (A) Determine, as he or she deems in the best interests of the
state, which of the following methods listed in subparagraph (B)
will be used as the process for the winning design-build entity. He
or she shall provide a notification to the State Public Works Board,
regarding the method selected for determining the winning
design-build entity, at least 30 days prior to publicizing the
design-build solicitation package.
   (B) The Director of General Services or the Secretary of the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall make his or her
determination by choosing one of the following methods:
   (i) A design-build competition based upon performance, price, and
other criteria set forth by the Department of General Services or the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in the design-build
solicitation package. The Department of General Services or the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall establish
technical criteria and methodology, including price, to evaluate
proposals and shall describe the criteria and methodology in the
design-build solicitation package. Award shall be made to the
design-build entity whose proposal is judged as providing the best
value in meeting the interests of the Department of General Services
or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and meeting the
objectives of the project. A project with an approved budget of ten
million dollars ($10,000,000) or more may be awarded pursuant to this
clause.
   (ii) A design-build competition based upon performance and other
criteria set forth by the Department of General Services or the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in the design-build
solicitation package. Criteria used in this evaluation of proposals
may include, but need not be limited to, items such as proposed
design approach, life-cycle costs, project features, and functions.
However, any criteria and methods used to evaluate proposals shall be
limited to those contained in the design-build solicitation package.
Award shall be made to the design-build entity whose proposal is
judged as providing the best value, for the lowest price, meeting the
interests of the Department of General Services or the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation and meeting the objectives of the
project. A project with an approved budget of ten million dollars
($10,000,000) or more may be awarded pursuant to this clause.
   (iii) A design-build competition based upon program requirements
and a detailed scope of work, including any performance criteria and
concept drawings set forth by the Department of General Services or
the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in the design-build
solicitation package. Award shall be made on the basis of the lowest
responsible bid. A project with an approved budget of two hundred
fifty thousand dollars ($250,000) or more may be awarded pursuant to
this clause.
   (4) For purposes of this subdivision, the following definitions
shall apply:
   (A) "Best interest of the state" means a design-build process that
is projected by the Director of General Services or the Secretary of
the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to reduce the
project delivery schedule and total cost of a project while
maintaining a high level of quality workmanship and materials, when
compared to the traditional design-bid-build process.
   (B) "Best value" means a value determined by objective criteria
that may include, but are not limited to, price, features, functions,
life-cycle costs, experience, and other criteria deemed appropriate
by the Department of General Services or the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation.
   (d) The Legislature recognizes that the design-build entity is
charged with performing both design and construction. Because a
design-build contract may be awarded prior to the completion of the
design, it is often impracticable for the design-build entity to list
all subcontractors at the time of the award. As a result, the
subcontractor listing requirements contained in Chapter 4 (commencing
with Section 4100) of Part 1 of Division 2 of the Public Contract
Code can create a conflict with the implementation of the
design-build process by requiring all subcontractors to be listed at
a time when a sufficient set of plans shall not be available. It is
the intent of the Legislature to establish a clear process for the
selection and award of subcontracts entered into pursuant to this
section in a manner that retains protection for subcontractors while
enabling design-build projects to be administered in an efficient
fashion. Therefore, all of the following requirements shall apply to
subcontractors, licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 (commencing with
Section 7000) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code,
that are employed on design-build projects undertaken pursuant to
this section:
   (1) The Department of General Services and the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation, in each design-build solicitation
package, may identify types of subcontractors, by subcontractor
license classification, that will be listed by the design-build
entity at the time of the bid. In selecting the subcontractors that
will be listed by the design-build entity, the Department of General
Services and the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall
limit the identification to only those license classifications deemed
essential for proper completion of the project. In no event,
however, may the Department of General Services or the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation specify more than five licensed
subcontractor classifications. In addition, at its discretion, the
design-build entity may list an additional two subcontractors,
identified by subcontractor license classification, that will perform
design or construction work, or both, on the project. In no event
shall the design-build entity list at the time of bid a total number
of subcontractors that will perform design or construction work, or
both, in a total of more than seven subcontractor license
classifications on a project. All subcontractors that are listed at
the time of bid shall be afforded all of the protection contained in
Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 4100) of Part 1 of Division 2 of
the Public Contract Code. All subcontracts that were not listed by
the design-build entity at the time of bid shall be awarded in
accordance with paragraph (2).
   (2) All subcontracts that were not to be performed by the
design-build entity in accordance with paragraph (1) shall be
competitively bid and awarded by the design-build entity, in
accordance with the design-build process set forth by the Department
of General Services or the Department of Corrections and
Rehabilitation in the design-build solicitation package. The
design-build entity shall do all of the following:
   (A) Provide public notice of the availability of work to be
subcontracted in accordance with Section 10140 of the Public Contract
Code.
   (B) Provide a fixed date and time on which the subcontracted work
will be awarded in accordance with Section 10141 of the Public
Contract Code.
   (C) As authorized by the Department of General Services or the
Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, establish reasonable
prequalification criteria and standards, limited in scope to those
detailed in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c).
   (D) Provide that the subcontracted work shall be awarded to the
lowest responsible bidder.
   (e) This section shall not be construed and is not intended to
extend or limit the authority specified in Section 19130.
   (f) Any design-build entity that is selected to design and
construct a project pursuant to this section shall possess or obtain
sufficient bonding consistent with applicable provisions of the
Public Contract Code. Nothing in this section shall prohibit a
general or engineering contractor from being designated the lead
entity on a design-build entity for the purposes of purchasing
necessary bonding to cover the activities of the design-build entity.

   (g) Any payment or performance bond written for the purposes of
this section shall use a bond form developed by the Department of
General Services or the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation.
In developing the bond form, the Department of General Services or
the Department of  Correction   Corrections
 and Rehabilitation shall consult with the surety industry to
achieve a bond form that is consistent with surety industry
standards, while protecting the interests of the state.
   (h) The Department of General Services or the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation, as appropriate, shall each submit to
the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, before January 1, 2014, a
report containing a description of each public works project procured
by that department through the design-build process described in
this section that is completed after January 1, 2009, and before
December 1, 2013. The report shall include, but shall not be limited
to, all of the following information:
   (1) The type of project.
   (2) The gross square footage of the project.
   (3) The design-build entity that was awarded the project.
   (4) The estimated and actual project costs.
   (5) An assessment of the prequalification process and criteria.
   (6) An assessment of the effect of any retention on the project
made under the law.
   (7) A description of the method used to award the contract. If the
best value method was used, the report shall describe the factors
used to evaluate the bid, including the weighting of each factor and
an assessment of the effectiveness of the methodology.
   (i) The authority provided under this section shall be in addition
to the authority provided to the Department of General Services
pursuant to Section 4 of Chapter 252 of the Statutes of 1998, as
amended by Section 3 of Chapter 154 of the Statutes of 2007. The
authority under this section and Section 70391.7 shall apply to a
total of not more than five state office facilities, prison
facilities, or court facilities, which shall be determined pursuant
to this subdivision.
   (1) In order to enter into a contract utilizing the procurement
method authorized under this section, the Director of General
Services or the Secretary of the Department of Corrections and
Rehabilitation shall submit a request to the Department of Finance.
   (2) The Department of Finance shall make a determination whether
to approve or deny a request made pursuant to paragraph (1) if the
design-build project requested will not exceed the five facilities
maximum set forth in this section and Section 70391.7.
   (3) After receiving notification that the Department of Finance
has approved the request and that the Legislature has appropriated
funds for a specific project, the director or secretary may enter
into a design-build contract under this section.
   (j) Nothing in this section is intended to affect, expand, alter,
or limit any rights or remedies otherwise available under the law.
  SEC. 123.  Section 15439 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   15439.  (a) The California Health Facilities Authority Fund is
continued in existence in the State Treasury as the California Health
Facilities Financing Authority Fund. All  money 
 moneys  in the fund  is   are 
hereby continuously appropriated to the authority for carrying out
the purposes of this division. The authority may pledge any or all of
the moneys in the fund as security for payment of the principal of,
and interest on, any particular issuance of bonds issued pursuant to
this part, or any particular secured or unsecured loan made pursuant
to subdivision (i), (j), or (s) of Section 15438, or for a grant
awarded pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 15438.7, and, for that
purpose or as necessary or convenient to the accomplishment of any
other purpose of the authority, may divide the fund into separate
accounts. All moneys accruing to the authority pursuant to this part
from whatever source shall be deposited in the fund.
   (b) Subject to the priorities that may be created by the pledge of
particular moneys in the fund to secure any issuance of bonds of the
authority, and subject further to the cost of loans provided by the
authority pursuant to  subdivisions  
subdivision  (i), (j), or (s)
                of Section 15438 and to the cost of grants provided
by the authority pursuant to Section 15438.7, and subject further to
any reasonable costs which may be incurred by the authority in
administering the program authorized by this division, all moneys in
the fund derived from any source shall be held in trust for the
security and payment of bonds of the authority and shall not be used
or pledged for any other purpose so long as the bonds are outstanding
and unpaid. However, nothing in this section shall limit the power
of the authority to make loans with the proceeds of bonds in
accordance with the terms of the resolution authorizing the same.
   (c) Pursuant to any agreements with the holders of particular
bonds pledging any particular assets, revenues, or moneys, the
authority may create separate accounts in the fund to manage assets,
revenues, or moneys in the manner set forth in the agreements.
   (d) The authority may, from time to time, direct the State
Treasurer to invest moneys in the fund that are not required for its
current needs, including proceeds from the sale of any bonds, in the
eligible securities specified in Section 16430 as the agency shall
designate. The authority may direct the State Treasurer to deposit
moneys in interest-bearing accounts in state or national banks or
other financial institutions having principal offices in this state.
The authority may alternatively require the transfer of moneys in the
fund to the Surplus Money Investment Fund for investment pursuant to
Article 4 (commencing with Section 16470) of Chapter 3 of Part 2 of
Division 4. All interest or other increment resulting from an
investment or deposit shall be deposited in the fund, notwithstanding
Section 16305.7. Moneys in the fund shall not be subject to transfer
to any other fund pursuant to any provision of Part 2 (commencing
with Section 16300) of Division 4, excepting the Surplus Money
Investment Fund.
   (e) All moneys accruing to the authority from whatever source
shall be deposited in the fund.
  SEC. 124.  Section 18929.96 of the Government Code is amended and
renumbered to read:
    18929.96.   19829.96.   (a)
Notwithstanding Section 13340, for the 2011-12 fiscal year, if the
 2011-12  Budget Act  of 2011  is not
enacted by July 1, 2011, for the memoranda of understanding entered
into between the state employer and State Bargaining Unit 1, 3, 4,
11, 14, 15, 17, 20, or 21 (each effective July 1, 2010, to July 1,
2013, inclusive), there is hereby continuously appropriated to the
Controller from the General Fund, unallocated special funds,
including, but not limited to, federal funds and unallocated
nongovernmental cost funds, and any other fund from which state
employees are compensated, the amount necessary for the payment of
compensation and employee benefits to state employees covered by the
above memoranda of understanding until the  2011-12 
Budget Act  of 2011  is enacted. The Controller may expend
an amount no greater than necessary to enable the Controller to
compensate state employees covered by the above memoranda of
understanding for work performed between July 1, 2011, of the 2011-12
fiscal year and the enactment of the  2011-12 
Budget Act  of 2011  .
   (b) If the memoranda of understanding entered into between the
state employer and State Bargaining Unit 1, 3, 4, 11, 14, 15, 17, 20,
or 21 (each effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2013, inclusive), are
in effect and approved by the Legislature, the compensation and
contribution for employee benefits for state employees represented by
these bargaining units shall be at a rate consistent with the
applicable memorandum of understanding referenced above.
   (c) Expenditures related to any warrant drawn pursuant to
subdivision (a) are not augmentations to the expenditure authority of
a department. Upon the enactment of the  2011-12 
Budget Act  of 2011  , these expenditures shall be subsumed
by the expenditure authority approved in the  2011-12
 Budget Act  of 2011  for each affected department.

   (d) This section shall only apply to an employee covered by the
terms of the State Bargaining Unit 1, 3, 4, 11, 14, 15, 17, 20, or 21
memoranda of understanding (each effective July 1, 2010, to July 1,
2013, inclusive). Notwithstanding Section 3517.8, this section shall
not apply after the term of the memorandum of understanding has
expired. For purposes of this section, the memorandum of
understanding for each unit expires on July 1, 2013.
  SEC. 125.  Section 19829.7 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 6 of Chapter 162 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:

   19829.7.  (a) Notwithstanding Section 13340, for the 2010-11
fiscal year, if the  2010-11  Budget Act  of
2010  is not enacted by July 1, 2010, for the memoranda of
understanding entered into between the state employer and State
Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010, to July 3, 2013,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 12 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 16
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19 (effective July 1, 2010, to
July 1, 2012, inclusive), there is hereby continuously appropriated
to the Controller from the General Fund, unallocated special funds,
including, but not limited to, federal funds and unallocated
nongovernmental cost funds, and any other fund from which state
employees are compensated, the amount necessary for the payment of
compensation and employee benefits to state employees covered by the
above memoranda of understanding until the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  is enacted. The Controller may expend
an amount no greater than necessary to enable the Controller to
compensate state employees covered by the above memoranda of
understanding for work performed between July 1, 2010, of the 2010-11
fiscal year and the enactment of the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  .
   (b) If the memoranda of understanding entered into between the
state employer and State Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010,
to July 3, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8 (effective July
1, 2010, to July 1, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 12
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 16 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2012, inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive) are in effect and approved by the
Legislature, the compensation and contribution for employee benefits
for state employees represented by these bargaining units shall be at
a rate consistent with the applicable memorandum of understanding
referenced above.
   (c) Expenditures related to any warrant drawn pursuant to
subdivision (a) are not augmentations to the expenditure authority of
a department. Upon enactment of the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  , these expenditures shall be subsumed
by the expenditure authority approved in the  2010-11
 Budget Act  of 2010  for each affected department.

   (d) This section shall only apply to an employee covered by the
terms of the State Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010, to July
3, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8  , 
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2013, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 12 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 16 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2012, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive) memoranda of
understanding. Notwithstanding Section 3517.8, this section shall not
apply after the term of the memorandum of understanding expires. For
purposes of this section, the memorandum of understanding for State
Bargaining Unit 5 expires on July 3, 2013, the memorandum of
understanding for State Bargaining Unit 8 expires on July 1, 2013,
the memorandum of understanding for State Bargaining Unit 12 expires
on July 1, 2012, the memorandum of understanding for State Bargaining
Unit 16 expires on July 1, 2012, the memorandum of understanding for
State Bargaining Unit 18 expires on July 1, 2012, and the memorandum
of understanding for State Bargaining Unit 19 expires on July 1,
2012.
  SEC. 126.  Section 19829.7 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 6 of Chapter 163 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:

   19829.7.  (a) Notwithstanding Section 13340, for the 2010-11
fiscal year, if the  2010-11  Budget Act  of
2010  is not enacted by July 1, 2010, for the memoranda of
understanding entered into between the state employer and State
Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010, to July 3, 2013,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 12 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 16
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19 (effective July 1, 2010, to
July 1, 2012, inclusive), there is hereby continuously appropriated
to the Controller from the General Fund, unallocated special funds,
including, but not limited to, federal funds and unallocated
nongovernmental cost funds, and any other fund from which state
employees are compensated, the amount necessary for the payment of
compensation and employee benefits to state employees covered by the
above memoranda of understanding until the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  is enacted. The Controller may expend
an amount no greater than necessary to enable the Controller to
compensate state employees covered by the above memoranda of
understanding for work performed between July 1, 2010, of the 2010-11
fiscal year and the enactment of the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  .
   (b) If the memoranda of understanding entered into between the
state employer and State Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010,
to July 3, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8 (effective July
1, 2010, to July 1, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 12
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 16 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2012, inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive) are in effect and approved by the
Legislature, the compensation and contribution for employee benefits
for state employees represented by these bargaining units shall be at
a rate consistent with the applicable memorandum of understanding
referenced above.
   (c) Expenditures related to any warrant drawn pursuant to
subdivision (a) are not augmentations to the expenditure authority of
a department. Upon enactment of the  2010-11 
Budget Act  of 2010  , these expenditures shall be subsumed
by the expenditure authority approved in the  2010-11
 Budget Act  of 2010  for each affected department.

   (d) This section shall only apply to an employee covered by the
terms of the State Bargaining Unit 5 (effective July 3, 2010, to July
3, 2013, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 8  , 
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2013, inclusive), State
Bargaining Unit 12 (effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012,
inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 16 (effective July 1, 2010, to July
1, 2012, inclusive), State Bargaining Unit 18 (effective July 1,
2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive), and State Bargaining Unit 19
(effective July 1, 2010, to July 1, 2012, inclusive) memoranda of
understanding. Notwithstanding Section 3517.8, this section shall not
apply after the term of the memorandum of understanding expires. For
purposes of this section, the memorandum of understanding for State
Bargaining Unit 5 expires on July 3, 2013, the memorandum of
understanding for State Bargaining Unit 8 expires on July 1, 2013,
the memorandum of understanding for State Bargaining Unit 12 expires
on July 1, 2012, the memorandum of understanding for State Bargaining
Unit 16 expires on July 1, 2012, the memorandum of understanding for
State Bargaining Unit 18 expires on July 1, 2012, and the memorandum
of understanding for State Bargaining Unit 19 expires on July 1,
2012.
  SEC. 127.  Section 20037.14 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 11 of Chapter 162 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   20037.14.  (a) Notwithstanding Sections 20035 and 20037, final
compensation for a person who is employed by the state for the first
time and becomes a state member of the system on or after October 31,
2010, and is represented by State Bargaining  Units
  Unit  5 or 8, means the highest average annual
compensation earnable by the member during the consecutive 36-month
period immediately preceding the effective date of his or her
retirement, or the date of his or her last separation from state
service if earlier, or during any other period of 36 consecutive
months during his or her state membership that the member designates
on the application for retirement.
   (b) This section applies to service credit accrued while a member
of State Bargaining Unit 5 or 8 or in a class related to State
Bargaining Unit 5 or 8 as an employee who is excepted from the
definition of "state employee" in subdivision (c) of Section 3513, or
an officer or employee of the executive branch of state government
who is not a member of the civil service.
   (c) This section does not apply to:
   (1) Former state employees previously employed before October 31,
2010, who return to state employment on or after October 31, 2010.
   (2) State employees hired prior to October 31, 2010, who were
subject to Section 20281.5 during the first 24 months of state
employment.
   (3) State employees hired prior to October 31, 2010, who become
subject to representation by State Bargaining Unit 5 or 8 on or after
October 31, 2010.
   (4) State employees on an approved leave of absence employed
before October 31, 2010, who return to active employment on or after
October 31, 2010.
  SEC. 128.  Section 21369.2 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 21 of Chapter 162 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   21369.2.  (a) The combined prior and current service pension for a
state safety member, upon retirement after attaining the age of 55
years, is a pension derived from contributions of an employer
sufficient, when added to that portion of the service retirement
annuity that is derived from the accumulated normal contributions of
the member at the date of his or her retirement, to equal
one-fiftieth of his or her final compensation multiplied by the
number of years of state safety  service  , that is credited
to him or her as a state safety member subject to this section at
retirement.
   (b) Upon retirement for service prior to attaining the age of 55
years, the percentage of final compensation payable for each year of
credited service that is subject to this section shall be the product
of 2 percent multiplied by the factor set forth in the following
table for his or her actual age at retirement:
   Age at
  Retirement                         Fraction
   50 ..........................      0.713
   50 1/4.......................      0.725
   50 1/2.......................      0.737
   50 3/4.......................      0.749
   51 ..........................      0.761
   51 1/4.......................      0.775
   51 1/2.......................      0.788
   51 3/4.......................      0.801
   52 ..........................      0.814
   52 1/4.......................      0.828
   52 1/2.......................      0.843
   52 3/4.......................      0.857
   53 ..........................      0.871
   53 1/4.......................      0.886
   53 1/2.......................      0.902
   53 3/4.......................      0.917
   54 ..........................      0.933
   54 1/4.......................      0.950
   54 1/2.......................      0.966
   54 3/4.......................      0.983
   55 ..........................      1.0000
   55 1/4.......................      1.0125
   55 1/2.......................      1.0250
   55 3/4.......................      1.0375
   56 ..........................      1.0500
   56 1/4.......................      1.0625
   56 1/2.......................      1.0750
   56 3/4.......................      1.0875
   57 ..........................      1.1000
   57 1/4.......................      1.1125
   57 1/2.......................      1.1250
   57 3/4.......................      1.1375
   58 ..........................      1.1500
   58 1/4.......................      1.1625
   58 1/2.......................      1.1750
   58 3/4.......................      1.1875
   59 ..........................      1.2000
   59 1/4.......................      1.2125
   59 1/2.......................      1.2250
   59 3/4.......................      1.2375
   60 and over .................      1.2500


   (c) In no event shall the total pension for all service under this
section exceed an amount that, when added to the service retirement
annuity related to that service, equals 80 percent of final
compensation. If the pension relates to service to more than one
employer and would otherwise exceed that maximum, the pension payable
with respect to each employer shall be reduced in the same
proportion as the allowance based on service to that employer bears
to the total allowance computed as though there were no limit, so
that the total of those pensions shall equal the maximum. Where a
state member has service under this section with both state and local
agency employers, the higher maximum shall apply and the additional
benefit shall be funded by increasing the member's pension payable
with respect to the employer for whom the member performed the
service subject to the higher maximum.
   (d) The Legislature reserves, with respect to any member subject
to this section, the right to provide for the adjustment of
industrial disability retirement allowances because of earnings of a
retired person and modification of the conditions and qualifications
required for retirement for disability as it may find appropriate
because of the earlier age of service retirement made possible by the
benefits under this section.
   (e) This section shall apply to a state safety member who is
employed by the state for the first time and becomes a state safety
member of the system on or after the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this section, and is represented by
State Bargaining Unit 12, 16, 18, or 19. With respect to related
state safety members in managerial, supervisory, or confidential
positions and officers or employees of the executive branch of state
government who are not members of the civil service, the Director of
the Department of Personnel Administration may exercise his or her
discretion whether to approve their status in writing to the board.
   (f) This section does not apply to:
   (1) Former state employees previously employed before the first
day of the pay period following the effective date of this
subdivision, who return to state employment on or after the first day
of the pay period following the effective date of this subdivision.
   (2) State employees hired prior to the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this subdivision, who were subject
to Section 20281.5 during the first 24 months of state employment.
   (3) State employees hired prior to the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this subdivision, who become subject
to representation by State Bargaining Unit 12, 16, 18, or 19 on or
after the first day of the pay period following the effective date of
this subdivision.
   (4) State employees on an approved leave of absence employed
before the first day of the pay period following the effective date
of this subdivision, who return to active employment on or after the
first day of the pay period following the effective date of this
subdivision.
  SEC. 129.  Section 21369.2 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 21 of Chapter 163 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   21369.2.  (a) The combined prior and current service pension for a
state safety member, upon retirement after attaining the age of 55
years, is a pension derived from contributions of an employer
sufficient, when added to that portion of the service retirement
annuity that is derived from the accumulated normal contributions of
the member at the date of his or her retirement, to equal
one-fiftieth of his or her final compensation multiplied by the
number of years of state safety  service  , that is credited
to him or her as a state safety member subject to this section at
retirement.
   (b) Upon retirement for service prior to attaining the age of 55
years, the percentage of final compensation payable for each year of
credited service that is subject to this section shall be the product
of 2 percent multiplied by the factor set forth in the following
table for his or her actual age at retirement:
   Age at
  Retirement                         Fraction
   50 ..........................      0.713
   50 1/4.......................      0.725
   50 1/2.......................      0.737
   50 3/4.......................      0.749
   51 ..........................      0.761
   51 1/4.......................      0.775
   51 1/2.......................      0.788
   51 3/4.......................      0.801
   52 ..........................      0.814
   52 1/4.......................      0.828
   52 1/2.......................      0.843
   52 3/4.......................      0.857
   53 ..........................      0.871
   53 1/4.......................      0.886
   53 1/2.......................      0.902
   53 3/4.......................      0.917
   54 ..........................      0.933
   54 1/4.......................      0.950
   54 1/2.......................      0.966
   54 3/4.......................      0.983
   55 ..........................      1.0000
   55 1/4.......................      1.0125
   55 1/2.......................      1.0250
   55 3/4.......................      1.0375
   56 ..........................      1.0500
   56 1/4.......................      1.0625
   56 1/2.......................      1.0750
   56 3/4.......................      1.0875
   57 ..........................      1.1000
   57 1/4.......................      1.1125
   57 1/2.......................      1.1250
   57 3/4.......................      1.1375
   58 ..........................      1.1500
   58 1/4.......................      1.1625
   58 1/2.......................      1.1750
   58 3/4.......................      1.1875
   59 ..........................      1.2000
   59 1/4.......................      1.2125
   59 1/2.......................      1.2250
   59 3/4.......................      1.2375
   60 and over .................      1.2500


   (c) In no event shall the total pension for all service under this
section exceed an amount that, when added to the service retirement
annuity related to that service, equals 80 percent of final
compensation. If the pension relates to service to more than one
employer and would otherwise exceed that maximum, the pension payable
with respect to each employer shall be reduced in the same
proportion as the allowance based on service to that employer bears
to the total allowance computed as though there were no limit, so
that the total of those pensions shall equal the maximum. Where a
state member has service under this section with both state and local
agency employers, the higher maximum shall apply and the additional
benefit shall be funded by increasing the member's pension payable
with respect to the employer for whom the member performed the
service subject to the higher maximum.
   (d) The Legislature reserves, with respect to any member subject
to this section, the right to provide for the adjustment of
industrial disability retirement allowances because of earnings of a
retired person and modification of the conditions and qualifications
required for retirement for disability as it may find appropriate
because of the earlier age of service retirement made possible by the
benefits under this section.
   (e) This section shall apply to a state safety member who is
employed by the state for the first time and becomes a state safety
member of the system on or after the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this section, and is represented by
State Bargaining Unit 12, 16, 18, or 19. With respect to related
state safety members in managerial, supervisory, or confidential
positions and officers or employees of the executive branch of state
government who are not members of the civil service, the Director of
the Department of Personnel Administration may exercise his or her
discretion whether to approve their status in writing to the board.
   (f) This section does not apply to:
   (1) Former state employees previously employed before the first
day of the pay period following the effective date of this
subdivision, who return to state employment on or after the first day
of the pay period following the effective date of this subdivision.
   (2) State employees hired prior to the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this subdivision, who were subject
to Section 20281.5 during the first 24 months of state employment.
   (3) State employees hired prior to the first day of the pay period
following the effective date of this subdivision, who become subject
to representation by State Bargaining Unit 12, 16, 18, or 19 on or
after the first day of the pay period following the effective date of
this subdivision.
   (4) State employees on an approved leave of absence employed
before the first day of the pay period following the effective date
of this subdivision, who return to active employment on or after the
first day of the pay period following the effective date of this
subdivision.
  SEC. 130.  Section 22874.1 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   22874.1.  (a) Notwithstanding Sections 22870, 22871, 22873, and
22874  ,  a state employee, defined by subdivision (c) of
Section 3513, who is employed by the state for the first time, and
who is represented by State Bargaining Unit 12, who becomes a state
member of the system on or after January 1, 2011, may not receive any
portion of the employer contribution payable for annuitants unless
the person is credited with 15 years of state service at the time of
retirement.
                   (b) The percentage of the employer contribution
payable for postretirement health benefits for an employee subject to
this section shall be based on the completed years of credited state
service at retirement as shown in the following table:
                              Credited Years
Years of Service             Percentage
Contribution
                              of Employer
                              Contribution
15.......................... 50
16.......................... 55
17.......................... 60
18.......................... 65
19.......................... 70
20.......................... 75
21.......................... 80
22.......................... 85
23.......................... 90
24.......................... 95
25 or more.................. 100


   (c) This section shall apply only to state employees who retire
for service. For purposes of this section, "state service" means
service rendered as an employee of the state or an appointed or
elected officer of the state for compensation. Notwithstanding
Section 22826, for purposes of this section, credited state service
includes service to the state for which the employee, pursuant to
Section 20281.5, did not receive credit.
   (d) This section does not apply to:
   (1) Former state employees previously employed before January 1,
2011, who return to state employment on or after January 1, 2011.
   (2) State employees hired prior to January 1, 2011, who were
subject to Section 20281.5 during the first 24 months of state
employment.
   (3) State employees hired prior to January 1, 2011, who become
subject to representation by State Bargaining Unit 12 on or after
January 1, 2011.
   (4) State employees on an approved leave of absence employed
before January 1, 2011, who return to active employment on or after
January 1, 2011.
   (5) State employees hired after January 1, 2011, who are first
represented by a state bargaining unit other than State Bargaining
Unit 12.
   (6) Employees of the California State University, the judicial
branch, or the Legislature.
   (e) Notwithstanding Section 22875, this section shall also apply
to a related state employee who is excepted from the definition of
"state employee" in subdivision (c) of Section 3513, and an officer
or employee of the executive branch of state government who is not a
member of the civil service who met the requirements of this section
when employed by the state for the first time.
  SEC. 131.  Section 56853.6 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   56853.6.  (a) In the case of an accelerated reorganization,
notwithstanding any provision of this division or the Recreation and
Park District Law (Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 5780) of
Division 5 of the Public Resources Code), unless the governing body
of the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District files a resolution
of objection with the El Dorado County Local Agency Formation
Commission before the close of the hearing held pursuant to Section
56666, the commission may approve, disapprove, or conditionally
approve, the accelerated reorganization. If the commission approves
or conditionally approves the accelerated reorganization, the
commission shall order the accelerated reorganization without an
election.
   (b) If the governing body of the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement
District files a resolution of objection with the commission before
the close of the hearing held pursuant to Section 56666, the
commission shall disapprove the proposed accelerated reorganization.
   (c) The commission may order any material change to the terms and
conditions of the accelerated reorganization set forth in the
proposal. The commission shall direct the executive officer to give
the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District mailed notice of any
change prior to ordering a change. The commission shall not, without
the written consent of the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement
District, take any further action on the accelerated reorganization
for 30 days following that mailing.
   (d) A proposal for an accelerated reorganization shall include
proposed terms and conditions that shall include, but are not limited
to, all of the following:
   (1) The proposed recreation and park district is declared to be,
and shall be deemed, a recreation and park district as if the
district had been formed pursuant to the Recreation and Park District
Law (Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 5780) of Division 5 of the
Public Resources Code). The exterior boundary and sphere of influence
of the proposed recreation and park district shall be the exterior
boundary and sphere of influence of the Tahoe Paradise Resort
Improvement District.
   (2) The proposed recreation and park district succeeds to, and is
vested with, the same powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations,
liabilities, and jurisdiction of the Tahoe Paradise Resort
Improvement District.
   (3) The status, position, and rights of any officer or employee of
the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District shall not be affected
by the transfer and shall be retained by the person as an officer or
employee of the proposed recreation and park district.
   (4) The proposed recreation and park district shall have
ownership, possession, and control of all books, records, papers,
offices, equipment, supplies, moneys, funds, appropriations,
licenses, permits, entitlements, agreements, contracts, claims,
judgments, land, and other assets and property, real or personal,
owned or leased by, connected with the administration of, or held for
the benefit or use of, the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement
District.
   (5) The unexpended balance as of the effective date of the
accelerated reorganization of any funds available for use by the
Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District shall be available for use
by the proposed recreation and park district.
   (6) No payment for the use, or right of use, of any property, real
or personal, acquired or constructed by the Tahoe Paradise Resort
Improvement District shall be required by reason of the succession
pursuant to the accelerated reorganization, nor shall any payment for
the proposed recreation and park district's acquisition of the
powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations, liabilities, and
jurisdiction be required by reason of that succession.
   (7) All ordinances, rules, and regulations adopted by the Tahoe
Paradise Resort Improvement District in effect immediately preceding
the effective date of the accelerated reorganization  ,
 shall remain in effect and shall be fully enforceable
unless amended or repealed by the proposed recreation and park
district, or until they expire by their own terms. Any statute, law,
rule, or regulation in force as of the effective date of the
accelerated reorganization, or that may be enacted or adopted with
reference to the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District shall
mean the proposed recreation and park district.
   (8) All allocations of shares of property tax revenue pursuant to
Part 0.5 (commencing with Section 50) of the Revenue and Taxation
Code, special taxes, benefit assessments, fees, charges, or any other
impositions of the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District shall
remain in effect unless amended or repealed by the proposed
recreation and park district, or they expire by their own terms.
   (9) The appropriations limit established pursuant to Division 9
(commencing with Section 7900) of Title 1  of  
for  the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District shall be the
appropriations limit of the proposed recreation and park district.
   (10) Any action by or against the Tahoe Paradise Resort
Improvement District shall not abate, but shall continue in the name
of the proposed recreation and park district, and the proposed
recreation and park district shall be substituted for the Tahoe
Paradise Resort Improvement District by the court in which the action
is pending. The substitution shall not in any way affect the rights
of the parties to the action.
   (11) No contract, lease, license, permit, entitlement, bond, or
any other agreement to which the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement
District is a party shall be void or voidable by reason of the
enactment of the accelerated reorganization, but shall continue in
effect, with the proposed recreation and park district assuming all
of the rights, obligations, liabilities, and duties of the Tahoe
Paradise Resort Improvement District.
   (12) Any obligations, including, but not limited to, bonds and
other indebtedness, of the Tahoe Paradise Resort Improvement District
shall be the obligations of the proposed recreation and park
district. Any continuing obligations or responsibilities of the Tahoe
Paradise Resort Improvement District for managing and maintaining
bond issuances shall be transferred to the proposed recreation and
park district without impairment to any security contained in the
bond instrument.
   (e) As used in this section, "accelerated reorganization" means a
reorganization that consists solely of the dissolution of the Tahoe
Paradise Resort Improvement District and the formation of a
recreation and park district.
   (f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 2,
2018, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 132.  Section 63049.67 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   63049.67.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this
division, a financing of emergency apportionments upon the request of
a school district pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section
41329.50) of Chapter 3 of Part 24 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the
Education Code, is deemed to be in the public interest and eligible
for financing by the bank. Article 3 (commencing with Section 63040),
Article 4 (commencing with Section 63042)  ,  and Article 5
(commencing with Section 63043) do not apply to the financing
provided by the bank in connection with an emergency apportionment.
   (b) The bank may issue bonds pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing
with Section 63070) and provide the proceeds to a school district
pursuant to a lease agreement. The proceeds may be used as an
emergency apportionment, to reimburse the interim emergency
apportionment from the General Fund authorized pursuant to
subdivision (b) of Section 41329.52 of the Education Code, or to
refund bonds previously issued under this section. Bond proceeds may
also be used to fund necessary reserves, capitalized interest, credit
enhancement costs, and costs of issuance.
   (c) Bonds issued under this article are not deemed to constitute a
debt or liability of the state or of any political subdivision of
the state, other than a limited obligation of the bank, or a pledge
of the faith and credit of the state or of any political subdivision.
All bonds issued under this article shall contain on the face of the
bonds a statement to the same effect.
   (d) Any fund or account established in connection with the bonds
shall be established outside of the centralized treasury system.
Notwithstanding any other law, the bank shall select the financing
team and the trustee for the bonds, and the trustee shall be a
corporation or banking association authorized to exercise corporate
trust powers.
   (e) Pursuant to Section 41329.55 of the Education Code, a school
district other than the Compton Community College District shall
instruct the Controller to repay the lease from moneys in the State
School Fund designated for apportionment to the school district.
Pursuant to Section 41329.55, if the school district is the Compton
Community College District, the Controller shall be instructed to
repay the lease from moneys in Section B of the State School Fund.
Any amounts necessary to make this repayment shall be drawn from the
total statewide funding available for community college apportionment
consisting of funds in Section B of the State School Fund.
Thereafter the Controller shall transfer to Section B of the State
School Fund, either in a single or multiple transfers, an amount
equal to the total repayment, which amount shall be transferred from
the amount designated for apportionment to the Compton Community
College District from the State School Fund. If these transfers from
the district prove inadequate to repay any repayments for any reason,
the Compton Community College District is required to use any
revenue sources available to it for transfer and repayment purposes.
   (f) Notwithstanding any other law, as long as any bonds issued
pursuant to this section are outstanding, the following requirements
apply:
   (1) The school district for which the bonds were issued is not
eligible to be a debtor in a case under Chapter 9 of the United
States Bankruptcy Code, as it may be amended from time to time, and
no governmental officer or organization is or may be empowered to
authorize the school district to be a debtor under that chapter.
   (2) It is the intent of the Legislature that the Legislature
should not in the future abolish the Compton Community College
District or take any action that would prevent the Compton Community
College from entering into or performing binding agreements or
invalidate any prior binding agreements of the Compton Community
College District, where invalidation may have a material adverse
effect on the bonds issued pursuant to this section.
   (3) The Compton Community College District shall not be
reorganized or merged with another community college district unless
all of the following apply:
   (A) The successor district becomes by operation of law the owner
of all property previously owned by the Compton Community College
District.
   (B) Any agreement entered into by the Compton Community College
District in connection with bonds issued pursuant to this section are
assumed by the successor district.
   (C) The apportionment authorized by subdivision (e) remains in
effect.
   (D) Receipt by the bank of an opinion of bond counsel that the
bonds issued for the Compton Community College District will remain
tax exempt following the reorganization or merger.
   (g) Nothing in this section limits the authority of the
Legislature to abolish the Compton Community College District when
bonds issued for that district are no longer outstanding. Further,
the Legislature may provide for the redemption or defeasance of the
bonds at any time so that no bonds are outstanding. If the
Legislature provides for the redemption or defeasance of the bonds
issued for the Compton Community College District in order to abolish
that district, it is the intent of the Legislature that the funds
required for the redemption or defeasance should be appropriated from
Section B of the State School Fund.
   (h) The bank may enter into contracts or agreements with banks,
insurers, or other financial institutions or parties that it
determines are necessary or desirable to improve the security and
marketability of, or to manage interest rates or other risks
associated with, the bonds issued pursuant to this section. The bank
may pledge apportionments made by the Controller directly to the bond
trustee pursuant to Section 41329.55 of the Education Code as
security for repayment of any obligation owed to a bank, insurer, or
other financial institution pursuant to this subdivision.
  SEC. 133.  Section 66484 of the Government Code is amended to read:

   66484.  (a) A local ordinance may require the payment of a fee as
a condition of approval of a final map or as a condition of issuing a
building permit for purposes of defraying the actual or estimated
cost of constructing bridges over waterways, railways, freeways, and
canyons, or constructing major thoroughfares. The ordinance may
require payment of fees pursuant to this section if all of the
following requirements are satisfied:
   (1) The ordinance refers to the circulation element of the general
plan and, in the case of bridges, to the transportation or flood
control provisions thereof that identify railways, freeways, streams,
or canyons for which bridge crossings are required on the general
plan or local roads and in the case of major thoroughfares, to the
provisions of the circulation element that identify those major
thoroughfares whose primary purpose is to carry through traffic and
provide a network connecting to the state highway system, if the
circulation element, transportation or flood control provisions have
been adopted by the local agency 30 days prior to the filing of a map
or application for a building permit.
   (2) The ordinance provides that there will be a public hearing
held by the governing body for each area benefited. Notice shall be
given pursuant to Section 65091 and shall include preliminary
information related to the boundaries of the area of benefit,
estimated cost, and the method of fee apportionment. The area of
benefit may include land or improvements in addition to the land or
improvements that are the subject of any map or building permit
application considered at the proceedings.
   (3) The ordinance provides that at the public hearing the
boundaries of the area of benefit, the costs, whether actual or
estimated, and a fair method of allocation of costs to the area of
benefit and fee apportionment are established. The method of fee
apportionment, in the case of major thoroughfares, shall not provide
for higher fees on land that abuts the proposed improvement except
where the abutting property is provided direct usable access to the
major thoroughfare. A description of the boundaries of the area of
benefit, the costs, whether actual or estimated, and the method of
fee apportionment established at the hearing shall be incorporated in
a resolution of the governing body, a certified copy of which shall
be recorded by the governing body conducting the hearing with the
recorder of the county in which the area of benefit is located. The
apportioned fees shall be applicable to all property within the area
of benefit and shall be payable as a condition of approval of a final
map or as a condition of issuing a building permit for the property
or portions of the property. Where the area of benefit includes lands
not subject to the payment of fees pursuant to this section, the
governing agency shall make provision for payment of the share of
improvement costs apportioned to those lands from other sources.
   (4) The ordinance provides that payment of fees shall not be
required unless the major thoroughfares are in addition to, or a
reconstruction of, any existing major thoroughfares serving the area
at the time of the adoption of the boundaries of the area of benefit.

   (5) The ordinance provides that payment of fees shall not be
required unless the planned bridge facility is an original bridge
serving the area or an addition to any existing bridge facility
serving the area at the time of the adoption of the boundaries of the
area of benefit. The fees shall not be expended to reimburse the
cost of existing bridge facility construction.
   (6) The ordinance provides that if, within the time when protests
may be filed under the provisions of the ordinance, there is a
written protest, filed with the clerk of the legislative body, by the
owners of more than one-half of the area of the property to be
benefited by the improvement, and sufficient protests are not
withdrawn so as to reduce the area represented to less than one-half
of that to be benefited, then the proposed proceedings shall be
abandoned, and the legislative body shall not, for one year from the
filing of that written protest, commence or carry on any proceedings
for the same improvement or acquisition under  the provisions
of  this section.
   (b) Any protest may be withdrawn by the owner protesting, in
writing, at any time prior to the conclusion of a public hearing held
pursuant to the ordinance.
   (c) If any majority protest is directed against only a portion of
the improvement, then all further proceedings under the provisions of
this section to construct that portion of the improvement so
protested against shall be barred for a period of one year, but the
legislative body may commence new proceedings not including any part
of the improvement or acquisition so protested against. Nothing in
this section prohibits a legislative body, within that one-year
period, from commencing and carrying on new proceedings for the
construction of a portion of the improvement so protested against if
it finds, by the affirmative vote of four-fifths of its members, that
the owners of more than one-half of the area of the property to be
benefited are in favor of going forward with that portion of the
improvement or acquisition.
   (d) Nothing in this section precludes the processing and
recordation of maps in accordance with other provisions of this
division if the proceedings are abandoned.
   (e) Fees paid pursuant to an ordinance adopted pursuant to this
section shall be deposited in a planned bridge facility or major
thoroughfare fund. A fund shall be established for each planned
bridge facility project or each planned major thoroughfare project.
If the benefit area is one in which more than one bridge or major
thoroughfare is required to be constructed, a fund may be so
established covering all of the bridge and major thoroughfare
projects in the benefit area.  Money   Moneys
 in the fund shall be expended solely for the construction or
reimbursement for construction of the improvement or improvements
serving the area to be benefited and from which the fees comprising
the fund were collected, or to reimburse the local agency for the
cost of constructing the improvement or improvements.
   (f) An ordinance adopted pursuant to this section may provide for
the acceptance of considerations in lieu of the payment of fees.
   (g) A local agency imposing fees pursuant to this section may
advance money from its general fund or road fund to pay the cost of
constructing the improvements and may reimburse the general fund or
road fund for any advances from planned bridge facility or major
thoroughfares funds established to finance the construction of those
improvements.
   (h) A local agency imposing fees pursuant to this section may
incur an interest-bearing indebtedness for the construction of bridge
facilities or major thoroughfares. However, the sole security for
repayment of that indebtedness shall be moneys in planned bridge
facility or major thoroughfares funds.
   (i) (1) The term "construction," as used in this section, includes
design, acquisition of rights-of-way, administration of construction
contracts, and actual construction.
   (2) The term "construction," as used in this section, with respect
to the unincorporated areas of San Diego County and Los Angeles
County only, includes design, acquisition of rights-of-way, and
actual construction, including, but not limited to, all direct and
indirect environmental, engineering, accounting, legal,
administration of construction contracts, and other services
necessary therefor. The term "construction," with respect to the
unincorporated areas of San Diego County and Los Angeles County only,
also includes reasonable administrative expenses, not exceeding
three hundred thousand dollars ($300,000) in any calendar year after
January 1, 1986, as adjusted annually for any increase or decrease in
the Consumer Price Index of the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the
United States Department of Labor for  all   All
 Urban Consumers, San Diego, California (1967 = 100), and Los
Angeles-Long Beach-Anaheim, California (1967 = 100), respectively, as
published by the United States Department of Commerce for the
purpose of constructing bridges and major thoroughfares.
"Administrative expenses" means those office, personnel, and other
customary and normal expenses associated with the direct management
and administration of the agency, but not including costs of
construction.
   (3) The term "construction," as used in this section, with respect
to Los Angeles County only, shall have the same meaning as in
paragraph (2) in either of the following circumstances:
   (A) The area of benefit includes, and all of the bridge and major
thoroughfare project improvements lie within, both a city or a
portion of a city and adjacent portions of unincorporated area.
   (B) All of the area of benefit and all of the bridge and major
thoroughfare project improvements lie completely within the
boundaries of a city.
   (j) Nothing in this section precludes a county or city from
providing funds for the construction of bridge facilities or major
thoroughfares to defray costs not allocated to the area of benefit.
  SEC. 134.  Section 72011 of the Government Code, as added by
Section 24 of Chapter 720 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   72011.  (a) For each fee received for providing telephone
appearance services, each vendor or court that provides for
appearances by telephone shall transmit twenty dollars ($20) to the
State Treasury for deposit in the Trial Court Trust Fund established
pursuant to Section 68085. If the vendor or court receives a portion
of the fee as authorized under paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of
Section 367.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the vendor or court
shall transmit only the proportionate share of the amount required
under this section. This section shall apply regardless of whether
the Judicial Council has established the statewide uniform fee
pursuant to Section 367.6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or entered
into one or more master agreements pursuant to Section 72010  of
this co   de  . This section shall not apply when a
vendor or court does not receive a fee.
   (b) The amounts described in subdivision (a) shall be transmitted
within 15 days after the end of each calendar quarter for fees
collected in that quarter.
   (c) Vendors shall also transmit an amount equal to the total
amount of revenue received by all courts from all vendors for
providing telephonic appearances for the 2009-10 fiscal year.
   (d) The  amounts   amount  set forth in
subdivision (c) shall be apportioned by the Judicial Council among
the vendors with which the Judicial Council has a master agreement
pursuant to Section 72010. Within 15 days of receiving notice from
the Judicial Council of its apportioned amount, each vendor shall
transmit that amount to the State Treasury for deposit in the Trial
Court Trust Fund.
   (e) The Judicial Council shall allocate the amount collected
pursuant to subdivisions (c) and (d) for the purpose of preventing
significant disruption in services in courts that previously received
revenues from vendors for providing telephone appearance services.
The Judicial Council shall determine the method and amount of the
allocation to each eligible court.
                                   (f) This section shall become
inoperative on July 1, 2013, and, as of January 1, 2014, is repealed,
unless a later enacted statute, that becomes operative on or before
January 1, 2014, deletes or extends the dates on which it becomes
inoperative and is repealed.
  SEC. 135.  Section 76000.10 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   76000.10.  (a) This section shall be known, and may be cited, as
the Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act.
   (b) For purposes of this section:
   (1) "Department" means the State Department of Health Care
Services.
   (2) "Director" means the Director of  the State Department
of  Health Care Services.
   (3) "Provider" means a provider of emergency medical air
transportation services.
   (4) "Rotary wing" means a type of aircraft, commonly referred to
as a helicopter, that generates lift through the use of wings, known
as rotor blades, that revolve around a mast.
   (5) "Fixed wing" means a type of aircraft, commonly referred to as
an airplane, that generates lift through the use of the forward
motion of the aircraft and wings that do not revolve around a mast
but are fixed in relation to the fuselage of the aircraft.
   (6) "Air mileage rate" means the per-mileage reimbursement rate
paid for services rendered by rotary-wing and fixed-wing providers.
   (c) (1) For the purpose of implementing this section, a penalty of
four dollars ($4) shall be imposed upon every conviction for a
violation of the Vehicle Code or a local ordinance adopted pursuant
to the Vehicle Code, except parking offenses subject to Article 3
(commencing with Section 40200) of Chapter 1 of Division 17 of the
Vehicle Code.
   (2) The penalty described in this subdivision shall be in addition
to the state penalty assessed pursuant to Section 1464 of the Penal
Code. However, this penalty shall not be included in the base fine
used to calculate the state penalty assessment pursuant to
subdivision (a) of Section 1464 of the Penal Code, the state
surcharge levied pursuant to Section 1465.7 of the Penal Code,
Section 70372 of the Government Code, and to calculate the other
additional penalties levied pursuant to this chapter.
   (d) The county board of supervisors shall establish in the county
treasury an emergency medical air transportation act fund into which
shall be deposited the moneys collected pursuant to this section.
Moneys in each county's fund, including interest and dividends earned
thereon, shall be held by the county treasurer separate from funds
subject to transfer or division pursuant to Section 1463 of the Penal
Code.
   (e) (1) Within 30 days following the last day of each calendar
quarter of the year, the county treasurer shall transfer moneys in
the county's emergency medical air transportation act fund to the
Controller for deposit into the Emergency Medical Air Transportation
Act Fund, which is hereby established in the State Treasury.
Notwithstanding Section 16305.7, the Emergency Medical Air
Transportation Act Fund shall include interest and dividends earned
on money in the fund. Prior to the transfer of funds from the county'
s emergency medical air transportation act fund to the state, the
county treasurer may withhold a sufficient amount from the fund to
reimburse the county and the courts for their actual, reasonable, and
necessary costs associated with administering this section. To the
extent moneys are withheld by the county treasurer, an accounting
report detailing these costs shall be sent to the department at least
once per calendar year.
   (2) The Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act Fund shall be
administered by the State Department of Health Care Services. Moneys
in the Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act Fund shall be made
available, upon appropriation by the Legislature, to the department
to be used as follows:
   (A) For payment of the administrative costs of the department in
administering this section.
   (B) Twenty percent of the fund remaining after payment of
administrative costs pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be used to
offset the state portion of the Medi-Cal reimbursement rate for
emergency medical air transportation services.
   (C) Eighty percent of the fund remaining after payment of
administrative costs pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be used, to
augment emergency medical air transportation reimbursement payments
made through the Medi-Cal program, as set forth in paragraphs (3) and
(4).
   (3) (A) The department shall seek to obtain federal matching funds
by using the moneys in the Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act
Fund for the purpose of augmenting Medi-Cal reimbursement paid to
emergency medical air transportation providers.
   (B) The director shall do all of the following:
   (i) By March 1, 2011, meet with medical air transportation
providers to determine the most appropriate methodology to distribute
the funds for medical air services.
   (ii) Implement the methodology determined most appropriate in a
timely manner.
   (iii) Develop the methodology in collaboration with the medical
air providers.
   (iv) Submit any state plan amendments or waiver requests that may
be necessary to implement this section.
   (v) Submit any state plan amendment or waiver request that may be
necessary to implement this section.
   (vi) Seek federal approvals or waivers as may be necessary to
implement this section and to obtain federal financial participation
to the maximum extent possible for the payments under this section.
If federal approvals are not received, moneys in the fund may be
distributed pursuant to this section until federal approvals are
received.
   (C) The director may give great weight to the needs of the
emergency medical air services providers, as discussed through the
development of the methodology.
   (4) (A) Upon appropriation by the Legislature, the department
shall use moneys in the Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act Fund
and any federal matching funds to increase the Medi-Cal
reimbursement for emergency medical air transportation services in an
amount not to exceed normal and customary charges charged by the
providers.
   (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and pursuant to
this section, the department shall increase the Medi-Cal
reimbursement for emergency medical air transportation services
provided that both of the following conditions are met:
   (i) Moneys in the Emergency Medical Air Transportation Act Fund
will cover the cost of increased payments pursuant to subparagraph
(A).
   (ii) The state does not incur any General Fund expense to pay for
the Medi-Cal emergency medical air transportation services increase.

   (e) 
    (f)  The assessment of penalties pursuant to this
section shall terminate commencing January 1, 2016. Penalties
assessed prior to January 1, 2016, shall continue to be collected,
administered, and distributed pursuant to this section until
exhausted or until June 30, 2017, whichever occurs first. On June 30,
2017, moneys remaining unexpended and unencumbered in the Emergency
Medical Air Transportation Act Fund shall be transferred to the
General Fund, to be available, upon appropriation by the Legislature,
for the purposes of augmenting Medi-Cal reimbursement for emergency
medical air transportation and related costs, generally. 
   (f) 
    (g)  Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of
Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division
 3 of Title  2  of the Government Code  ,
the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this
section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan amendments
by means of  all county   all-county 
letters, plan letters, plan or provider bulletins, or similar
instructions without taking regulatory action. 
   (g) 
    (h)  This section shall remain in effect only until
January 1, 2018, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later
enacted statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or
extends that date.
  SEC. 136.  Section 100521 of the Government Code is amended to
read:
   100521.  (a) The board shall ensure that the establishment,
operation, and administrative functions of the Exchange do not exceed
the combination of federal funds, private donations, and other
non-General Fund moneys available for this purpose. No state General
Fund  money   moneys  shall be used for any
purpose under this title without a subsequent appropriation. No
liability incurred by the Exchange or any of its officers or
employees may be satisfied using moneys from the General Fund.
   (b) The implementation of the provisions of this title, other than
this section, Section 100500, and paragraphs (4) and (5) of
subdivision (a) of Section 100504, shall be contingent on a
determination by the board that sufficient financial resources exist
or will exist in the fund. The determination shall be based on at
least the following:
   (1) Financial projections identifying that sufficient resources
exist or will exist in the fund to implement the Exchange.
   (2) A comparison of the projected resources available to support
the Exchange and the projected costs of activities required by this
title  . 
   (3) The financial projections demonstrate the sufficiency of
resources for at least the first two years of operation under this
title  . 
   (c) The board shall provide notice to the Joint Legislative Budget
Committee and the Director of Finance that sufficient financial
resources exist in the fund to implement this title.
   (d) If the board determines that the level of resources in the
fund cannot support the actions and responsibilities described in
subdivision (a), it shall provide the Department of Finance and the
Joint Legislative Budget Committee a detailed report on the changes
to the functions, contracts, or staffing necessary to address the
fiscal deficiency along with any contingency plan should it be
impossible to operate the Exchange without the use of General Fund
moneys.
   (e) The board shall assess the impact of the Exchange's operations
and policies on other publicly funded health programs administered
by the state and the impact of publicly funded health programs
administered by the state on the Exchange's operations and policies.
This assessment shall include, at a minimum, an analysis of potential
cost shifts or cost increases in other programs that may be due to
Exchange policies or operations. The assessment shall be completed on
at least an annual basis and submitted to the Secretary of 
California  Health and Human Services and the Director of
Finance.
  SEC. 137.  The heading of Article 10 (commencing with former
Section 58300) of Chapter 1 of Division 1 of Title 6 of the
Government Code is repealed. 

      Article 10.  Dissolution


  SEC. 138.  Section 1150 of the Harbors and Navigation Code is
amended to read:
   1150.  (a) There is in the Business, Transportation and Housing
Agency a Board of Pilot Commissioners for the Bays of San Francisco,
San Pablo, and Suisun, consisting of seven members appointed by the
Governor, with the consent of the Senate, as follows:
   (1) Two members shall be pilots licensed pursuant to this
division.
   (2) Two members shall represent the industry and shall be persons
currently engaged as owners, officers, directors, employees, or
representatives of a firm or association of firms that is a
substantial user of pilotage service in the Bay of San Francisco, San
Pablo, Suisun, or Monterey, one of whom shall be engaged in the
field of tanker company operations, and one of whom shall be engaged
in dry cargo operations. The board of directors of a regional
maritime trade association controlled by West Coast vessel operators
that specifically represents the owners and operators of vessels or
barges engaged in transportation by water of cargo or passengers from
or to the Pacific area of the United States shall nominate, rank,
and submit to the Governor the names of three persons for each
category of industry member to be appointed.
   (3) Three members shall be public members. Any person may serve as
a public member unless otherwise prohibited by law, except that
during his or her term of office or within the two years preceding
his or her appointment,  no   a  public
member appointed  may   shall not  have (A)
any financial or proprietary interest in the ownership, operation,
or management of tugs, cargo, or passenger vessels, (B) sailed under
the authority of a federal or state pilot license in waters under the
jurisdiction of the board, (C) been employed by a company that is a
substantial user of pilot services, or (D) been a consultant or other
person providing professional services who had received more than 20
percent in the aggregate of his or her income from a company that is
a substantial user of pilot services or an association of companies
that are substantial users of pilot services. Ownership of less than
one-tenth of 1 percent of the stock of a publicly traded corporation
is not a financial or proprietary interest in the ownership of tugs,
cargo, or passenger vessels.
   (4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, this chapter does
not prohibit the Governor from notifying the nominating authority
identified in paragraph (2) that persons nominated are unacceptable
for appointment. Following that notification, the nominating
authority shall submit a new list of nominees to the Governor, naming
three persons, none of whom were previously nominated, from which
the Governor may make the appointment. This process shall be
continued until a person nominated by the nominating authority and
satisfactory to the Governor has been appointed.
   (b) Members appointed pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be
appointed with staggered terms as follows:
   (1) Each of the members appointed pursuant to paragraphs (1) and
(2) of subdivision (a) shall be appointed for a four-year term,
except that the first member appointed after December 31, 2012, to an
initial term pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall be
appointed to a term expiring on December 31, 2014, and the first
member appointed after December 31, 2012, to an initial term pursuant
to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be appointed to a term
expiring on December 31, 2014.
   (2) Members appointed pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a)
shall be appointed with staggered four-year terms with the initial
four-year terms expiring on December 31 of the years 1988, 1990, and
1991, respectively.
   (3) A person  may   shall  not be
appointed for more than two terms.
   (4) Vacancies on the board for both expired and unexpired terms
shall be filled by the appointing power in the manner prescribed by
subdivision (a).
   (c) A quorum of the board members consists of four members. All
actions of the board shall require the vote of four members, a quorum
being present.
   (d) The Secretary of  the  Business,
Transportation and Housing  Agency  shall serve as
an ex officio member of the board who, without vote, may exercise all
other privileges of a member of the board.
  SEC. 139.  Section 1357.51 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   1357.51.  (a)  No plan contract that covers three or more
enrollees shall exclude coverage for any individual on the basis of a
preexisting condition provision for a period greater than six months
following the individual's effective date of coverage. Preexisting
condition provisions contained in plan contracts may relate only to
conditions for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment,
including use of prescription drugs, was recommended or received from
a licensed health practitioner during the six months immediately
preceding the effective date of coverage.
   (b) No plan contract that covers one or two individuals shall
exclude coverage on the basis of a preexisting condition provision
for a period greater than 12 months following the individual's
effective date of coverage, nor shall the plan limit or exclude
coverage for a specific enrollee by type of illness, treatment,
medical condition, or accident, except for satisfaction of a
preexisting condition clause pursuant to this article. Preexisting
condition provisions contained in plan contracts may relate only to
conditions for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment,
including use of prescription drugs, was recommended or received from
a licensed health practitioner during the 12 months immediately
preceding the effective date of coverage.
   (c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a plan contract for group
coverage shall not impose any preexisting condition provision upon
any child under 19 years of age.
   (2) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), a plan contract for
individual coverage that is not a grandfathered health  plan
 within the meaning of Section 1251 of the federal Patient
Protection and Affordable Care Act  (Public Law 
 (P.L.  111-148) shall not impose any preexisting condition
provision upon any child under 19 years of age.
   (d) A plan that does not utilize a preexisting condition provision
may impose a waiting or affiliation period not to exceed 60 days,
before the coverage issued subject to this article shall become
effective. During the waiting or affiliation period, the plan is not
required to provide health care services and no premium shall be
charged to the subscriber or enrollee.
   (e) A plan that does not utilize a preexisting condition provision
in plan contracts that cover one or two individuals may impose a
contract provision excluding coverage for waivered conditions. No
plan may exclude coverage on the basis of a waivered condition for a
period greater than 12 months following the individual's effective
date of coverage. A waivered condition provision contained in plan
contracts may relate only to conditions for which medical advice,
diagnosis, care, or treatment, including use of prescription drugs,
was recommended or received from a licensed health practitioner
during the 12 months immediately preceding the effective date of
coverage.
   (f) In determining whether a preexisting condition provision, a
waivered condition provision, or a waiting or affiliation period
applies to any enrollee, a plan shall credit the time the enrollee
was covered under creditable coverage, provided that the enrollee
becomes eligible for coverage under the succeeding plan contract
within 62 days of termination of prior coverage, exclusive of any
waiting or affiliation period, and applies for coverage under the
succeeding plan within the applicable enrollment period. A plan shall
also credit any time that an eligible employee must wait before
enrolling in the plan, including any postenrollment or
employer-imposed waiting or affiliation period.
   However, if a person's employment has ended, the availability of
health coverage offered through employment or sponsored by an
employer has terminated, or an employer's contribution toward health
coverage has terminated, a plan shall credit the time the person was
covered under creditable coverage if the person becomes eligible for
health coverage offered through employment or sponsored by an
employer within 180 days, exclusive of any waiting or affiliation
period, and applies for coverage under the succeeding plan contract
within the applicable enrollment period.
   (g) No plan shall exclude late enrollees from coverage for more
than 12 months from the date of the late enrollee's application for
coverage. No plan shall require any premium or other periodic charge
to be paid by or on behalf of a late enrollee during the period of
exclusion from coverage permitted by this subdivision.
   (h) A health care service plan issuing group coverage may not
impose a preexisting condition exclusion upon a condition relating to
benefits for pregnancy or maternity care.
   (i) An individual's period of creditable coverage shall be
certified pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 2701 of Title XXVII
of the federal Public Health Services Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 300gg(e)).
  SEC. 140.  Section 1365 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to
read:
   1365.  (a) An enrollment or a subscription shall not be canceled
or not renewed except for the following reasons:
   (1) (A) For nonpayment of the required premiums by the individual,
employer, or contractholder if the individual, employer, or
contractholder has been duly notified and billed for the charge and
at least a 30-day grace period has elapsed since the date of
notification or, if longer, the period of time required for notice
and any other requirements pursuant to Section 2703, 2712, or 2742 of
the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Secs. 300gg-2,
300gg-12, and 300gg-42) and any subsequent rules or regulations has
elapsed.
   (B) Pursuant to subparagraph (A), a health care service plan shall
continue to provide coverage as required by the individual's,
employer's, or contractholder's health care service plan contract
during the period described in subparagraph (A).
   (2) The plan demonstrates fraud or an intentional
misrepresentation of material fact under the terms of the health care
service plan contract by the individual contractholder or employer.
   (3) In the case of an individual health care service plan
contract, the individual subscriber no longer resides, lives, or
works in the plan's service area, but only if the coverage is
terminated uniformly without regard to any health status-related
factor of covered individuals.
   (4) In the case of a group health care service plan contract,
violation of a material contract provision relating to employer
contribution or group participation rates by the  , 
contractholder  ,  or employer.
   (5) If the plan ceases to provide or arrange for the provision of
health  benefit   benefits  for new health
care service plan contracts in the individual or group market, or all
markets, in this state, provided, however, that the following
conditions are satisfied:
   (A) Notice of the decision to cease new or existing health benefit
plans in the state is provided to the director  and to
  ,  the individual or group contractholder or
employer, and the enrollees covered under those contracts, at least
180 days prior to discontinuation of those contracts.
   (B) Health benefit plans shall not be canceled for 180 days after
the date of the notice required under subparagraph (A) and  ,
 for that business of a plan that remains in force, any plan
that ceases to offer for sale new health benefit plans shall continue
to be governed by this section with respect to business conducted
under this section.
   (C) Except as authorized under subdivision (b) of Section 1357.09
and Section 1357.10, a plan that ceases to write new health benefit
plans in the individual or group market, or all markets, in this
state shall be prohibited from offering for sale health benefit plans
in that market or markets in this state for a period of five years
from the date of the discontinuation of the last coverage not so
renewed.
   (6) If the plan withdraws a health benefit plan from the market,
provided that all of the following conditions are satisfied:
   (A) The plan notifies all affected subscribers, contractholders,
employers, and enrollees and the director at least 90 days prior to
the discontinuation of the plan.
   (B) The plan makes available to the individual or group
contractholder or employer all health benefit plans that it makes
available to new individual or group business, respectively.
   (C) In exercising the option to discontinue a health benefit plan
under this paragraph and in offering the option of coverage under
subparagraph (B), the plan acts uniformly without regard to the
claims experience of the individual or contractholder or employer, or
any  health-status related   health status-
  related  factor relating to enrollees or potential
enrollees.
   (D) For small employer health care service plan contracts offered
under Article 3.1 (commencing with Section 1357), the premium for the
new plan contract complies with the renewal increase requirements
set forth in Section 1357.12. This subparagraph shall not apply after
December 31, 2013.
   (7) In the case of a group health benefit plan, if an individual
or employer ceases to be a member of a guaranteed association, as
defined in subdivision (n) of Section 1357, but only if that coverage
is terminated under this paragraph uniformly without regard to any
health status-related factor relating to any enrollee.
   (b) (1) An enrollee or subscriber who alleges that an enrollment
or subscription has been or will be improperly canceled, rescinded,
or not renewed may request a review by the director pursuant to
Section 1368.
   (2) If the director determines that a proper complaint exists, the
director shall notify the plan and the enrollee or subscriber who
requested the review.
   (3) If, after review, the director determines that the
cancellation, rescission, or failure to renew is contrary to existing
law, the director shall order the plan to reinstate the enrollee or
subscriber. Within 15 days after receipt of that order, the health
care service plan shall request a hearing or reinstate the enrollee
or subscriber.
   (4) If an enrollee or subscriber requests a review of the health
care service plan's determination to cancel or rescind or failure to
renew the enrollee's or subscriber's health care service plan
contract pursuant to this section, the health care service plan shall
continue to provide coverage to the enrollee or subscriber under the
terms of the contract until a final determination of the enrollee's
or subscriber's request for review has been made by the director.
This paragraph shall not apply if the health care service plan
cancels or does not renew the enrollee's or subscriber's health care
service plan contract for nonpayment of premiums pursuant to
paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
   (5) A reinstatement pursuant to this subdivision shall be
retroactive to the time of cancellation, rescission, or failure to
renew and the plan shall be liable for the expenses incurred by the
subscriber or enrollee for covered health care services from the date
of cancellation, rescission, or nonrenewal to and including the date
of reinstatement. The health care service plan shall reimburse the
enrollee or subscriber for any expenses incurred pursuant to this
paragraph within 30 days of receipt of the completed claim.
   (c) This section shall not abrogate any preexisting contracts
entered into prior to the effective date of this chapter between a
subscriber or enrollee and a health care service plan or a
specialized health care service plan  ,  including, but not
limited to, the financial liability of the plan, except that each
plan shall, if directed to do so by the director, exercise its
authority, if any, under those preexisting contracts
                                  to conform them to  the
provisions of  existing law.
   (d) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" means any
individual or group insurance policy or health care service plan
contract that provides medical, hospital, and surgical benefits. The
term does not include accident only, credit, or disability income
coverage, coverage of Medicare services pursuant to contracts with
the United States government, Medicare supplement  insurance
  coverage  , long-term care insurance, dental or
vision coverage, coverage issued as a supplement to liability
insurance, insurance arising out of workers' compensation law or
similar law, automobile medical payment insurance, or insurance under
which benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and that
is statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance
policy or equivalent self-insurance.
   (e) On or before July 1, 2011, the director may issue guidance to
health care service plans regarding compliance with this section and
that guidance shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure
Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). Any guidance issued
pursuant to this subdivision shall only be effective through December
31, 2013, or until the director adopts and effects regulations
pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, whichever occurs first.

  SEC. 141.  Section 1367.002 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   1367.002.  To the extent required by federal law, a group or
individual health care service plan contract issued, amended,
renewed, or delivered on or after September 23, 2010, shall comply
with Section 2713 of the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C.
Sec. 300gg-13)  , as added by Section 1001 of the federal
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (P.L. 111-148),  and
any rules or regulations issued under that section.
  SEC. 142.  Section 1385.01 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   1385.01.  For purposes of this article, the following definitions
shall apply:
   (a) "Large group health care service plan contract" means a group
health care service plan contract other than a contract issued to a
small employer, as defined in Section 1357.
   (b) "Small group health care service plan contract" means a group
health care service plan contract issued to a small employer, as
defined in Section 1357.
   (c) "PPACA" means Section 2794 of the federal Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec.  300gg-14)  
300gg-94)  , as amended by the federal Patient Protection and
Affordable Care Act  (P. L.   (P.L. 
111-48), and any subsequent rules, regulations, or guidance issued
under that section.
   (d) "Unreasonable rate increase" has the same meaning as that term
is defined in PPACA.
  SEC. 143.  Section 1399.834 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   1399.834.  (a) All health care service plan contracts offered to a
child or on behalf of a child to a responsible party for a child
shall conform to the requirements of Sections  1365, 
1366.3,  1365,  and 1373.6  ,  and shall be
renewable at the option of the enrollee or responsible party for a
child on behalf of the enrollee except as permitted to be canceled,
rescinded, or not renewed pursuant to Section 1365.
   (b) Any plan that ceases to offer for sale new individual health
care service plan contracts pursuant to Section 1365 shall continue
to be governed by this article with respect to business conducted
under this article.
   (c) Except as authorized under Section 1399.833, a plan that, as
of the effective date of this article, does not write new health care
service plan contracts for children in this state or that, after the
effective date of this article, ceases to write new health care
service plan contracts for children in this state shall be prohibited
from offering for sale new individual health care service plan
contracts in this state for a period of five years from the date of
notice to the director.
  SEC. 144.  Section 1399.835 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   1399.835.  On or before July 1, 2011, the director may issue
guidance to health plans regarding compliance with this article and
that guidance shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure
Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government  Code  
Code)  . The guidance shall only be effective until the director
and the Insurance Commissioner adopt joint regulations pursuant to
the Administrative Procedure Act.
  SEC. 145.  Section 1506 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to
read:
   1506.  (a) (1) Any holder of a valid license issued by the
department that authorizes the licensee to engage in foster family
agency functions  ,  may use only a certified family
home that has been certified by that agency or a licensed foster
family home approved for this use by the licensing county pursuant to
Section 1506.5.
   (2) Any home selected and certified for the reception and care of
children by that licensee shall not, during the time it is certified
and used only by that agency for these placements or care, be subject
to Section 1508. A certified family home may not be concurrently
licensed as a foster family home or as any other licensed residential
facility.
   (3) A child with a developmental disability who is placed in a
certified family home by a foster family agency that is operating
under agreement with the regional center responsible for that child
may remain in the certified family home after the age of 18 years.
The determination regarding whether and how long he or she may remain
as a resident after the age of 18 years shall be made through the
agreement of all parties involved, including the resident, the foster
parent, the foster family agency social worker, the resident's
regional center case manager, and the resident's parent, legal
guardian, or conservator, as appropriate. This determination shall
include a needs and service plan that contains an assessment of the
child's needs to ensure continued compatibility with the other
children in placement. The needs and service plan shall be completed
no more than six months prior to the child's 18th birthday. The
assessment shall be documented and maintained in the child's file
with the foster family agency.
   (b) (1) A foster family agency shall certify to the department
that the home has met the department's licensing standards. A foster
family agency may require a family home to meet additional standards
or be compatible with its treatment approach.
   (2) The foster family agency shall issue a certificate of approval
to the certified family home upon its determination that it has met
the standards established by the department and before the placement
of any child in the home. The certificate shall be valid for a period
not to exceed one year. The annual recertification shall require a
certified family home to complete at least 12 hours of structured
applicable training or continuing education. At least one hour of
training during the first six months following initial certification
shall be dedicated to meeting the requirements of paragraph (1) of
subdivision (b) of Section 11174.1 of the Penal Code.
   (3) If the agency determines that the home no longer meets the
standards, it shall notify the department and the local placing
agency.
   (c) The department shall develop licensing regulations
differentiating between foster family agencies that provide treatment
of children in foster families and those that provide nontreatment
services.
   (d) As used in this chapter, "certified family home" means a
family residence certified by a licensed foster family agency and
issued a certificate of approval by that agency as meeting licensing
standards, and used only by that foster family agency for placements.

   (e) (1) Requirements for social work personnel for a foster family
agency shall be a master's degree from an accredited or 
state approved   state-   approved 
graduate school in social work or social welfare, or equivalent
education and experience, as determined by the  state
 department.
   (2) Persons who possess a master's degree from an accredited or
 state approved   state-approved  graduate
school in any of the following areas, or equivalent education and
experience, as determined by the  state  department,
shall be considered to be qualified to perform social work
activities in a foster family agency:
   (A) Marriage, family, and child counseling.
   (B) Child psychology.
   (C) Child development.
   (D) Counseling psychology.
   (E) Social psychology.
   (F) Clinical psychology.
   (G) Educational psychology, consistent with the scope of practice
as described in Section  4986.10   4989.14 
of the Business and Professions Code.
   (H) Education, with emphasis on counseling.
   (f) (1) In addition to the degree specifications in subdivision
(e), all of the following coursework and field practice or
experience, as defined in departmental regulations, shall be required
of all new hires for the position of social work personnel effective
January 1, 1995:
   (A) At least three semester units of field practice at the master'
s level or six months' full-time equivalent experience in a public or
private social service agency setting.
   (B) At least nine semester units of coursework related to human
development or human behavior, or, within the first year of
employment, experience working with children and families as a major
responsibility of the position under the supervision of a supervising
social worker.
   (C) At least three semester units in working with minority
populations or six months of experience in working with minority
populations or training in cultural competency and working with
minority populations within the first six months of employment as a
condition of employment.
   (D) At least three semester units in child welfare or at least six
months of experience in a public or private child welfare social
services setting for a nonsupervisory social worker. A supervising
social worker shall have two years' experience in a public or private
child welfare social services setting.
   (2) (A) Persons who do not meet the requirements specified in
subdivision (e) or (f) may apply for an exception as provided for in
subdivisions (g) and (h).
   (B) Exceptions granted by the department prior to January 1, 1995,
shall remain in effect.
   (3) (A) Persons who are hired as social work personnel on or after
January 1, 1995, who do not meet the requirements listed in this
subdivision shall be required to successfully meet those requirements
in order to be employed as social work personnel in a foster family
agency.
   (B) Employees who were hired prior to January 1, 1995, shall not
be required to meet the requirements of this subdivision in order to
remain employed as social work personnel in a foster family agency.
   (4) Coursework and field practice or experience completed to
fulfill the degree requirements of subdivision (e) may be used to
satisfy the requirements of this subdivision.
   (g) Individuals seeking an exception to the requirements of
subdivision (e) or (f) based on completion of equivalent education
and experience shall apply to the department by the process
established by the department.
   (h) The  State Department of Social Services 
 department  shall be required to complete the process for
the exception to minimum education and experience requirements
described in subdivisions (e) and (f) within 30 days of receiving the
exception application of social work personnel or supervising social
worker qualifications from the foster family agency.
   (i) The department shall review the feasibility of instituting a
licensure category to cover foster homes that are established
specifically to care for and supervise adults with developmental
disabilities, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 4512 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code, to prevent the institutionalization of
those individuals.
   (j) For purposes of this section, "social work personnel" means
supervising social workers as well as nonsupervisory social workers.
  SEC. 146.  Section 1777 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to
read:
   1777.  (a)  The Continuing Care Advisory Committee of the
department shall act in an advisory capacity to the department on
matters relating to continuing care contracts.
   (b) The members of the committee shall include:
   (1) Three representatives of nonprofit continuing care providers
pursuant to this chapter, each of whom shall have offered continuing
care services for at least five years prior to appointment. One
member shall represent a multifacility provider and shall be
appointed by the Governor in even years. One member shall be
appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules in odd years. One member
shall be appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly in odd years.
   (2) Three senior citizens who are not eligible for appointment
pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (4) who shall represent consumers of
continuing care services, all of whom shall be residents of
continuing care retirement communities but not residents of the same
provider. One senior citizen member shall be appointed by the
Governor in even years. One senior citizen member shall be appointed
by the Senate Committee on Rules in odd years. One senior citizen
member shall be appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly in odd
years.
   (3) A certified public accountant with experience in the
continuing care industry, who is not a provider of continuing care
services. This member shall be appointed by the Governor in even
years.
   (4) A representative of a for-profit provider of continuing care
contracts pursuant to this chapter. This member shall be appointed by
the Governor in even years.
   (5) An actuary. This member shall be appointed by the Governor in
even years.
   (6) One representative of residents of continuing care retirement
communities appointed by the senior citizen representatives on the
committee.
   (7) One representative of either nonprofit or for-profit providers
appointed by the representatives of nonprofit and 
for-provider   for-profit  providers on the
committee.
   (c) Commencing January 1, 1997, all members shall serve two-year
terms and be appointed based on their interest and expertise in the
subject area. The Governor shall designate the chairperson for the
committee with the advice and consent of the Senate. A member may be
reappointed at the pleasure of the appointing power. The appointing
power shall fill all vacancies on the committee within 60 days. All
members shall continue to serve until their successors are appointed
and qualified.
   (d) The members of the committee shall serve without compensation,
except that each member shall be paid from the Continuing Care
Provider Fee Fund a per diem of twenty-five dollars ($25) for each
day's attendance at a meeting of the committee not to exceed six days
in any month. The members of the committee shall also receive their
actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the course of their
duties. Reimbursement of travel expenses shall be at rates not to
exceed those applicable to comparable state employees under
Department of Personnel Administration regulations.
   (e) Prior to commencement of service, each member shall file with
the department a statement of economic interest and a statement of
conflict of interest pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section
87300) of the Government Code.
   (f) If, during the period of appointment, any member no longer
meets the qualifications of subdivision (b), that member shall submit
his or her resignation to their appointing power and a qualified new
member shall be appointed by the same power to fulfill the remainder
of the term.
   (g) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2013, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2013, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 147.  Section 1788 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to
read:
   1788.  (a) A continuing care contract shall contain all of the
following:
   (1) The legal name and address of each provider.
   (2) The name and address of the continuing care retirement
community.
   (3) The resident's name and the identity of the unit the resident
will occupy.
   (4) If there is a transferor other than the resident, the
transferor shall be a party to the contract and the transferor's name
and address shall be specified.
   (5) If the provider has used the name of any charitable or
religious or nonprofit organization in its title before January 1,
1979, and continues to use that name, and that organization is not
responsible for the financial and contractual obligations of the
provider or the obligations specified in the continuing care
contract, the provider shall include in every continuing care
contract a conspicuous statement that clearly informs the resident
that the organization is not financially responsible.
   (6) The date the continuing care contract is signed by the
resident and, where applicable, any other transferor.
   (7) The duration of the continuing care contract.
   (8) A list of the services that will be made available to the
resident as required to provide the appropriate level of care. The
list of services shall include the services required as a condition
for licensure as a residential care facility for the elderly,
including all of the following:
   (A) Regular observation of the resident's health status to ensure
that his or her dietary needs, social needs, and needs for special
services are satisfied.
   (B) Safe and healthful living accommodations, including
housekeeping services and utilities.
   (C) Maintenance of house rules for the protection of residents.
   (D) A planned activities program, which includes social and
recreational activities appropriate to the interests and capabilities
of the resident.
   (E) Three balanced, nutritious meals and snacks made available
daily, including special diets prescribed by a physician as a medical
necessity.
   (F) Assisted living services.
   (G) Assistance with taking medications.
   (H) Central storing and distribution of medications.
   (I) Arrangements to meet health needs, including arranging
transportation.
   (9) An itemization of the services that are included in the
monthly fee and the services that are available at an extra charge.
The provider shall attach a current fee schedule to the continuing
care contract.
   (10) The procedures and conditions under which a resident may be
voluntarily and involuntarily transferred from a designated living
unit. The transfer procedures, at a minimum, shall include provisions
addressing all of the following circumstances under which a transfer
may be authorized:
   (A) A continuing care retirement community may transfer a resident
under the following conditions, taking into account the
appropriateness and necessity of the transfer and the goal of
promoting resident independence:
   (i) The resident is nonambulatory. The definition of
"nonambulatory," as provided in Section 13131, shall either be stated
in full in the continuing care contract or be cited. If Section
13131 is cited, a copy of the statute shall be made available to the
resident, either as an attachment to the continuing care contract or
by specifying that it will be provided upon request. If a
nonambulatory resident occupies a room that has a fire clearance for
nonambulatory  residence   residents  ,
transfer shall not be necessary.
   (ii) The resident develops a physical or mental condition that
endangers the health, safety, or well-being of the resident or
another person.
   (iii) The resident's condition or needs require the resident's
transfer to an assisted living care unit or skilled nursing facility,
because the level of care required by the resident exceeds that
which may be lawfully provided in the living unit.
   (iv) The resident's condition or needs require the resident's
transfer to a nursing facility, hospital, or other facility, and the
provider has no facilities available to provide that level of care.
   (B) Before the continuing care retirement community transfers a
resident under any of the conditions set forth in subparagraph (A),
the community shall satisfy all of the following requirements:
   (i) Involve the resident and the resident's responsible person, as
defined in paragraph (6) of subdivision (r) of Section 87101 of
Title 22 of the California Code of Regulations, and upon the resident'
s or responsible person's request, family members, or the resident's
physician or other appropriate health professional, in the assessment
process that forms the basis for the level of care transfer decision
by the provider. The provider shall offer an explanation of the
assessment process. If an assessment tool or tools, including scoring
and evaluating criteria, are used in the determination of the
appropriateness of the transfer, the provider shall make copies of
the completed assessment available upon the request of the resident
or the resident's responsible person.
   (ii) Prior to sending a formal notification of transfer, the
provider shall conduct a care conference with the resident and the
resident's responsible person, and upon the resident's or responsible
person's request, family members, and the resident's health care
professionals, to explain the reasons for transfer.
   (iii) Notify the resident and the resident's responsible person of
the reasons for the transfer in writing.
   (iv) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subparagraph, if
the resident does not have impairment of cognitive abilities, the
resident may request that his or her responsible person not be
involved in the transfer process.
   (v) The notice of transfer shall be made at least 30 days before
the transfer is expected to occur, except when the health or safety
of the resident or other residents is in danger, or the transfer is
required by the resident's urgent medical needs. Under those
circumstances, the written notice shall be made as soon as
practicable before the transfer.
   (vi) The written notice shall contain the reasons for the
transfer, the effective date, the designated level of care or
location to which the resident will be transferred, a statement of
the resident's right to a review of the transfer decision at a care
conference, as provided for in subparagraph (C), and for disputed
transfer decisions, the right to review by the Continuing Care
Contracts Branch of the State Department of Social Services, as
provided for in subparagraph (D). The notice shall also contain the
name, address, and telephone number of the department's Continuing
Care Contracts Branch.
   (vii) The continuing care retirement community shall provide
sufficient preparation and orientation to the resident to ensure a
safe and orderly transfer and to minimize trauma.
   (C) The resident has the right to review the transfer decision at
a subsequent care conference that shall include the resident, the
resident's responsible person, and upon the resident's or responsible
person's request, family members, the resident's physician or other
appropriate health care professional, and members of the provider's
interdisciplinary team. The local ombudsperson may also be included
in the care conference, upon the request of the resident, the
resident's responsible person, or the provider.
   (D) For disputed transfer decisions, the resident or the resident'
s responsible person has the right to a prompt and timely review of
the transfer process by the Continuing Care Contracts Branch of the
State Department of Social Services.
   (E) The decision of the department's Continuing Care Contracts
Branch shall be in writing and shall determine whether the provider
failed to comply with the transfer process pursuant to subparagraphs
(A) to (C), inclusive. Pending the decision of the Continuing Care
Contracts Branch, the provider shall specify any additional care the
provider believes is necessary in order for the resident to remain in
his or her unit. The resident may be required to pay for the extra
care, as provided in the contract.
   (F) Transfer of a second resident when a shared accommodation
arrangement is terminated.
   (11) Provisions describing any changes in the resident's monthly
fee and any changes in the entrance fee refund payable to the
resident that will occur if the resident transfers from any unit,
including, but not limited to, terminating his or her contract after
18 months of residential temporary relocation, as defined in
paragraph (8) of subdivision (r) of Section 1771.
   (12) The provider's continuing obligations, if any, in the event a
resident is transferred from the continuing care retirement
community to another facility.
   (13) The provider's obligations, if any, to resume care upon the
resident's return after a transfer from the continuing care
retirement community.
   (14) The provider's obligations to provide services to the
resident while the resident is absent from the continuing care
retirement community.
   (15) The conditions under which the resident must permanently
release his or her living unit.
   (16) If real or personal properties are transferred in lieu of
cash, a statement specifying each item's value at the time of
transfer, and how the value was ascertained.
   (A) An itemized receipt that includes the information described
above is acceptable if incorporated as a part of the continuing care
contract.
   (B) When real property is or will be transferred, the continuing
care contract shall include a statement that the deed or other
instrument of conveyance shall specify that the real property is
conveyed pursuant to a continuing care contract and may be subject to
rescission by the transferor within 90 days from the date that the
resident first occupies the residential unit.
   (C) The failure to comply with  this  paragraph 
(16)  shall not affect the validity of title to real
property transferred pursuant to this chapter.
   (17) The amount of the entrance fee.
   (18) In the event two parties have jointly paid the entrance fee
or other payment that allows them to occupy the unit, the continuing
care contract shall describe how any refund of entrance fees is
allocated.
   (19) The amount of any processing fee.
   (20) The amount of any monthly care fee.
   (21) For continuing care contracts that require a monthly care fee
or other periodic payment, the continuing care contract shall
include the following:
   (A) A statement that the occupancy and use of the accommodations
by the resident is contingent upon the regular payment of the fee.

(B) The regular rate of payment agreed upon (per day, week, or
month).
   (C) A provision specifying whether payment will be made in advance
or after services have been provided.
   (D) A provision specifying the provider will adjust monthly care
fees for the resident's support, maintenance, board, or lodging, when
a resident requires medical attention while away from the continuing
care retirement community.
   (E) A provision specifying whether a credit or allowance will be
given to a resident who is absent from the continuing care retirement
community or from meals. This provision shall also state, when
applicable, that the credit may be permitted at the discretion or by
special permission of the provider.
   (F) A statement of billing practices, procedures, and timelines. A
provider shall allow a minimum of 14 days between the date a bill is
sent and the date payment is due. A charge for a late payment may
only be assessed if the amount and any condition for the penalty is
stated on the bill.
   (22) All continuing care contracts that include monthly care fees
shall address changes in monthly care fees by including either of the
following provisions:
   (A) For prepaid continuing care contracts, which include monthly
care fees, one of the following methods:
   (i) Fees shall not be subject to change during the lifetime of the
agreement.
   (ii) Fees shall not be increased by more than a specified number
of dollars in any one year and not more than a specified number of
dollars during the lifetime of the agreement.
   (iii) Fees shall not be increased in excess of a specified
percentage over the preceding year and not more than a specified
percentage during the lifetime of the agreement.
   (B) For monthly fee continuing care contracts, except prepaid
contracts, changes in monthly care fees shall be based on projected
costs, prior year per capita costs, and economic indicators.
   (23) A provision requiring that the provider give written notice
to the resident at least 30 days in advance of any change in the
resident's monthly care fees or in the price or scope of any
component of care or other services.
   (24) A provision indicating whether the resident's rights under
the continuing care contract include any proprietary interests in the
assets of the provider or in the continuing care retirement
community, or both. Any statement in a contract concerning an
ownership interest shall appear in a large-sized font or print.
   (25) If the continuing care retirement community property is
encumbered by a security interest that is senior to any claims the
residents may have to enforce continuing care contracts, a provision
shall advise the residents that any claims they may have under the
continuing care contract are subordinate to the rights of the secured
lender. For equity projects, the continuing care contract shall
specify the type and extent of the equity interest and whether any
entity holds a security interest.
   (26) Notice that the living units are part of a continuing care
retirement community that is licensed as a residential care facility
for the elderly and, as a result, any duly authorized agent of the
department may, upon proper identification and upon stating the
purpose of his or her visit, enter and inspect the entire premises at
any time, without advance notice.
   (27) A conspicuous statement, in at least 10-point boldface type
in immediate proximity to the space reserved for the signatures of
the resident and, if applicable, the transferor, that provides as
follows: "You, the resident or transferor, may cancel the transaction
without cause at any time within 90 days from the date you first
occupy your living unit. See the attached notice of cancellation form
for an explanation of this right."
   (28) Notice that during the cancellation period, the continuing
care contract may be canceled upon 30 days' written notice by the
provider without cause, or that the provider waives this right.
   (29) The terms and conditions under which the continuing care
contract may be terminated after the cancellation period by either
party, including any health or financial conditions.
   (30) A statement that, after the cancellation period, a provider
may unilaterally terminate the continuing care contract only if the
provider has good and sufficient cause.
   (A) Any continuing care contract containing a clause that provides
for a continuing care contract to be terminated for "just cause,"
"good cause," or other similar provision, shall also include a
provision that none of the following activities by the resident, or
on behalf of the resident, constitutes "just cause," "good cause," or
otherwise activates the termination provision:
   (i) Filing or lodging a formal complaint with the department or
other appropriate authority.
   (ii) Participation in an organization or affiliation of residents,
or other similar lawful activity.
   (B) The provision required by this paragraph shall also state that
the provider shall not discriminate or retaliate in any manner
against any resident of a continuing care retirement community for
contacting the department, or any other state, county, or city
agency, or any elected or appointed government official to file a
complaint or for any other reason, or for participation in a
residents' organization or association.
   (C) Nothing in this paragraph diminishes the provider's ability to
terminate the continuing care contract for good and sufficient
cause.
   (31) A statement that at least 90 days' written notice to the
resident is required for a unilateral termination of the continuing
care contract by the provider.
   (32) A statement concerning the length of notice that a resident
is required to give the provider to voluntarily terminate the
continuing care contract after the cancellation period.
   (33) The policy or terms for refunding any portion of the entrance
fee, in the event of cancellation, termination, or death. Every
continuing care contract that provides for a refund of all or a part
of the entrance fee shall also do all of the following:
   (A) Specify the amount, if any, the resident has paid or will pay
for upgrades, special features, or modifications to the resident's
unit.
   (B) State that if the continuing care contract is canceled or
terminated by the provider, the provider shall do both of the
following:
   (i) Amortize the specified amount at the same rate as the resident'
s entrance fee.
   (ii) Refund the unamortized balance to the resident at the same
time the provider pays the resident's entrance fee refund.
   (C) State that the resident has a right to terminate his or her
contract after 18 months of residential temporary relocation, as
defined in paragraph (8) of subdivision (r) of Section 1771.
Provisions for refunds due to cancellation pursuant to this
subparagraph shall be set forth in the contract.
   (34) The following notice at the bottom of the signatory page:
                 ""NOTICE''               (date)


    This   "   This  is a
continuing care contract as defined by paragraph (8) of subdivision
(c), or subdivision (  l  ) of Section 1771 of the
California Health and Safety Code. This continuing care contract form
has been approved by the State Department of Social Services as
required by subdivision (b) of Section 1787 of the California Health
and Safety Code. The basis for this approval was a determination that
(provider name) has submitted a contract that complies with the
minimum statutory requirements applicable to continuing care
contracts. The department does not approve or disapprove any of the
financial or health care coverage provisions in this contract.
Approval by the department is NOT a guaranty of performance or an
endorsement of any continuing care contract provisions. Prospective
transferors and residents are strongly encouraged to carefully
consider the benefits and risks of this continuing care contract and
to seek financial and legal advice before  signing. 
 signing." 
   (35) The provider may not attempt to absolve itself in the
continuing care contract from liability for its negligence by any
statement to that effect, and shall include the following statement
in the contract: "Nothing in this continuing care contract limits
either the provider's obligation to provide adequate care and
supervision for the resident or any liability on the part of the
provider which may result from the provider's failure to provide this
care and supervision."
   (36) Provisions describing how the provider will proceed in the
event of a closure, including an explanation of how the provider will
comply with Sections 1793.80, 1793.81, 1793.82, and 1793.83.
   (b) A life care contract shall also provide that:
   (1) All levels of care, including acute care and physicians' and
surgeons' services  , will be provided to a resident.
   (2) Care will be provided for the duration of the resident's life
unless the life care contract is canceled or terminated by the
provider during the cancellation period or after the cancellation
period for good cause.
   (3) A comprehensive continuum of care will be provided to the
resident, including skilled nursing, in a facility under the
ownership and supervision of the provider on, or adjacent to, the
continuing care retirement community premises.
   (4) Monthly care fees will not be changed based on the resident's
level of care or service.
   (5) A resident who becomes financially unable to pay his or her
monthly care fees shall be subsidized provided the resident's
financial need does not arise from action by the resident to divest
the resident of his or her assets.
   (c) Continuing care contracts may include provisions that do any
of the following:
   (1) Subsidize a resident who becomes financially unable to pay for
his or her monthly care fees at some future date. If a continuing
care contract provides for subsidizing a resident, it may also
provide for any of the following:
   (A) The resident shall apply for any public assistance or other
aid for which he or she is eligible and that the provider may apply
for assistance on behalf of the resident.
   (B) The provider's decision shall be final and conclusive
regarding any adjustments to be made or any action to be taken
regarding any charitable consideration extended to any of its
residents.
   (C) The provider is entitled to payment for the actual costs of
care out of any property acquired by the resident subsequent to any
adjustment extended to the resident under  this  paragraph
 (1)  , or from any other property of the resident
that the resident failed to disclose.
   (D) The provider may pay the monthly premium of the resident's
health insurance coverage under Medicare to ensure that those
payments will be made.
   (E) The provider may receive an assignment from the resident of
the right to apply for and to receive the benefits, for and on behalf
of the resident.
   (F) The provider is not responsible for the costs of furnishing
the resident with any services, supplies, and medication, when
reimbursement is reasonably available from any governmental agency,
or any private insurance.
   (G) Any refund due to the resident at the termination of the
continuing care contract may be offset by any prior subsidy to the
resident by the provider.
   (2) Limit responsibility for costs associated with the treatment
or medication of an ailment or illness existing prior to the date of
admission. In these cases, the medical or surgical exceptions, as
disclosed by the medical entrance examination, shall be listed in the
continuing care contract or in a medical report attached to and made
a part of the continuing care contract.
   (3) Identify legal remedies that may be available to the provider
if the resident makes any material misrepresentation or omission
pertaining to the resident's assets or health.
   (4) Restrict transfer or assignments of the resident's rights and
privileges under a continuing care contract due to the personal
nature of the continuing care contract.
   (5) Protect the provider's ability to waive a resident's breach of
the terms or provisions of the continuing care contract in specific
instances without relinquishing its right to insist upon full
compliance by the resident with all terms or provisions in the
contract.
   (6) Provide that the resident shall reimburse the provider for any
uninsured loss or damage to the resident's unit, beyond normal wear
and tear, resulting from the resident's carelessness or negligence.
   (7) Provide that the resident agrees to observe the off-limit
areas of the continuing care retirement community designated by the
provider for safety reasons. The provider may not include any
provision in a continuing care contract that absolves the provider
from liability for its negligence.
   (8) Provide for the subrogation to the provider of the resident's
rights in the case of injury to a resident caused by the acts or
omissions of a third party, or for the assignment of the resident's
recovery or benefits in this case to the provider, to the extent of
the value of the goods and services furnished by the provider to or
on behalf of the resident as a result of the injury.
   (9) Provide for a lien on any judgment, settlement, or recovery
for any additional expense incurred by the provider in caring for the
resident as a result of injury.
   (10) Require the resident's cooperation and assistance in the
diligent prosecution of any claim or action against any third party.
   (11) Provide for the appointment of a conservator or guardian by a
court with jurisdiction in the event a resident becomes unable to
handle his or her personal or financial affairs.
   (12) Allow a provider, whose property is tax exempt, to charge the
resident, on a pro rata basis, property taxes, or in-lieu taxes,
that the provider is required to pay.
   (13) Make any other provision approved by the department.
   (d) A copy of the resident's rights as described in Section 1771.7
shall be attached to every continuing care contract.
   (e) A copy of the current audited financial statement of the
provider shall be attached to every continuing care contract. For a
provider whose current audited financial statement does not
accurately reflect the financial ability of the provider to fulfill
the continuing care contract obligations, the financial statement
attached to the continuing care contract shall include all of the
following:
   (1) A disclosure that the reserve requirement has not yet been
determined or met, and that entrance fees will not be held in escrow.

   (2) A disclosure that the ability to provide the services promised
in the continuing care contract will depend on successful compliance
with the approved financial plan.
   (3) A copy of the approved financial plan for meeting the reserve
requirements.
   (4) Any other supplemental statements or attachments necessary to
accurately represent the provider's financial ability to fulfill its
continuing care contract obligations.
   (f) A schedule of the average monthly care fees charged to
residents for each type of residential living unit for each of the
five years preceding execution of the continuing care contract shall
be attached to every continuing care contract. The provider shall
update this schedule annually at the end of each fiscal year. If the
continuing care retirement community has not been in existence for
five years, the information shall be provided for each of the years
the continuing care retirement community has been in existence.
   (g) If any continuing care contract provides for a health
insurance policy for the benefit of the resident, the provider shall
attach to the continuing care contract a binder complying with
Sections 382 and 382.5 of the Insurance Code.
   (h) The provider shall attach to every continuing care contract a
completed form in duplicate, captioned "Notice of Cancellation." The
notice shall be easily detachable, and shall contain, in at least
10-point boldface type, the following statement:
       ""NOTICE OF CANCELLATION''          (date)
Your first date of occupancy       under this
contract
is: _____________________________________________


   "You may cancel this transaction, without any penalty within 90
calendar days from the above date.
   If you cancel, any property transferred, any payments made by you
under the contract, and any negotiable instrument executed by you
will be returned within 14 calendar days after making possession of
the living unit available to the provider. Any security interest
arising out of the transaction will be canceled.
   If you cancel, you are obligated to pay a reasonable processing
fee to cover costs and to pay for the reasonable value of the
services received by you from the provider up to the date you
canceled or made available to the provider the possession of any
living unit delivered to you under this contract, whichever is later.

   If you cancel, you must return possession of any living unit
delivered to you under this contract to the provider in substantially
the same condition as when you took possession.
   Possession of the living unit must be made available to the
provider within 20 calendar days of your notice of cancellation. If
you fail to make the possession of any living unit available to the
provider, then you remain liable for performance of all obligations
under the contract.
   To cancel this transaction, mail or deliver a signed and dated
copy of this cancellation notice, or any other written notice, or
send a telegram
to
                 (Name of provider)
at
     (Address of provider's place of business)
not later than midnight of _____________ (date).
I       hereby cancel
this                    _________________________
transaction
                                  (Resident 
  's 
                                     or
                         Transferor's signature)''


  SEC. 148.  Section 1793.90 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   1793.90.  (a) All providers shall include in resident contracts
the procedures to be followed to ensure that residential temporary
relocations provide comparable levels of care, services, and living
accommodations as described in the resident's contract.
   (b) The provider shall notify the resident of the impending
relocation at least 60 days in advance of the relocation.
   (c) The provider shall meet with the resident and, at the resident'
s request, family members or other individuals, at least 30 days in
advance of the transfer to discuss all aspects of the transfer,
including, but not limited to, the rights, requirements, and
procedures set forth in this article. Notice of this meeting shall be
provided in writing and at least seven days in advance of the
meeting and shall include all of the following information:
   (1) The date of the transfer.
   (2) The available replacement unit or units and monthly fees.
   (3) The time when the resident will be able to inspect the
replacement unit or units.
   (4) The estimated date when the resident will be able to return to
his or her unit or may move to a substitute permanent unit.
   (d) If accommodations are not available at a continuing care
retirement community operated by the provider within a 30-mile
radius, the provider shall be required to provide a unit in a
facility, agreed to by the resident, that most closely provides the
services, size, features, and amenities provided in the unit being
vacated.
   (e) The provider shall be required to arrange and pay for all
moving costs to the new facility and moving costs to the
reconstructed facility, if the resident returns, as well as storage
costs.
   (f) The resident shall only be required to pay to the provider the
monthly fee required in the resident's contract, or the monthly fee
in the new facility, whichever is less. The provider shall be
required to make payment to the facility  at  
to  which the resident is relocated.
   (g) Upon request by the resident or the resident's representative,
the provider shall make available the services of a licensed medical
or geriatric professional to advise the resident, the resident's
representative, and the provider regarding the relocation of the
resident. The provider may place a reasonable limit on the cost of
the services of the medical or geriatric professional.
   (h) The provider shall identify unique service and care needs, if
applicable, for a resident directly affected by the residential
temporary relocation. The unique services and care needs identified
shall be in writing and shall become a part of the resident's plan of
care.
  SEC. 149.  Section 1797.172 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   1797.172.  (a) The authority shall develop and, after approval by
the commission pursuant to Section 1799.50, adopt minimum standards
for the training and scope of practice for EMT-P.
   (b) The approval of the director, in consultation with a committee
of local EMS medical directors named by the EMS Medical Directors
Association of California, is required prior to implementation of any
addition to a local optional scope of practice for EMT-Ps proposed
by the medical director of a local EMS agency.
   (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the authority
shall be the agency solely responsible for licensure and licensure
renewal of EMT-Ps who meet the standards and are not precluded from
licensure because of any of the reasons listed in subdivision (d) of
Section 1798.200. Each application for licensure or licensure renewal
shall require the applicant's social security number in order to
establish the identity of the applicant. The information obtained as
a result of a state and federal level criminal offender record
information search shall be used in accordance with Section 11105 of
the Penal Code, and to determine whether the applicant is subject to
denial of licensure or licensure renewal pursuant to this division.
Submission of fingerprint images to the Department of Justice may not
be required for licensure renewal upon determination by the
authority that fingerprint images have previously been submitted to
the Department of Justice during initial licensure, or a previous
licensure renewal, provided that the license has not lapsed and the
applicant has resided continuously in the state since the initial
licensure.
   (d) The authority shall charge fees for the licensure and
licensure renewal of EMT-Ps in an amount sufficient to support the
authority's licensure program at a level that ensures the
qualifications of the individuals licensed to provide quality care.
The basic fee for licensure or licensure renewal of an EMT-P shall
not exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) until the adoption
of regulations that specify a different amount that does not exceed
the authority's EMT-P licensure, license renewal, and enforcement
programs. The authority shall annually evaluate fees to determine if
the fee is sufficient to fund the actual costs of the authority's
licensure, licensure renewal, and enforcement programs. If the
evaluation shows that the fees are excessive or are insufficient to
fund the actual costs of the authority's EMT-P licensure, licensure
renewal, and enforcement programs, then the fees shall be adjusted
accordingly through the rulemaking process described in the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3
of Title 2 of the Government Code). Separate additional fees may be
charged, at the option of the authority, for services that are not
shared by all applicants for licensure and licensure renewal,
including, but not limited to, any of the following services:
   (1) Initial application for licensure as an EMT-P.
   (2) Competency testing, the fee for which shall not exceed thirty
dollars ($30), except that an additional fee may be charged for the
cost of any services that provide enhanced availability of the exam
for the convenience of the EMT-P, such as on-demand electronic
testing.
   (3) Fingerprint and criminal record check. The applicant shall, if
applicable according to subdivision (c), submit fingerprint images
and related information for criminal offender record information
searches with the Department of Justice and the Federal Bureau of
Investigation.
   (4) Out-of-state training equivalency determination.
   (5) Verification of continuing education for a lapse in licensure.

   (6) Replacement of a lost licensure card. The fees charged for
individual services shall be set so that the total fees charged to
EMT-Ps shall not exceed the authority's actual total cost for the
EMT-P licensure program.
   (e) The authority may provide nonconfidential, nonpersonal
information relating to EMS programs to interested persons upon
request, and may establish and assess fees for the provision of this
information. These fees shall not exceed the costs of providing the
information.
   (f) At the option of the authority, fees may be collected for the
authority by an entity that contracts with the authority to provide
any of the services associated with the EMT-P program. All fees
collected for the authority in a calendar month by any entity
designated by the authority pursuant to this section to collect fees
for the authority shall be transmitted to the authority for deposit
into the Emergency Medical Services Personnel Fund within 30 calendar
days following the last day of the calendar month in which the fees
were received by the designated entity, unless the contract between
the entity and the authority specifies a different timeframe.
  SEC. 150.  Section 1797.217 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   1797.217.  (a) Every certifying entity shall submit to the
authority certification data required by Section 1797.117.
   (b) The authority shall collect fees from each certifying entity
for the certification and certification renewal of each EMT-I and
EMT-II in an amount sufficient to support the authority's central
registry program and the local EMS agency administrative law judge
reimbursement program. Separate additional fees may be charged, at
the option of the authority, for services that are not shared by all
applicants.
   (c) The authority's fees shall be established in regulations, and
fees charged for individual services shall be set so that the total
fees charged shall not exceed the authority's actual total cost for
the authority's central registry program, state and federal criminal
offender record information search response program, and the local
EMS agency administrative law judge reimbursement program.
   (d) In addition to any fees collected by EMT-I or EMT-II
certifying entities to support their certification, recertification,
or enforcement programs, EMT-I or EMT-II certifying entities
                                   shall collect fees to support the
authority's central registry program, and the local EMS agency
administrative law judge reimbursement program. In lieu of collecting
fees from an individual, pursuant to an employer choice, a
collective bargaining agreement, or other employment contract, the
certifying entity shall provide the appropriate fees to the authority
pursuant to this subdivision.
   (e) All fees collected for or provided to the authority in a
calendar month by an EMT-I or EMT-II certifying entity pursuant to
this section shall be transmitted to the authority for deposit into
the Emergency Medical Technician Certification Fund within 30
calendar days following the last day of the calendar month in which
the fees were received by the certifying entity, unless a contract
between the certifying entity and the authority specifies a different
timeframe.
   (f) At the option of the authority, fees may be collected for the
authority by an entity that contracts with the authority to provide
any of the services associated with the registry program, or the
state and federal criminal offender record information search
response program, or the local EMS agency administrative law judge
reimbursement program. All fees collected for the authority in a
calendar month by any entity designated by the authority pursuant to
this section to collect fees for the authority shall be transmitted
to the authority for deposit into the Emergency Medical Technician
Certification Fund within 30 calendar days following the last day of
the calendar month in which the fees were received by the designated
entity, unless the contract between the entity and the authority
specifies a different timeframe.
   (g) The authority shall annually evaluate fees to determine if the
fee is sufficient to fund the actual costs of the authority's
central registry program, state and federal criminal offender record
information search response program, and local EMS agency
administrative law judge reimbursement program. If the evaluation
shows that the fees are excessive or are insufficient to fund the
actual costs of these programs, then the fees will be adjusted
accordingly through the rulemaking process as outlined in the
Administrative Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3
of Title 2 of the Government Code).
   (h) The Emergency Medical Technician Certification Fund is hereby
created in the State Treasury. All moneys deposited in the fund shall
be made available, upon appropriation, to the authority for purposes
of the central registry program, state and federal criminal offender
record information search response program, and the local EMS agency
administrative law judge reimbursement program. The local EMS agency
administrative law judge reimbursement program is solely for the
purpose of making reimbursements to local emergency medical service
agencies for actual administrative law judge costs regarding EMT-I or
EMT-II disciplinary action appeals. Reimbursement to the local
emergency medical service agencies shall only be made if adequate
funds are available from fees collected for the authority's local EMS
agency administrative law judge reimbursement program.
   (i) The authority may transfer unused portions of the Emergency
Medical Technician Certification Fund to the Surplus Money Investment
Fund. Funds transferred to the Surplus Money Investment Fund shall
be placed in a separate trust account, and shall be available for
transfer to the Emergency Medical Technician Certification Fund,
together with interest earned, when requested by the authority.
   (j) The authority shall maintain a reserve balance in the
Emergency Medical Technician Certification Fund of 5 percent of
annual revenues. Any increase in the fees deposited in the Emergency
Medical Technician Certification Fund shall be effective upon a
determination by the authority that additional moneys are required to
fund expenditures of this section.
  SEC. 151.  Section 8016 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to
read:
   8016.  (a) If there is more than one request for repatriation for
the same item, or there is a dispute between the requesting party and
the agency or museum, or if a dispute arises in relation to the
repatriation process, the commission shall notify the affected
parties of this fact and the cultural affiliation of the item in
question shall be determined in accordance with this section.
   (b) Any agency or museum receiving a repatriation request pursuant
to subdivision (a) shall repatriate human remains and cultural items
if all of the following criteria have been met:
   (1) The requested human remains or cultural items meet the
definitions of human remains or cultural items that are subject to
inventory requirements under subdivision (a) of Section 8013.
   (2) The state cultural affiliation of the human remains or
cultural items is established as required under subdivision (f) of
Section 8012.
   (3) The agency or museum is unable to present evidence that, if
standing alone before the introduction of evidence to the contrary,
would support a finding that the agency or museum has a right of
possession to the requested cultural items.
   (4) None of the exemptions listed in Section 10.10(c) of Title 43
of the Federal Code of Regulations apply.
   (5) All other applicable requirements of regulations adopted under
the federal Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act
(25 U.S.C. Sec. 3001 et seq.), contained in Part 10 of Title 43 of
the Code of Federal Regulations, have been met.
   (c) Within 30 days after notice has been provided by the
commission, the museum or agency shall have the right to file with
the commission any objection to the requested repatriation, based on
its good faith belief that the requested human remains or cultural
items are not culturally affiliated with the requesting California
tribe or are not subject to repatriation under this chapter.
   (d) The disputing parties shall submit documentation describing
the nature of the dispute, in accordance with standard mediation
practices and the commission's procedures, to the commission, which
shall, in turn, forward the documentation to the opposing party or
parties. The disputing parties shall meet within 30 days of the date
of the mailing of the documentation with the goal of settling the
dispute.
   (e) If, after meeting pursuant to subdivision (b), the parties are
unable to settle the dispute, the commission, or a certified
mediator designated by the commission in accordance with subdivision
(b) of Section 8026, shall mediate the dispute.
   (f) Each disputing party shall submit complaints and supporting
evidence to the commission or designated mediator and the other
opposing parties detailing their positions on the disputed issues in
accordance with standard mediation practices and the commission's
mediation procedures. Each party shall have 20 days from the date the
complaint and supporting evidence were mailed to respond to the
complaints. All responses shall be submitted to the opposing party or
parties and the commission or designated mediator.
   (g) The commission or designated mediator shall review all
complaints, responses, and supporting evidence submitted. Within 20
days after the date of submission of responses, the commission or
designated mediator shall hold a mediation session and render a
decision within seven days of the date of the mediation session.
   (h) When the disposition of any items are disputed, the party in
possession of the items shall retain possession until the mediation
process is completed. No transfer of items shall occur until the
dispute is resolved.
   (i) Tribal oral histories, documentations, and testimonies shall
not be afforded less evidentiary weight than other relevant
categories of evidence on account of being in those categories.
   (j) If the parties are unable to resolve a dispute through
mediation, the dispute shall be resolved by the commission. The
determination of the commission shall be deemed to constitute a final
administrative remedy. Any party to the dispute seeking a review of
the determination of the commission is entitled to file an action in
the superior court seeking an independent  judgement
  judgment  on the record as to whether the
commission's decision is supported by a preponderance of the
evidence. The independent review shall not constitute a de novo
review of a decision by the commission, but shall be limited to a
review of the evidence on the record. Petitions for review shall be
filed with the court not later than 30 days after the final decision
of the commission.
  SEC. 152.  Section 11364 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   11364.  (a) It is unlawful to possess an opium pipe or any device,
contrivance, instrument, or paraphernalia used for unlawfully
injecting or smoking (1) a controlled substance specified in
subdivision (b), (c), or (e), or paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of
Section 11054, specified in paragraph (14), (15), or (20) of
subdivision (d) of Section 11054, specified in subdivision (b) or (c)
of Section 11055, or specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d)
of Section 11055, or (2) a controlled substance which is a narcotic
drug classified in Schedule III, IV, or V.
   (b) This section shall not apply to hypodermic needles or syringes
that have been containerized for safe disposal in a container that
meets state and federal standards for disposal of sharps waste.
   (c) Pursuant to authorization by a county, with respect to all of
the territory within the county, or a city, with respect to the
territory within  in  the city, for the period
commencing January 1, 2005, and ending December 31, 2018, subdivision
(a) shall not apply to the possession solely for personal use of 10
or fewer hypodermic needles or syringes if acquired from an
authorized source.
  SEC. 153.  Section 16500 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   16500.  The office of the State Architect shall adopt guidelines
applicable to substandard conditions of school buildings, as defined
in Section  39141   17283  of the Education
Code, which guidelines shall take into consideration the unique
design, use, safety needs, and construction of the school buildings.
  SEC. 154.  Section 25214.2 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   25214.2.  (a) A person shall not manufacture, ship, sell, offer
for sale, or offer for promotional purposes jewelry for retail sale
or promotional purposes in the state, unless the jewelry is made
entirely from a class 1, class 2, or class 3 material, or any
combination  thereof   of those materials 
.
   (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a person shall not
manufacture, ship, sell, offer for sale, or offer for promotional
purposes children's jewelry for retail sale or promotional purposes
in the state, unless the children's jewelry is made entirely from one
or more of the following materials:
   (1) A nonmetallic material that is a class 1 material and that
does not otherwise violate the requirements of paragraph (4).
   (2) A nonmetallic material that is a class 2 material.
   (3) A metallic material that is either a class 1 material or
contains less than 0.06 percent (600 parts per million) lead by
weight.
   (4) Glass or crystal decorative components that weigh in total no
more than one gram, excluding any glass or crystal decorative
component that contains less than 0.02 percent (200 parts per
million) lead by weight and has no intentionally added lead.
   (5) Printing ink or ceramic glaze that contains less than 0.06
percent (600 parts per million) lead by weight.
   (6) Class 3 material that contains less than 0.02 percent (200
parts per million) lead by weight.
   (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a person shall not
manufacture, ship, sell, offer for sale, or offer for promotional
purposes body piercing jewelry for retail sale or promotional
purposes in the state, unless the body piercing jewelry is made of
one or more of the following materials:
   (1) Surgical implant stainless steel.
   (2) Surgical implant grade of titanium.
   (3) Niobium (Nb).
   (4) Solid 14 karat or higher white or yellow nickel-free gold.
   (5) Solid platinum.
   (6) A dense low-porosity plastic, including, but not limited to,
Tygon or Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE), if the plastic contains no
intentionally added lead.
   (d) Notwithstanding  paragraphs (1) and (2) of 
subdivision (d) of Section 25214.3, as of January 1, 2012, 
no   a  person shall  not  manufacture,
ship, sell, offer for sale, or offer for promotional purposes
children's jewelry that contains any component or is made of any
material that is more than 0.03 percent cadmium (300 parts per
million) by weight. This subdivision shall not apply to any toy
regulated for cadmium exposure under the federal Consumer Product
Safety Improvement Act of 2008  (Public Law  
(P.L.  110-314).
   (e) The department may establish a standard for children's jewelry
or for a component of children's jewelry that is more protective of
public health, of sensitive subpopulations, or of the environment
than the standard established pursuant to subdivision (d).
  SEC. 155.  Section 25214.3 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   25214.3.  (a) Except as provided in Sections 25214.3.3 and
25214.3.4, a person who violates this article shall not be subject to
criminal penalties imposed pursuant to this chapter and shall only
be subject to the administrative or civil penalty specified in
subdivision (b).
   (b) (1) A person who violates this article shall be liable for an
administrative or a civil penalty not to exceed two thousand five
hundred dollars ($2,500) per day for each violation. That
administrative or civil penalty may be assessed and recovered in an
administrative action filed with the Office of Administrative
Hearings or in a civil action brought in any court of competent
jurisdiction.
   (2) In assessing the amount of an administrative or a civil
penalty for a violation of this article, the presiding officer or the
court, as applicable, shall consider all of the following:
   (A) The nature and extent of the violation.
   (B) The number of, and severity of, the violations.
   (C) The economic effect of the penalty on the violator.
   (D) Whether the violator took good faith measures to comply with
this article and the time these measures were taken.
   (E) The willfulness of the violator's misconduct.
   (F) The deterrent effect that the imposition of the penalty would
have on both the violator and the regulated community as a whole.
   (G) Any other factor that justice may require.
   (c) Administrative and civil penalties collected pursuant to this
article shall be deposited in the Toxic Substances Control Account,
for expenditure by the department, upon appropriation by the
Legislature, to implement and enforce this article, except as
provided in Section 25192.
   (d) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), a party that is a
signatory to the amended consent judgment, or a party that is a
signatory to a consent judgment entered in the consolidated action
entitled People  vs.   v.  Burlington Coat
Factory Warehouse Corporation, et al. (Alameda Superior Court Lead
Case No. RG 04-162075) that contains identical or substantially
identical terms as provided in Sections 2, 3, and 4 of the amended
consent judgment, shall not be subject to enforcement pursuant to
this article, and an action brought to enforce this article against
the party shall be subject to Section 4 of the amended consent
judgment.
   (2) The Legislature finds and declares that the amendment of this
subdivision by Chapter 575 of the Statutes of 2008 is declaratory of
existing law.
   (e) (1) For the purpose of administering and enforcing this
article, an authorized representative of the department, upon
obtaining consent or after obtaining an inspection warrant pursuant
to Title 13 (commencing with Section 1822.50) of Part 3 of the Code
of Civil Procedure, may, upon presenting appropriate credentials and
at a reasonable time, do  any   either  of
the following:
   (A) Enter a factory, warehouse, or establishment where jewelry is
manufactured, packed, held, or sold; enter a vehicle that is being
used to transport, hold, or sell jewelry; or enter a place where
jewelry is being held or sold.
   (B) Inspect a factory, warehouse, establishment, vehicle, or place
described in subparagraph (A), and all pertinent equipment, raw
material, finished and unfinished materials, containers, and labeling
in the factory, warehouse, establishment, vehicle, or place. In the
case of a factory, warehouse, or establishment where jewelry is
manufactured, packed, held, or sold, this inspection shall include
any record, file, paper, process, control, and facility that has a
bearing on whether the jewelry is being manufactured, packed, held,
transported, sold, or offered for sale or for promotional purposes in
violation of this article.
   (2) (A) An authorized representative of the department may secure
a sample of jewelry when taking an action authorized pursuant to this
subdivision. If the representative obtains a sample prior to leaving
the premises, he or she shall leave a receipt describing the sample
obtained.
   (B) The department shall return, upon request, a sample that is
not destroyed during testing  when   if 
the department no longer has any purpose for retaining the sample.
   (C) A sample that is secured in compliance with this section and
found to be in compliance with this article that is destroyed during
testing shall be subject to a claim for reimbursement.
   (3) An authorized representative of the department shall have
access to all records of a carrier in commerce relating to the
movement in commerce of jewelry, or the holding of that jewelry
during or after the movement, and the quantity, shipper, and
consignee of the jewelry. A carrier shall not be subject to the other
provisions of this article by reason of its receipt, carriage,
holding, or delivery of jewelry in the usual course of business as a
carrier.
   (4) An authorized representative of the department shall be deemed
to have received implied consent to enter a retail establishment,
for purposes of this section, if the authorized representative enters
the location of that retail establishment where the public is
generally granted access.
  SEC. 156.  Section 25250.50 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   25250.50.  For purposes of this article, the following definitions
shall apply:
   (a) (1) "Advisory committee" means a committee of nine members
appointed by the secretary on or before January 1, 2019, to consider
and recommend approval or denial of an application for an extension
of the requirements imposed pursuant to Section 25250.53.
   (2) A person considered for appointment to the advisory committee
shall disclose any financial interests the person may have in any
aspect of the vehicle or vehicle parts manufacturing industry prior
to appointment by the secretary or, in the case of subparagraph (C)
of paragraph (3), prior to nomination.
   (3) The advisory committee shall be composed of the following
members:
   (A) (i) One-third of the members shall be representatives of the
manufacturers of brake friction materials and motor vehicles, to be
appointed by the secretary in consultation with the chair of the
board and the director of the department.
   (ii) If the application for an extension of the requirements
imposed pursuant to Section 25250.53 pertains solely to brake
friction materials to be used on heavy-duty motor vehicles, the
members appointed pursuant to this subparagraph shall represent the
manufacturers of heavy-duty brake friction materials and heavy-duty
motor vehicles.
   (B) One-third of the members shall be representatives of municipal
storm water quality agencies and nongovernmental environmental
organizations, to be appointed by the secretary in consultation with
the chair of the board and the director of the department.
   (C) One-third of the members shall be experts in vehicle and
braking safety, economics, and other relevant technical areas, to be
appointed by the secretary, upon nomination by a majority of the
members specified in subparagraph (A) concurrently with a majority of
the members specified in subparagraph (B).
   (4) For purposes of this subdivision, a "financial interest" shall
have the same meaning as a financial interest described in Section
87103 of the Government Code, except only with regard to business
entities, real property, or sources of income that are related to the
vehicle or vehicle parts manufacturing industry.
   (b) "Board" means the State Water Resources Control Board.
   (c) "Department" means the Department of Toxic Substances Control.

   (d) "Heavy-duty motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle of over
26,000 pounds gross weight.
   (e) (1) "Manufacturer," except where otherwise specified, means
both of the following:
   (A) A manufacturer or assembler of motor vehicles or motor vehicle
equipment.
   (B) An importer of motor vehicles or motor vehicle equipment for
resale.
   (2) A manufacturer includes a vehicle brake friction materials
manufacturer.
   (f) "Motor vehicle" and "vehicle"  has   have
 the same meaning as the definition of "vehicle" in Section 670
of the Vehicle Code.
   (g) "Testing certification agency" means a third-party testing
certification agency that is utilized by a vehicle brake friction
materials manufacturer and that has an accredited laboratory program
that provides testing in accordance with the certification agency
requirements that are approved by the department.
  SEC. 157.  Section 25250.54 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   25250.54.  (a) (1) On and after January 1, 2019, a manufacturer
may apply to the department for a one-year, two-year, or three-year
extension of the January 1, 2025, deadline established in Section
25250.53, except as provided in subdivision (h).
   (2) An extension application submitted pursuant to this section
shall be submitted based on vehicle model, class, platform, or other
vehicle-based category, and not on the basis of the brake friction
material formulation.
   (3) The application shall be accompanied by documentation that
will allow the advisory committee to make a recommendation pursuant
to subdivisions (e) and (f).
   (4) The documentation shall include a scientifically sound
quantitative estimate of the quantity of copper that would be emitted
if the extension is granted, including a description of the
assumptions used in arriving at that estimate.
   (b) No more than 30 days after receipt of an application for an
extension pursuant to subdivision (a), the department shall do all of
the following:
   (1) Post a notice of receipt on the department's Internet Web site
that includes the vehicle model, class, platform, or other
vehicle-based category, whether the brake friction material is
intended for use in original equipment or replacement parts, and the
quantity of copper that would be emitted if the extension is granted.

   (2) Consult with the board and the State Air Resources Board.
   (3) Solicit comment from the public and from scientific and
vehicle engineering experts on the availability of generally
affordable compliant brake friction materials, their safety and
performance characteristics, and the feasibility of brake pad copper
emissions reduction through means other than friction material
reformulation.
   (c) (1) In consultation with the board, the department shall
determine if sufficient documentation has been presented upon which
to base a decision. If the department determines that further
documentation is needed, it shall deliver a detailed request for
further documentation to the applicant.
   (2) Not later than 30 days after receipt of the application for an
extension pursuant to subdivision (a), the department shall forward
the application to the advisory committee for the purpose of the
advisory committee making a recommendation pursuant to subdivisions
(e) and (f).
   (d) (1) In considering any application for an extension, the
advisory committee shall consider all of the documentation supplied
by the applicant pursuant to subdivision (a).
   (2) The advisory committee may request, no later than 75 days
after receipt of the application from the department pursuant to
subdivision (c), further documentation from the applicant.
   (3) The advisory committee shall hold at least one public hearing
at which it shall accept and consider comments from the public on
each category of application. The advisory committee meetings shall
be open to the public and are subject to the Bagley-Keene Open
Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1
of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).
   (e) (1) The advisory committee shall recommend to the secretary
that the extension be approved if the advisory committee determines
that there are no brake friction materials that are safe and
available for individual or multiple vehicle models, classes,
platforms, or other vehicle-based categories identified in the
application.
   (2) The advisory committee shall recommend to the secretary that
the extension not be approved if the advisory committee determines
that alternative brake friction materials are safe and available for
individual or multiple vehicle models, classes, platforms, or other
vehicle-based categories identified in the application.
   (3) For purposes of this section, "safe and available" shall mean
all of the following:
   (A) The brake system for which the alternative brake friction
material is manufactured meets applicable federal safety standards,
or if no federal standard exists, a widely accepted safety standard.
   (B) Acceptable alternative brake friction materials are
commercially available for the individual or multiple vehicles,
classes, platforms, or vehicle-based categories identified in the
application.
   (C) Adequate industry testing and production capacity exists to
supply the alternative brake friction materials for use on the
individual or multiple vehicles, classes, platforms, or vehicle-based
categories identified in the application.
   (D) The alternative brake friction material is technically
feasible for use on the individual or multiple vehicles, classes,
platforms, or vehicle-based categories identified in the application.

   (E) The alternative brake friction materials meet customer
performance expectations, including noise, wear, vibration, and
durability for the individual or multiple  vehicle 
 vehicles,  classes, platforms, or vehicle-based categories
identified in the application.
             (F) The alternative acceptable brake friction material
is economically feasible with respect to the industry and the cost to
the consumer for the individual or multiple vehicles, classes,
platforms, or vehicle-based categories identified in the application.

   (4) The advisory committee shall provide relevant data to the
department and the board concerning the potential impacts of the
extension on California watersheds for purposes of the report
required pursuant to Section 25250.65.
   (f) (1) No sooner than 60 days and no later than 120 days after
the department solicits comments pursuant to paragraph (3) of
subdivision (b), the advisory committee shall make a recommendation
to the secretary in accordance with subdivisions (d) and (e) as to
whether the application for extension should be approved or not
approved.
   (2) The recommendation of the advisory committee that the
secretary approve or not approve the application for extension shall
be accompanied by documentation of the basis for the recommendation.
   (g) (1) The secretary shall make available the recommendation of
the advisory committee and the accompanying documentation for public
review and comment for 60 days following receipt of the
recommendation from the advisory committee.
   (2) The secretary shall consider public comments on the advisory
committee's recommendation and issue a final decision on the
application for extension no later than 45 days after the conclusion
of the 60-day comment period.
   (3) In making the determination whether to approve or disapprove
the extension, the secretary shall rely upon the recommendations made
by the advisory committee pursuant to subdivision (f).
   (4) If the secretary does not follow the recommendation of the
advisory committee made pursuant to subdivision (f), he or she shall
explain in writing the basis of his or her decision.
   (h) (1) On or before December 31, 2029, a manufacturer with an
approved extension of the January 1, 2025, deadline established in
Section 25250.53, may reapply to the department for additional
two-year extensions from the deadline in accordance with a schedule
that may be established by the department.
   (2) Except as provided in subdivision (i), a manufacturer may not
apply on or after January 1, 2030, for an extension of the January 1,
2025, deadline established in Section 25250.53.
   (3) The department shall comply with all of the requirements of
this section when granting an additional extension of the January 1,
2025, deadline pursuant to this subdivision.
   (i) (1) On and after January 1, 2030, a manufacturer of vehicle
brake friction materials to be used on heavy-duty vehicles with an
approved extension of the January 1, 2025, deadline established in
Section 25250.53, may reapply to the department for additional
two-year extensions from the deadline established in Section
25250.53, that results in an extension of that deadline to a date on
and after January 1, 2032.
   (2) The department shall comply with all of the requirements of
this section when granting an additional extension of the January 1,
2025, deadline pursuant to this subdivision.
   (j) The department shall assess a fee for each application for an
extension sufficient to cover actual costs incurred in implementing
this section. The department may expend the fees collected pursuant
to this subdivision, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for
reimbursement for the costs incurred in implementing this section.
   (k) When granting an extension pursuant to this section, the
department, board, advisory committee, and secretary shall comply
with the requirements of Section 25358.2, to ensure the protection of
trade secrets, as defined in Section 25358.2.
  SEC. 158.  Section 25250.56 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   25250.56.  (a) In developing new formulations to comply with
Sections 25250.52 and 25250.53, a manufacturer of vehicle brake
friction materials shall screen potential alternatives to the use of
copper by using the  Toxic   Toxics 
Information Clearinghouse developed by the department and the Office
of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment pursuant to Section 25256,
for the purpose of identifying potential impacts of these potential
alternatives on public health and the environment.
   (b) In conducting the screening analysis required by subdivision
(a), a manufacturer of vehicle brake friction materials shall, using
information available to the manufacturer at the time of the
analysis, including information from the department and other
sources, consider the environmental fate of brake friction materials
and their emissions through all phases of the brake friction material
life cycle.
   (c) A manufacturer of vehicle brake friction materials shall use
the screening analysis required by subdivision (a) or an open source
alternatives assessment to select alternatives to copper that pose
less  of a  potential hazard to public health and the
environment.
   (d) Upon request by the department, a manufacturer of vehicle
brake friction materials or importer of record shall provide a
summary demonstrating how the screening analysis conducted pursuant
to this section or an open source alternatives assessment is used to
inform the selection of alternatives to copper that pose less  of
a  potential hazard to public health and the environment, as
required by subdivision (c).
  SEC. 159.  Section 25996 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   25996.  Commencing January 1, 2015, a shelled egg  may
  shall  not be sold or contracted for sale for
human consumption in California if it is the product of an egg-laying
hen that was confined on a farm or place that is not in compliance
with animal care standards set forth in Chapter 13.8 (commencing with
Section 25990).
  SEC. 160.  Section 33331.4 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   33331.4.  (a) A redevelopment agency undertaking activities and
funding involving property described in paragraph (3) of subdivision
(c) of Section 33030 shall comply with all of the requirements of
this part, except as specifically modified in subdivision (b).
   (b) In addition to the requirements specified in subdivision (a),
all of the following apply:
   (1) The project shall include the replacement, on at least a
one-to-one basis, of all existing public housing units. The
replacement dwelling units shall be affordable to, and occupied by,
extremely low, very low, and lower income households as defined in
Sections 50079.5, 50105, and 50106,  respectively, 
at the same or lower income level as the household displaced from the
public housing units, for at least 55 years.
   (2) The replacement dwelling units may be either publicly or
privately owned and shall meet all of the following requirements:
   (A) Be located either inside the project area, or within a
five-mile radius of the parcel containing the public housing that is
being replaced.
   (B) Shall be, for each income level described in paragraph (1), a
unit type and size as required by the displaced household. The
required size shall conform to the principles for a public housing
policy on occupancy, contained in the "Public Housing Occupancy
Guidebook," published by the United States Department of Housing and
Urban Development.
   (C) Shall be affordable to each displaced household that chooses
to relocate to a replacement unit, such that the rent does not exceed
30 percent of the income of that household.
   (c) No household shall be displaced under this section unless
 they are   the household is  given
priority for a permanent replacement dwelling unit created pursuant
to this section at the initial time of relocation. This subdivision
does not apply if the household, having been given priority for a
replacement dwelling unit under this part, voluntarily chooses not to
accept the replacement dwelling unit.
   (d) The project may include both of the following:
   (1) The development of additional privately owned housing units
that will be available to and occupied by persons and families of low
or moderate income, as defined in Section 50093, including very low
income households, as defined in Section 50105, at an affordable
housing cost, as defined in Section  50025.5  
50052.5  .
   (2) Workforce market-rate housing units, retail services,
commercial, industrial, educational, recreational, and other uses as
may be appropriate to serve the residents of the area, and public
improvements inside or adjacent to the project area.
  SEC. 161.  Section 33334.25 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   33334.25.  (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the
following:
   (1) The transfer of funds to a joint powers authority and the use
of pooled funds within the housing market area of the participating
agencies for the purpose of providing affordable housing  is
  are  of benefit to the project area producing the
tax increment.
   (2) The cost and availability of land, geophysical and
environmental limitations, community patterns, and the lack of
financing make the availability of affordable housing more difficult
in some communities.
   (3) The cooperation of local agencies and the use of pooled funds
will result in more resources than would otherwise be available for
affordable housing.
   (b) As used in this section, the following terms shall apply:
   (1) "Housing funds" means funds in or from the low- and
moderate-income housing fund established by an agency pursuant to
Section 33334.3.
   (2) "Joint powers authority" means a joint powers authority
created pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 6500) of
Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code for the purposes of
receiving and using housing funds pursuant to this section.
   (3) "Receiving entity" means any person, partnership, joint
venture, corporation, governmental body, or other organization
receiving housing funds from a joint powers authority for the purpose
of providing housing pursuant to this section.
   (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contiguous
agencies located within adjoining cities within a single metropolitan
statistical area (MSA) may, by agreement, create and participate in
a joint powers authority for the purpose of pooling their housing
funds for the direct costs of constructing, substantially
rehabilitating, and preserving the affordability of housing units
that are affordable to extremely low income households, as defined in
Section 50106. Agencies may participate in the authority upon a
finding based on substantial evidence, after a public hearing, that
the aggregation will not cause or exacerbate racial, ethnic, or
economic segregation. Agencies may transfer a portion of their
housing funds to a joint powers authority for use by the joint powers
authority pursuant to this section. The joint powers authority may
determine the kinds of housing projects or activities to be assisted,
consistent with this section. The joint powers authority may loan,
grant, or advance transferred housing funds from participating
agencies to a receiving entity for any eligible housing development
within the participating agency's jurisdiction, subject to the
requirements of this section. In addition, the agreement may
authorize the joint powers authority to issue bonds and to use the
pooled funds to leverage other funds to assist eligible developments,
including loans from private institutions and assistance provided by
other governmental agencies.
   (d) A mutually binding agreement between the joint powers
authority and each participating agency shall contain the following
terms and conditions:
   (1) The community of each participating agency shall have adopted
up-to-date housing elements pursuant to Article 10.6 (commencing with
Section 65580) of Division 1 of Title 7 of the Government Code, and
the housing elements have been determined to be in compliance with
the law by the Department of Housing and Community Development.
   (2) The community of each participating agency shall have met, in
its current or previous housing element cycle, 50 percent or more of
its share of the region's affordable housing needs, as defined in
Section 65584 of the Government Code, in the very low and lower
income categories of income groups defined in Section 
50025.5   50052.5  .
   (3) Each participating agency shall hold, at least 45 days prior
to the transfer of funds to the joint powers authority, a public
hearing, after providing notice pursuant to Section 6062 of the
Government Code to solicit public comments on the draft agreement.
   (4) No housing funds shall be transferred from a project area that
has an indebtedness to its  low   low- 
and moderate-income housing fund pursuant to Section 33334.6.
   (5) No housing funds shall be transferred from an agency that has
not met its need for replacement housing pursuant to Section 33413,
unless the agency has encumbered and contractually committed
sufficient funds to meet those requirements.
   (6) Pooled funds shall be used within the participating agencies'
jurisdictions.
   (7) The joint powers authority shall comply with this section.
   (8) The joint powers authority shall ensure that the funds it
receives are used in accordance with this section.
   (9) Funds transferred by an agency to a joint powers authority
pursuant to this section shall be expended or encumbered by the joint
powers authority for the purposes of this section within two years
of the transfer. Transferred funds not so expended or encumbered by
the joint powers authority within two years after the transfer shall
be returned to the original agency and shall be deemed excess surplus
funds as provided in, and subject to, the requirements of Sections
33334.10 and 33334.12. Excess surplus funds held by an agency shall
not be transferred to a joint powers authority.
   (10) The joint powers authority shall prepare and submit an annual
report to the department that documents the amount of housing funds
received and expended or allocated for specific housing assistance
activities consistent with Section 33080.4.
   (e) A mutually binding contract between the joint powers authority
and a receiving entity shall contain the following terms and
conditions:
   (1) Pooled housing funds shall be used only to pay for the direct
costs of constructing, substantially rehabilitating, or preserving
the affordability of housing units that are affordable to extremely
low income persons or households.
   (2) Pooled housing funds shall not be used to pay for planning and
administrative costs, offsite improvements associated with a housing
project, or fees or exactions levied solely for development projects
constructed, substantially rehabilitated, or preserved with pooled
funds. The receiving entity shall be subject to the same replacement
requirements provided in Section 33413 and any relocation
requirements applicable pursuant to  Section 7260 
 Chapter 16 (commencing with Section 7260) of   Division
7 of Title 1  of the Government Code.
   (3) The joint powers authority shall make findings, based on
substantial evidence on the record, that each proposed use of pooled
funds will not exacerbate racial or economic segregation.
   (f) Pooled funds expended pursuant to this section shall be spent
within the project area of a participating redevelopment agency.
   (g) On or after January 1, 2020, no new joint project may be
created pursuant to this section.
  SEC. 162.  Section 33420.1 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   33420.1.  Within a project area, for any project undertaken by an
agency for building rehabilitation or alteration in construction, an
agency may take those actions which the agency determines necessary
and which  is   are  consistent with local,
state, and federal law, to provide for seismic retrofits as follows:

   (a)  For unreinforced masonry buildings, to meet the requirements
of Chapter 1 of the Appendix of the Uniform Code for Building
Conservation of the International Conference of Building Officials.
   (b)  For any buildings that qualify as "historical property" under
Section 37602, to meet the requirements of the State Historical
Building Code (Part 2.7 (commencing with Section 18950) of Division
13).
   (c)  For buildings other than unreinforced masonry buildings and
historical properties, to meet the requirements of the most current
edition of the Uniform Building Code of the International Conference
of Building Officials.
   If an agency undertakes seismic retrofits and proposes to add new
territory to the project area, to increase either the limitation on
the number of dollars to be allocated to the redevelopment agency or
the time limit on the establishing of loans, advances, and
indebtedness established pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of 
subdivision (a) of  Section 33333.2, to lengthen the period
during which the redevelopment plan is effective, to merge project
areas, or to add significant additional capital improvement projects,
as determined by the agency, the agency shall amend its
redevelopment plan and follow the same procedure, and the legislative
body is subject to the same restrictions, as provided for in Article
4 (commencing with Section 33330) for the adoption of a plan.
  SEC. 163.  Section 33684 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   33684.  (a) (1) This section shall apply to each redevelopment
project area that, pursuant to a redevelopment plan that contains the
provisions required by Section 33670, meets any of the following:
   (A) Was adopted on or after January 1, 1994, including later
amendments to these redevelopment plans.
   (B) Was adopted prior to January 1, 1994, but amended after
January 1, 1994, to include new territory. For plans amended after
January 1, 1994, only the tax increments from territory added by the
amendment shall be subject to this section.
   (C) Was adopted prior to January 1, 1994, but amended after
January 1, 1994, to increase the limitation on the number of dollars
to be allocated to the agency or that increased, or eliminated,
pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 33333.6, the
time limit on the establishing of loans, advances, and indebtedness
established pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a) of
Section 33333.6, as those paragraphs read on December 31, 2001, or
that lengthened the period during which the redevelopment plan is
effective if the redevelopment plan being amended contains the
provisions required by subdivision (b) of Section 33670.
   (2) This section shall apply to passthrough payments, as required
by Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7, for the 2003-04 to 2008-09,
inclusive, fiscal years. For purposes of this section, a passthrough
payment shall be considered the responsibility of an agency in the
fiscal year the agency receives the tax increment revenue for which
the passthrough payment is required.
   (3) For purposes of this section, "local educational agency" is a
school district, a community college district, or a county office of
education.
   (b) On or before October 1, 2008, each agency shall submit a
report to the county auditor and to each affected taxing entity that
describes each project area, including its location, purpose, date
established, date or dates amended, and statutory and contractual
passthrough requirements. The report shall specify, by year, for each
project area all of the following:
   (1) Gross tax increment received between July 1, 2003, and June
30, 2008, that is subject to a passthrough payment pursuant to
Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7, and accumulated gross tax increments
through June 30, 2003.
   (2) Total passthrough payments to each taxing entity that the
agency deferred pursuant to a subordination agreement approved by the
taxing agency under subdivision (e) of Section 33607.5 and the dates
these deferred payments will be made.
   (3) Total passthrough payments to each taxing entity that the
agency was responsible to make between July 1, 2003, and June 30,
2008, pursuant to Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7, excluding payments
identified in paragraph (2).
   (4) Total passthrough payments that the agency disbursed to each
taxing entity between July 1, 2003, and June 30, 2008, pursuant to
Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7.
   (5) Total sums reported in paragraph (4) for each local
educational agency that are considered to be property taxes under the
provisions of paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of  Sections
  Section  33607.5 and  Section  33607.7.
   (6) Total outstanding payment obligations to each taxing entity as
of June 30, 2008. This amount shall be calculated by subtracting the
amounts reported in paragraph (4) from paragraph (3) and reporting
any positive  sum   difference  .
   (7) Total outstanding overpayments to each taxing entity as of
June 30, 2008. This amount shall be calculated by subtracting the
amounts reported in paragraph (3) from paragraph (4) and reporting
any positive  sum   difference  .
   (8) The dates on which the agency made payments identified in
paragraph (6) or intends to make the payments identified in paragraph
(6).
   (9) A revised estimate of the agency's total outstanding
passthrough payment obligation to each taxing agency pursuant to
paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) and paragraph (6) of subdivision (c)
and the dates on which the agency intends to make these payments.
   (c) On or before October 1, 2009, each agency shall submit a
report to the county auditor and to each affected taxing entity that
describes each project area, including its location, purpose, date
established, date or dates amended, and statutory and contractual
passthrough requirements. The report shall specify, by year, for each
project area all of the following:
   (1) Gross tax increment received between July 1, 2008, and June
30, 2009, that is subject to a passthrough payment pursuant to
Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7.
   (2) Total passthrough payments to each taxing entity that the
agency deferred pursuant to a subordination agreement approved by the
taxing entity under subdivision (e) of Section 33607.5 and the dates
these deferred payments will be made.
   (3) Total passthrough payments to each taxing entity that the
agency was responsible to make between July 1, 2008, and June 30,
2009, pursuant to Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7, excluding payments
identified in paragraph (2).
   (4) Total passthrough payments that the agency disbursed to each
taxing entity between July 1, 2008, and June 30, 2009, pursuant to
Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7.
   (5) Total sums reported in paragraph (4) for each local
educational agency that are considered to be property taxes under the
provisions of paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Sections 33607.5
and 33607.7.
   (6) Total outstanding payment obligations to each taxing entity as
of June 30, 2009. This amount shall be calculated by subtracting the
amounts reported in paragraph (4) from paragraph (3) and reporting
any positive  sum   difference  .
   (7) Total outstanding overpayments to each taxing entity as of
June 30, 2009. This amount shall be calculated by subtracting the
amounts reported in paragraph (3) from paragraph (4) and reporting
any positive  sum   difference  .
   (8) The dates on which the agency made payments identified in
paragraph (6) or intends to make the payments identified in paragraph
(6).
   (d) If an agency reports pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision
(b) or paragraph (6) of subdivision (c) that it has an outstanding
passthrough payment obligation to any taxing entity, the agency shall
submit annual updates to the county auditor on October 1 of each
year until such time as the county auditor notifies the agency in
writing that the agency's outstanding payment obligations have been
fully satisfied. The report shall contain both of the following:
   (1) A list of payments to each taxing agency and to the
Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund pursuant to subdivision (j)
that the agency disbursed after the agency's last update filed
pursuant to this subdivision or, if no update has been filed, after
the agency's submission of the reports required pursuant to
subdivisions (b) and (c). The list of payments shall include only
those payments that address obligations identified pursuant to
paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) and paragraph (6) of subdivision
(c). The update shall specify the date on which each payment was
disbursed.
   (2) A revised estimate of the agency's total outstanding
passthrough payment obligation to each taxing agency pursuant to
paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) and paragraph (6) of subdivision (c)
and the dates on which the agency intends to make these payments.
   (e) The county auditor shall review each agency's reports
submitted pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c) and any other relevant
information to determine whether the county auditor concurs with the
information included in the reports.
   (1) If the county auditor concurs with the information included in
a report, the county auditor shall issue a finding of concurrence
within 45 days.
   (2) If the county auditor does not concur with the information
included in a report or considers the report to be incomplete, the
county auditor shall return the report to the agency within 45 days
with information identifying the elements of the report with which
the county auditor does not concur or considers to be incomplete. The
county auditor shall provide the agency at least 15 days to respond
to concerns raised by the county auditor regarding the information
contained in the report. An agency may revise a report that has not
received a finding of concurrence and resubmit it to the county
auditor.
   (3) If an agency and county auditor do not agree regarding the
passthrough requirements of Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7, an agency
may submit a report pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c) and a
statement of dispute identifying the issue needing resolution.
   (4) An agency may amend a report for which the county auditor has
issued a finding of concurrence and resubmit the report pursuant to
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) if any of the following apply:
   (A) The county auditor and agency agree that an issue identified
in the agency's statement of dispute has been resolved and the agency
proposes to modify the sections of the report to conform with the
resolution of the statement of dispute.
   (B) The county auditor and agency agree that the amount of gross
tax increment or the amount of a passthrough payment to a taxing
entity included in the report is not accurate.
   (5) The Controller may revoke a finding of concurrence and direct
the agency to resubmit a report to the county auditor pursuant to
paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) if the Controller finds significant
errors in a report.
                                                        (f) On or
before December 15, 2008, and annually thereafter through 2014, the
county auditor shall submit a report to the Controller that includes
all of the following:
   (1) The name of each redevelopment project area in the county for
which an agency must submit a report pursuant to subdivision (b) or
(c) and information as to whether the county auditor has issued a
finding of concurrence regarding the report.
   (2) A list of the agencies for which the county auditor has issued
a finding of concurrence for all project areas identified in
paragraph (1).
   (3) A list of agencies for which the county auditor has not issued
a finding of concurrence for all project areas identified in
paragraph (1).
   (4) Using information applicable to agencies listed in paragraph
(2), the county auditor shall report all of the following:
   (A) The total sums reported by each redevelopment agency related
to each taxing entity pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive,
of subdivision (b) and, on or after December 15, 2009, pursuant to
paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (c).
   (B) The names of agencies that have outstanding passthrough
payment obligations to a local educational agency that exceed the
amount of outstanding passthrough payments to the local educational
agency.
   (C) Summary information regarding agencies' stated plans to pay
the outstanding amounts identified in paragraph (6) of subdivision
(b) and paragraph (6) of subdivision (c) and the actual amounts that
have been deposited into the county Educational Revenue Augmentation
Fund pursuant to subdivision (j).
   (D) All unresolved statements of dispute filed by agencies
pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) and the county auditor's
analyses supporting the county auditor's conclusions regarding the
issues under dispute.
   (g) (1) On or before February 1, 2009, and annually thereafter
through 2015, the Controller shall submit a report to the Legislative
Analyst's Office and the Department of Finance and provide a copy to
the Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges. The
report shall provide information as follows:
   (A) Identify agencies for which the county auditor has issued a
finding of concurrence for all reports required under subdivisions
(b) and (c).
   (B) Identify agencies for which the county auditor has not issued
a finding of concurrence for all reports required pursuant to
subdivision (b) and all reports required pursuant to subdivision (c)
or for which a finding of concurrence has been withdrawn by the
Controller.
   (C) Summarize the information reported in paragraph (4) of
subdivision (f). This summary shall identify, by local educational
agency and by year, the total amount of passthrough payments that
each local educational agency received, was entitled to receive,
subordinated, or that has not yet been paid, and the portion of these
amounts that are considered to be property taxes for purposes of
Sections 2558, 42238, and 84751 of the Education Code. The report
shall identify, by agency, the amounts that have been deposited to
the county Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund pursuant to
subdivision (j).
   (D) Summarize the statements of dispute. The Controller shall
specify the status of these disputes, including whether the
Controller or other state entity has provided instructions as to how
these disputes should be resolved.
   (E) Identify agencies that have outstanding passthrough payment
liabilities to a local educational agency that exceed the amount of
outstanding passthrough overpayments to the local educational agency.

   (2) On or before February 1, 2009, and annually thereafter through
2015, the Controller shall submit a report to the State Department
of Education and the Board of Governors of the California Community
Colleges. The report shall identify, by local educational agency and
by year of receipt, the total amount of passthrough payments that the
local educational agency received from redevelopment agencies listed
in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).
   (h) (1) On or before April 1, 2009, and annually thereafter until
April 1, 2015, the State Department of Education shall do all of the
following:
   (A) Calculate for each school district for the 2003-04 to 2007-08,
inclusive, fiscal years the difference between 43.3 percent of the
amount reported pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) and the
amount subtracted from each school district's apportionment pursuant
to paragraph (6) of subdivision (h) of Section 42238 of the Education
Code.
   (B) Calculate for each county superintendent of schools for the
2003-04 to 2007-08, inclusive, fiscal years the difference between 19
percent of the amount reported pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subdivision (g) and the amount received pursuant to Sections 33607.5
and 33607.7 and subtracted from each county superintendent of schools
apportionment pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2558 of the
Education Code.
   (C) Notify each school district and county superintendent of
schools for which any amount calculated in subparagraph (A) or (B) is
nonzero as to the reported change and its resulting impact on
apportionments. After April 1, 2009, however, the department shall
not notify a school district or county superintendent of schools if
the amount calculated in subparagraph (A) or (B) is the same amount
as the department calculated in the preceding year.
   (2) On or before April 1, 2010, and annually thereafter until
April 1, 2015, the State Department of Education shall do all of the
following:
   (A) Calculate for each school district for the 2008-09 fiscal year
the difference between 43.3 percent of the amount reported pursuant
to paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) and the amount subtracted from
each school district's apportionment pursuant to paragraph (6) of
subdivision (h) of Section 42238 of the Education Code.
   (B) Calculate for each county superintendent of schools for the
2008-09 fiscal year the difference between 19 percent of the amount
reported pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) and the amount
received pursuant to Sections 33607.5 and 33607.7 and subtracted from
each county superintendent of schools apportionment pursuant to
subdivision (c) of Section 2558 of the Education Code.
   (C) Notify each school district and county superintendent of
schools for which any amount calculated in subparagraph (A) or (B) is
nonzero as to the reported change and its resulting impact on
revenue limit apportionments. After April 1, 2010, however, the
department shall not notify a school district or county
superintendent of schools if the amount calculated in subparagraph
(A) or (B) is the same amount as the department calculated in the
preceding year.
   (3) For the purposes of Article 3 (commencing with Section 41330)
of Chapter 3 of Part 24 of Division 3 of  Title 2 of  the
Education Code, the amounts reported to each school district and
county superintendent of schools in the notification required
pursuant to subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) and subparagraph (C) of
paragraph (2) shall be deemed to be apportionment significant audit
exceptions and the date of receipt of that notification shall be
deemed to be the date of receipt of the final audit report that
includes those audit exceptions.
   (4) On or before March 1, 2009, and annually thereafter until
March 1, 2015, the Board of Governors of the California Community
Colleges shall do all of the following:
   (A) Calculate for each community college district for the 2003-04
to 2007-08, inclusive, fiscal years the difference between 47.5
percent of the amount reported pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subdivision (g) and the amount subtracted from each district's total
revenue owed pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 84751 of the
Education Code.
   (B) Notify each community college district for which any amount
calculated in subparagraph (A) is nonzero as to the reported change
and its resulting impact on apportionments. After March 1, 2009,
however, the board shall not notify a school district or county
superintendent of schools if the amount calculated in subparagraph
(A) is the same amount as the board calculated in the preceding year.

   (5) On or before March 1, 2010, and annually thereafter until
March 1, 2015, the Board of Governors of the California Community
Colleges shall do all of the following:
   (A) Calculate for each community college district for the 2003-04
to 2007-08, inclusive, fiscal years the difference between 47.5
percent of the amount reported pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subdivision (g) and the amount subtracted from each district's total
revenue owed pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 84751 of the
Education Code.
   (B) Notify each community college district for which any amount
calculated in subparagraph (A) is nonzero as to the reported change
and its resulting impact on revenue apportionments. After March 1,
2010, however, the board shall not notify a community college
district if the amount calculated in subparagraph (A) is the same
amount as the board calculated in the preceding year.
   (6) A community college district may submit documentation to the
Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges showing that
all or part of the amount reported to the district pursuant to
subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) and subparagraph (B) of paragraph
(5) was previously reported to the California Community Colleges for
the purpose of the revenue level calculations made pursuant to
Section 84751 of the Education Code. Upon acceptance of the
documentation, the board  of governors  shall adjust
the amounts calculated in paragraphs (4) and (5) accordingly.
   (7) The Board of Governors of the California Community Colleges
shall make corrections in any amounts allocated in any fiscal year to
each community college district for which any amount calculated in
paragraphs (4) and (5) is nonzero so as to account for the changes
reported pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) and paragraph
(4) of subdivision (c). The board may make the corrections over a
period of time, not to exceed five years.
   (i) (1) After February 1, 2009, for an agency listed on the most
recent Controller's report pursuant to subparagraph (B) or (E) of
paragraph (1) of subdivision (g), all of the following shall apply:
   (A) The agency shall be prohibited from adding new project areas
or expanding existing project areas. For purposes of this paragraph,
"project area" has the same meaning as in Sections 33320.1 to
33320.3, inclusive, and Section 33492.3.
   (B) The agency shall be prohibited from issuing new bonds, notes,
interim certificates, debentures, or other obligations, whether
funded, refunded, assumed, or otherwise, pursuant to Article 5
(commencing with Section 33640).
   (C) The agency shall be prohibited from encumbering any funds or
expending any moneys derived from any source, except that the agency
may encumber funds and expend funds to pay, if any, all of the
following:
   (i) Bonds, notes, interim certificates, debentures, or other
obligations issued by an agency before the imposition of the
prohibition in subparagraph (B) whether funded, refunded, assumed, or
otherwise, pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 33460)
 of this chapter  .
   (ii) Loans or moneys advanced to the agency, including, but not
limited to, loans from federal, state, local agencies, or a private
entity.
   (iii) Contractual obligations that, if breached, could subject the
agency to damages or other liabilities or remedies.
   (iv) Obligations incurred pursuant to Section 33445.
   (v) Indebtedness incurred pursuant to Section 33334.2 or 33334.6.
   (vi) Obligations incurred pursuant to Section 33401.
   (vii) An amount, to be expended for the monthly operation and
administration of the agency, that may not exceed 75 percent of the
average monthly amount spent for those purposes in the fiscal year
preceding the fiscal year in which the agency was first listed on the
Controller's report pursuant to subparagraph (B) or (E) of paragraph
(1) of subdivision (g).
   (2) After February 1, 2009, an agency identified in subparagraph
(B) or (E) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (g) shall incur interest
charges on any passthrough payment that is made to a local
educational agency more than 60 days after the close of the fiscal
year in which the passthrough payment was required. Interest shall be
charged at a rate equal to 150 percent of the current Pooled Money
Investment Account earnings annual yield rate and shall be charged
for the period beginning 60 days after the close of the fiscal year
in which the passthrough payment was due through the date that the
payment is made.
   (3) The Controller, with the concurrence of the Director of
Finance, may waive the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2) for a
period of up to 12 months if the Controller determines all of the
following:
   (A) The county auditor has identified the agency in its most
recent report issued pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) as
an agency for which the auditor has issued a finding of concurrence
for all reports required pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c).
   (B) The agency has filed a statement of dispute on an issue or
issues that, in the opinion of the Controller, are likely to be
resolved in a manner consistent with the agency's position.
   (C) The agency has made passthrough payments to local educational
agencies and the county Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund, or has
had funds previously withheld by the auditor, in amounts that would
satisfy the agency's passthrough payment requirements to local
educational agencies if the issue or issues addressed in the
statement of dispute were resolved in a manner consistent with the
agency's position.
   (D) The agency would sustain a fiscal hardship if it made
passthrough payments to local educational agencies and the county
Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund in the amounts estimated by the
county auditor.
   (j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if an agency
report submitted pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c) indicates
outstanding payment obligations to a local educational agency, the
agency shall make these outstanding payments as follows:
   (1) Of the outstanding payments owed to school districts,
including any interest payments pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subdivision (i), 43.3 percent shall be deposited in the county
Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund and the remainder shall be
allocated to the school district or districts.
   (2) Of the outstanding payments owed to community college
districts, including any interest payments pursuant to paragraph (2)
of subdivision (i), 47.5 percent shall be deposited in the county
Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund and the remainder shall be
allocated to the community college district or districts.
   (3) Of the outstanding payments owed to county offices of
education, including any interest payments pursuant to paragraph (2)
of subdivision (i), 19 percent shall be deposited in the county
Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund and the remainder shall be
allocated to the county office of education.
   (k) (1) This section shall not be construed to increase any
allocations of excess, additional, or remaining funds that would
otherwise have been allocated to cities, counties, cities and
counties, or special districts pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph
(B) of paragraph (4) of subdivision (d) of Section 97.2 of, clause
(i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) of subdivision (d) of
Section 97.3 of, or Article 4 (commencing with Section 98) of Chapter
6 of Part 0.5 of Division 1 of, the Revenue and Taxation Code had
this section not been enacted.
   (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no funds deposited
in the county Educational Revenue Augmentation Fund pursuant to
subdivision (j) shall be distributed to a community college district.

   (l) A county may require an agency to reimburse the county for any
expenses incurred by the county in performing the services required
by this section.
  SEC. 164.  Section 41999 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   41999.  (a) The state board shall develop and establish a grant
program that provides incentives for dry cleaners in the state that
utilize perchloroethylene in their operations to transition to
utilizing dry cleaning systems determined by the state board, in
consultation with the Office of Environmental Health Hazard
Assessment, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department
of Toxic Substances Control, and any other entity the state board
determines to be appropriate, to be nontoxic and nonsmog-forming.
   (b) To be eligible for a grant pursuant to this section,
applicants shall completely replace their 
percholorethylene-based   perchlorethylene-based 
dry cleaning system with a system that the state board, in
consultation with the Office of Environmental Health Hazard
Assessment, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department
of Toxic Substances Control, and any other entity the state board
determines to be appropriate, has determined to be nontoxic and
nonsmog-forming. The state board shall determine the eligibility of
grant recipients.
   (c) The state board shall make grants available in the amount of
ten thousand dollars ($10,000) to any eligible dry cleaning operation
for the purchase of a professional dry cleaning system that uses a
nontoxic and nonsmog-forming process, as determined by the state
board, in consultation with the Office of Environmental Health Hazard
Assessment, the State Water Resources Control Board, the Department
of Toxic Substances Control, and any other entity the state board
determines to be appropriate.
   (d) The state board shall ensure that at least 50 percent of the
grant moneys provided pursuant to this section are awarded in a
manner that directly reduces air contaminants or reduces the public
health risk associated with air contaminants in communities with the
most significant exposure to air contaminants or localized air
contaminants, or both, including, but not limited to, communities of
minority populations or low-income populations, or both.
   (e) Commencing January 1, 2007, and every three years thereafter,
the state board shall provide a report to the Legislature evaluating
 the  effectiveness of the grant program.
   (f) The state board shall establish a demonstration program to
showcase professional nontoxic and  nonsmog forming 
 nonsmog-   forming  dry cleaning technologies in
the state. The demonstration program shall require 50 percent
matching funds to cover the costs of the demonstration program. Any
entity may contribute  monies   moneys  as
matching funds, including, but not limited to, a state or federal
agency, an air pollution control district or air quality management
district, a public utility district, or a nonprofit entity. Not more
than 30 percent of the funds deposited annually in the Nontoxic Dry
Cleaning Incentive Trust Fund may be used for the demonstration
program.
  SEC. 165.  Section 44272.3 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   44272.3.  (a) It is the  Legislature's  intent
 of the Legislature  that, to the maximum extent feasible,
loan moneys provided by the state to refiners of biofuels, also known
as biorefiners, be awarded so as to increase the efficiency and
environmental sustainability of biofuel production.
   (b) In order to reduce the carbon intensity equivalent value of
the fuel that biorefiners produce, biorefiners receiving loans from
the commission's California Ethanol Producer Incentive Program,
established under the authority of this chapter, shall meet all of
the following requirements:
   (1) Within six months of acceptance to the program, biorefiners
shall submit a draft plan to the commission that details one or more
projects that can be undertaken at the biorefinery that are designed
to achieve compliance with either of two biorefinery operational
enhancement goals established by the commission.
   (2) Within 12 months of acceptance to the program, biorefiners
shall submit a detailed cost estimate for their target projects that
can be undertaken at the biorefinery and that are designed to achieve
compliance with the commission's enhancement goals.
   (3) Within 24 months of acceptance to the program, biorefiners
shall complete and obtain all of the necessary permits or negative
declarations sufficient to allow the project to move forward with
financing, major equipment purchases, and hiring if project approval
is executed by the company's officers.
   (4) Within 36 months of acceptance to the program, biorefiners
shall obtain all of the necessary financing and initiate construction
for their project associated with their elected enhancement goal
pathway.
   (5) Within 48 months of acceptance to the program, biorefiners
shall complete all modifications to the facility and begin modified
operations that achieve compliance with either of the enhancement
goal pathways selected by the project applicant.
   (c) This section does not limit the commission's ability to set
more stringent guidelines for the California Ethanol Producer
Incentive Program that further maximize the efficiency and
environmental sustainability of biofuel production.
   (d)This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2013, and, as
of January 1, 2014, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
becomes operative on or before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends
the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
  SEC. 166.  Section 44559.11 of the Health and Safety Code is
amended to read:
   44559.11.  It is the intent of the Legislature to ensure that the
state, through the authority, may make maximum, efficient use of
capital access programs enacted by all federal and state agencies, as
well as funding available from any governmental program whose goals
may be advanced by providing funding to the Capital Access Loan
Program. In furtherance of this intent, and  not withstanding
  notwithstanding  any other provision of this
article, when the contributions required pursuant to subdivision (c)
of Section 44559.4 are entirely funded by a source other than the
authority, the authority may, by regulation adopted pursuant to
subdivision (b) of Section 44520, establish alternate provisions as
necessary to enable the authority to participate in the alternative
funding source program.
  SEC. 167.  Section 50843.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   50843.5.  (a) Subject to the availability of funding, the
department shall make matching grants available to cities, counties,
city and counties, and charitable nonprofit organizations organized
under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that have
created and are operating or will operate housing trust funds. These
funds shall be awarded through the issuance of a Notice of Funding
Availability (NOFA).
   (1) Applicants that provide matching funds from a source or
sources other than impact fees on residential development shall
receive a priority for funding.
   (2) The department shall set aside funding for new trusts, as
defined by the department in the NOFA.
   (b) Housing trusts eligible for funding under this section shall
have the following characteristics:
   (1) Utilization of a public or joint public and private fund
established by legislation, ordinance, resolution, or a
public-private partnership to receive specific revenue to address
local housing needs.
   (2) Receipt of ongoing revenues from dedicated sources of funding
such as taxes, fees, loan repayments, or private contributions.
   (c) The minimum allocation to an applicant that is a newly
established trust shall be five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).
The minimum allocation for all other trusts shall be one million
dollars ($1,000,000). No applicant may receive an allocation in
excess of two million dollars ($2,000,000). All funds provided
pursuant to this section shall be matched on a dollar-for-dollar
basis with  money   moneys  that 
is   are not required by any state or federal law
to be spent on housing. No application for an existing housing trust
shall be considered unless the department has received adequate
documentation of the deposit in the local housing trust fund of the
local match and the identity of the source of matching funds. An
application for a new trust shall not be considered unless the
department has received adequate documentation, as determined by the
department, that an ordinance imposing or dedicating a tax or fee to
be deposited into the new trust has been enacted or the applicant has
adopted a legally binding commitment to deposit matching funds into
the new trust. Funds shall not be disbursed by the department to any
trust until all matching funds are on deposit and then funds may be
disbursed only in amounts necessary to fund projects identified to
receive a loan from the trust within a reasonable period of time, as
determined by the department. Applicants shall be required to
continue funding the local housing trust fund from these identified
local sources, and continue the trust in operation, for a period of
no less than five years from the date of award. If the funding is not
continued for a five-year period, then (1) the amount of the
department's grant to the local housing trust fund, to the extent
that the trust fund has unencumbered funds available, shall be
immediately repaid, and (2) any payments from any projects funded by
the local housing trust fund that would have been paid to the local
housing trust fund shall be paid instead to the department and used
for the program or its successor. The total amount paid to the
department pursuant to (1) and (2), combined, shall not exceed the
amount of the department's grant.
   (d) (1) Funds shall be used for the predevelopment costs,
acquisition, construction, or rehabilitation of the following types
of housing or projects:
   (A) Rental housing projects or units within rental housing
projects. The affordability of all assisted units shall be restricted
for not less than 55 years.
   (B) Emergency shelters, safe havens, and transitional housing, as
these terms are defined in Section 50801.
   (C)  For sale   For-sale   
housing projects or units within for sale housing projects.
   (2) At least 30 percent of the total amount of the grant and the
match shall be expended on projects, units, or shelters that are
affordable to, and restricted for, extremely  low-income
persons and families   low income households  , as
defined in Section 50106. No more than 20 percent of the total amount
of the grant and the match shall be expended on projects or units
affordable to, and restricted for, moderate-income persons and
families whose income does not exceed
                 120 percent of the area median income. The remaining
funds shall be used for projects, units, or shelters that are
affordable to, and restricted for, lower income  persons and
families   households  , as defined in Section
50079.5.
   (3) If funds are used for the acquisition, construction, or
rehabilitation of  for sale   for-sale 
housing projects or units within  for sale  
for-sale  housing projects, the grantee shall record a deed
restriction against the property that will ensure compliance with one
of the following requirements upon resale of the  for sale
  for-sale  housing units, unless it is in conflict
with the requirements of another public funding source or law:
   (A) If the property is sold within 30 years from the date that
trust funds are used to acquire, construct, or rehabilitate the
property, the owner or subsequent owner shall sell the home at an
affordable housing cost, as defined in Section  50025.5
  50052.5  , to a household that meets the relevant
income qualifications.
   (B) The owner and grantee shall share the equity in the unit
pursuant to an equity-sharing agreement. The grantee shall reuse the
proceeds of the  equity sharing   equity- 
 sharing  agreement consistent with this section. To the
extent not in conflict with another public funding source or law, all
of the following shall apply to the equity-sharing agreement
provided for by the deed restriction:
   (i) Upon resale by an owner-occupant of the home, the
owner-occupant of the home shall retain the market value of any
improvements, the downpayment, and his or her proportionate share of
appreciation. The grantee shall recapture any initial subsidy and its
proportionate share of appreciation, which shall then be used to
make housing available to persons and families of the same income
category as the original grant and for any type of housing or shelter
specified in paragraph (1).
   (ii) For purposes of this subdivision, the initial subsidy shall
be equal to the fair market value of the home at the time of initial
sale to the owner-occupant minus the initial sale price to the
owner-occupant, plus the amount of any downpayment assistance or
mortgage assistance. If upon resale by the owner-occupant the market
value is lower than the initial market value, then the value at the
time of the resale shall be used as the initial market value.
   (iii) For purposes of this subdivision, the grantee's
proportionate share of appreciation shall be equal to the ratio of
the initial subsidy to the fair market value of the home at the time
of the initial sale.
   (e) Loan repayments shall accrue to the grantee housing trust for
use pursuant to this section. If the trust no longer exists, loan
repayments shall accrue to the department for use in the program or
its successor.
   (f) (1) In order for a city, county, or city and county to be
eligible for funding, the applicant shall, at the time of
application, meet both of the following requirements:
   (A) Have an adopted housing element that the department has
determined, pursuant to Section 65585 of the Government Code, is in
substantial compliance with the requirements of Article 10.6
(commencing with Section 65580) of Chapter 3 of Division 1 of Title 7
of the Government Code.
   (B) Have submitted to the department the annual progress report
required by Section 65400 of the Government Code within the preceding
12 months, if the department has adopted the forms and definitions
pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of
Section 65400 of the Government Code.
   (2) In order for a nonprofit organization applicant to be eligible
for funding, the applicant shall agree to utilize funds provided
under this chapter only for projects located in cities, counties, or
a city and county that, at the time of application, meet both of the
following requirements:
   (A) Have an adopted housing element that the department has
determined, pursuant to Section 65585 of the Government Code, to be
in substantial compliance with the requirements of Article 10.6
(commencing with Section 65580) of Chapter 3 of Division 1 of Title 7
of the Government Code.
   (B) Have submitted to the department the annual progress report
required by Section 65400 of the Government Code within the preceding
12 months, if the department has adopted the forms and definitions
pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of
Section 65400 of the Government Code.
   (g) Recipients shall have held, or shall agree to hold, a public
hearing or hearings to discuss and describe the project or projects
that will be financed with funds provided pursuant to this section.
As a condition of receiving a grant pursuant to this section, any
nonprofit organization shall agree that it will hold one public
meeting a year to discuss the criteria that will be used to select
projects to be funded. That meeting shall be open to the public, and
public notice of this meeting shall be provided, except to the extent
that any similar meeting of a city or county would be permitted to
be held in closed session.
   (h) No more than 5 percent of the funds appropriated to the
department for the purposes of this program shall be used to pay the
costs of administration of this section.
   (i) A local housing trust fund shall encumber funds provided
pursuant to this section no later than 36 months after receipt. Any
funds not encumbered within that period shall revert to the
department for use in the program or its successor.
   (j) Recipients shall be required to file periodic reports with the
department regarding the use of funds provided pursuant to this
section. No later than December 31 of each year in which funds are
awarded by the program, the department shall provide a report to the
Legislature regarding the number of trust funds created, a
description of the projects supported, the number of units assisted,
and the amount of matching funds received.
  SEC. 168.  Section 51058.5 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   51058.5.  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the agency
is not required to promulgate rules and regulations in order to
establish or operate a mortgage refinance program. Instead, that
program may be established by the governing board of the agency
through resolutions adopted by that board, and operated by the agency
in accordance with resolutions adopted by the board. Those
resolutions shall be exempt from the requirements of the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3
of Title 2 of the Government Code).
  SEC. 169.  Section 102247 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended
by Section 5 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   102247.  (a) There is hereby created in the State Treasury the
Health Statistics Special Fund. The fund shall consist of revenues,
including, but not limited to, all of the following:
   (1) Fees or charges remitted to the State Registrar for record
search or issuance of certificates, permits, registrations, or other
documents pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 26801) of
Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, and Chapter 4
(commencing with Section 102525), Chapter 5 (commencing with Section
102625), Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 103050), and Chapter 15
(commencing with Section 103600) of Part 1 of Division 102  of
this code  .
   (2) Funds remitted to the State Registrar by the federal Social
Security Administration for participation in the enumeration at birth
program.
   (3) Funds remitted to the State Registrar by the National Center
for Health Statistics pursuant to the federal Vital Statistics
Cooperative Program.
   (4) Any other funds collected by the State Registrar, except
Children's Trust Fund fees collected pursuant to Section 18966 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code, Umbilical Cord Blood Collection
Program Fund fees collected pursuant to Section  1628
  103625  ,  and  fees allocated to the
Judicial Council pursuant to Section 1852 of the Family Code,
 and fees collected pursuant to Section 103645,  all
of which shall be deposited into the General Fund.
   (b) Moneys in the Health Statistics Special Fund shall be expended
by the State Registrar for the purpose of funding its existing
programs and programs that may become necessary to carry out its
mission, upon appropriation by the Legislature.
   (c) Health Statistics Special Fund moneys shall be expended only
for the purposes set forth in this section and Section 102249, and
shall not be expended for any other purpose or for any other state
program.
   (d) It is the intent of the Legislature that the Health Statistics
Special Fund provide for the following:
   (1) Registration and preservation of vital event records and
dissemination of vital event information to the public.
   (2) Data analysis of vital statistics for population projections,
health trends and patterns, epidemiologic research, and development
of information to support new health policies.
   (3) Development of uniform health data systems that are
integrated, accessible, and useful in the collection of information
on health status.
   (e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2018, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 170.  Section 102247 of the Health and Safety Code, as added
by Section 6 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   102247.  (a) There is hereby created in the State Treasury the
Health Statistics Special Fund. The fund shall consist of revenues,
including, but not limited to, all of the following:
   (1) Fees or charges remitted to the State Registrar for record
search or issuance of certificates, permits, registrations, or other
documents pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 26801) of
Part 3 of Division 2 of Title 3 of the Government Code, and Chapter 4
(commencing with Section 102525), Chapter 5 (commencing with Section
102625), Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 103050), and Chapter 15
(commencing with Section 103600) of Part 1 of Division 102  of
this code  .
   (2) Funds remitted to the State Registrar by the federal Social
Security Administration for participation in the enumeration at birth
program.
   (3) Funds remitted to the State Registrar by the National Center
for Health Statistics pursuant to the federal Vital Statistics
Cooperative Program.
   (4) Any other funds collected by the State Registrar, except
Children's Trust Fund fees collected pursuant to Section 18966 of the
Welfare and Institutions Code  ,   and 
fees allocated to the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 1852 of
the Family Code,  and fees collected pursuant to Section
103645,  all of which shall be deposited into the General
Fund.
   (b) Moneys in the Health Statistics Special Fund shall be expended
by the State Registrar for the purpose of funding its existing
programs and programs that may become necessary to carry out its
mission, upon appropriation by the Legislature.
   (c) Health Statistics Special Fund moneys shall be expended only
for the purposes set forth in this section and Section 102249, and
shall not be expended for any other purpose or for any other state
program.
   (d) It is the intent of the Legislature that the Health Statistics
Special Fund provide for the following:
   (1) Registration and preservation of vital event records and
dissemination of vital event information to the public.
   (2) Data analysis of vital statistics for population projections,
health trends and patterns, epidemiologic research, and development
of information to support new health policies.
   (3) Development of uniform health data systems that are
integrated, accessible, and useful in the collection of information
on health status.
   (e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.
  SEC. 171.  Section 103605 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended
by Section 7 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   103605.  (a) The  money   moneys 
collected by the State Registrar shall be deposited with the
Treasurer for credit to the Health Statistics Special Fund, except
for the Children's Trust Fund fees collected pursuant to Section
18966 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the Umbilical Cord Blood
Collection Program Fund fees collected pursuant to Section 
1628   103625  ,  and  the fees allocated
to the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 1852 of the Family Code,
 and the fees collected pursuant to Section 103645, 
all of which shall be deposited in the General Fund.
   (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2018, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 172.  Section 103605 of the Health and Safety Code, as added
by Section 8 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   103605.  (a) The  money   moneys 
collected by the State Registrar shall be deposited with the
Treasurer for credit to the Health Statistics Special Fund, except
for the Children's Trust Fund fees collected pursuant to Section
18966 of the Welfare and Institutions Code  ,  
and  the fees allocated to the Judicial Council pursuant to
Section 1852 of the Family Code,  and the fees collected
pursuant to Section 103645,  all of which shall be deposited
in the General Fund.
   (b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.
  SEC. 173.  Section 103625 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended
by Section 9 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   103625.  (a) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by the
applicant for a certified copy of a fetal death or death record.
   (b) (1) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public
agency or licensed private adoption agency applicant for a certified
copy of a birth certificate that the agency is required to obtain in
the ordinary course of business. A fee of nine dollars ($9) shall be
paid by any other applicant for a certified copy of a birth
certificate. Four dollars ($4) of any nine-dollar ($9) fee is exempt
from subdivision (e) and shall be paid either to a county children's
trust fund or to the State Children's Trust Fund, in conformity with
Article 5 (commencing with Section 18965) of Chapter 11 of Part 6 of
Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. Two dollars ($2) of
any nine-dollar ($9) fee is exempt from subdivision (e) and shall be
paid to the Umbilical Cord Blood Collection Program Fund in
conformity with Section 1628.
   (2) The board of supervisors of any county that has established a
county children's trust fund may increase the fee for a certified
copy of a birth certificate by up to three dollars ($3) for deposit
in the county children's trust fund in conformity with Article 5
(commencing with Section 18965) of Chapter 11 of Part 6 of Division 9
of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
   (c) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public agency
applicant for a certified copy of a marriage record, that has been
filed with the county recorder or county clerk, that the agency is
required to obtain in the ordinary course of business. A fee of six
dollars ($6) shall be paid by any other applicant for a certified
copy of a marriage record that has been filed with the county
recorder or county clerk. Three dollars ($3) of any six-dollar ($6)
fee is exempt from subdivision (e) and shall be transmitted monthly
by each local registrar, county recorder, and county clerk to the
state for deposit into the General Fund as provided by Section 1852
of the Family Code.
   (d) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public agency
applicant for a certified copy of a marriage dissolution record
obtained from the State Registrar that the agency is required to
obtain in the ordinary course of business. A fee of six dollars ($6)
shall be paid by any other applicant for a certified copy of a
marriage dissolution record obtained from the State Registrar.
   (e) Each local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk
collecting a fee pursuant to subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive,
shall transmit 15 percent of the fee for each certified copy to the
State Registrar by the 10th day of the month following the month in
which the fee was received.
   (f) In addition to the fees prescribed pursuant to subdivisions
(a) to (d), inclusive, all applicants for certified copies of the
records described in those subdivisions shall pay an additional fee
of three dollars ($3), that shall be collected by the State
Registrar, the local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk, as
the case may be.
   (g) The local public official charged with the collection of the
additional fee established pursuant to subdivision (f) may create a
local vital and health statistics trust fund. The fees collected by
local public officials pursuant to subdivision (f) shall be
distributed as follows:
   (1) Forty-five percent of the fee collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) shall be transmitted to the State Registrar.
   (2) The remainder of the fee collected pursuant to subdivision (f)
shall be deposited into the collecting agency's vital and health
statistics trust fund, except that in any jurisdiction in which a
local vital and health statistics trust fund has not been
established, the entire amount of the fee collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) shall be transmitted to the State Registrar.
   (3) Moneys transmitted to the State Registrar pursuant to this
subdivision shall be deposited in accordance with Section 102247.
   (h) Moneys in each local vital and health statistics trust fund
shall be available to the local official charged with the collection
of fees pursuant to subdivision (f) for the applicable jurisdiction
for the purpose of defraying the administrative costs of collecting
and reporting with respect to those fees and for other costs as
follows:
   (1) Modernization of vital record operations, including
improvement, automation, and technical support of vital record
systems.
   (2) Improvement in the collection and analysis of health-related
birth and death certificate information, and other community health
data collection and analysis, as appropriate.
   (i) Funds collected pursuant to subdivision (f) shall not be used
to supplant funding in existence on January 1, 2002, that is
necessary for the daily operation of vital record systems. It is the
intent of the Legislature that funds collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) be used to enhance service to the public, to improve
analytical capabilities of state and local health authorities in
addressing the health needs of newborn children and maternal health
problems, and to analyze the health status of the general population.

   (j) Each county shall annually submit a report to the State
Registrar by March 1 containing information on the amount of revenues
collected pursuant to subdivision (f) in the previous calendar year
and on how the revenues were expended and for what purpose.
   (k) Each local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk
collecting the fee pursuant to subdivision (f) shall transmit 45
percent of the fee for each certified copy to which subdivision (f)
applies to the State Registrar by the 10th day of the month following
the month in which the fee was received.
   (l) The additional three dollars ($3) authorized to be charged to
applicants other than public agency applicants for certified copies
of marriage records by subdivision (c) may be increased pursuant to
Section  114   100430  .
   (m) In providing for the expiration of the surcharge on birth
certificate fees on June 30, 1999, the Legislature intends that
juvenile dependency mediation programs pursue ancillary funding
sources after that date.
   (n) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2018, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 174.  Section 103625 of the Health and Safety Code, as added
by Section 10 of Chapter 529 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   103625.  (a) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by the
applicant for a certified copy of a fetal death or death record.
   (b) (1) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public
agency or licensed private adoption agency applicant for a certified
copy of a birth certificate that the agency is required to obtain in
the ordinary course of business. A fee of seven dollars ($7) shall be
paid by any other applicant for a certified copy of a birth
certificate. Four dollars ($4) of any seven-dollar ($7) fee is exempt
from subdivision (e) and shall be paid either to a county children's
trust fund or to the State Children's Trust Fund, in conformity with
Article 5 (commencing with Section 18965) of Chapter 11 of Part 6 of
Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
   (2) The board of supervisors of any county that has established a
county children's trust fund may increase the fee for a certified
copy of a birth certificate by up to three dollars ($3) for deposit
in the county children's trust fund in conformity with Article 5
(commencing with Section 18965) of Chapter 11 of Part 6 of Division 9
of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
   (c) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public agency
applicant for a certified copy of a marriage record, that has been
filed with the county recorder or county clerk, that the agency is
required to obtain in the ordinary course of business. A fee of six
dollars ($6) shall be paid by any other applicant for a certified
copy of a marriage record that has been filed with the county
recorder or county clerk. Three dollars ($3) of any six-dollar ($6)
fee is exempt from subdivision (e) and shall be transmitted monthly
by each local registrar, county recorder, and county clerk to the
state for deposit into the General Fund as provided by Section 1852
of the Family Code.
   (d) A fee of three dollars ($3) shall be paid by a public agency
applicant for a certified copy of a marriage dissolution record
obtained from the State Registrar that the agency is required to
obtain in the ordinary course of business. A fee of six dollars ($6)
shall be paid by any other applicant for a certified copy of a
marriage dissolution record obtained from the State Registrar.
   (e) Each local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk
collecting a fee pursuant to subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive,
shall transmit 15 percent of the fee for each certified copy to the
State Registrar by the 10th day of the month following the month in
which the fee was received.
   (f) In addition to the fees prescribed pursuant to subdivisions
(a) to (d), inclusive, all applicants for certified copies of the
records described in those subdivisions shall pay an additional fee
of three dollars ($3), that shall be collected by the State
Registrar, the local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk, as
the case may be.
   (g) The local public official charged with the collection of the
additional fee established pursuant to subdivision (f) may create a
local vital and health statistics trust fund. The fees collected by
local public officials pursuant to subdivision (f) shall be
distributed as follows:
   (1) Forty-five percent of the fee collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) shall be transmitted to the State Registrar.
   (2) The remainder of the fee collected pursuant to subdivision (f)
shall be deposited into the collecting agency's vital and health
statistics trust fund, except that in any jurisdiction in which a
local vital and health statistics trust fund has not been
established, the entire amount of the fee collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) shall be transmitted to the State Registrar.
   (3) Moneys transmitted to the State Registrar pursuant to this
subdivision shall be deposited in accordance with Section 102247.
   (h) Moneys in each local vital and health statistics trust fund
shall be available to the local official charged with the collection
of fees pursuant to subdivision (f) for the applicable jurisdiction
for the purpose of defraying the administrative costs of collecting
and reporting with respect to those fees and for other costs as
follows:
   (1) Modernization of vital record operations, including
improvement, automation, and technical support of vital record
systems.
   (2) Improvement in the collection and analysis of health-related
birth and death certificate information, and other community health
data collection and analysis, as appropriate.
   (i) Funds collected pursuant to subdivision (f) shall not be used
to supplant funding in existence on January 1, 2002, that is
necessary for the daily operation of vital record systems. It is the
intent of the Legislature that funds collected pursuant to
subdivision (f) be used to enhance service to the public, to improve
analytical capabilities of state and local health authorities in
addressing the health needs of newborn children and maternal health
problems, and to analyze the health status of the general population.

   (j) Each county shall annually submit a report to the State
Registrar by March 1 containing information on the amount of revenues
collected pursuant to subdivision (f) in the previous calendar year
and on how the revenues were expended and for what purpose.
   (k) Each local registrar, county recorder, or county clerk
collecting the fee pursuant to subdivision (f) shall transmit 45
percent of the fee for each certified copy to which subdivision (f)
applies to the State Registrar by the 10th day of the month following
the month in which the fee was received.
   (l) The additional three dollars ($3) authorized to be charged to
applicants other than public agency applicants for certified copies
of marriage records by subdivision (c) may be increased pursuant to
Section  114   100430  .
   (m) In providing for the expiration of the surcharge on birth
certificate fees on June 30, 1999, the Legislature intends that
juvenile dependency mediation programs pursue ancillary funding
sources after that date.
   (n) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.
  SEC. 175.  Section 115113 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   115113.  (a) Except for an event that results from patient
movement or interference, a facility shall report to the department
an event in which the administration of radiation results in 
and   any  of the following:
   (1) Repeating of a CT examination, unless otherwise ordered by a
physician or a radiologist, if the following dose values are
exceeded:
                         (A) 0.05Sv (5 rem) effective dose
equivalent.
   (B) 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to an organ or tissue.
   (C) 0.5 Sv (50 rem) shallow dose equivalent to the skin.
   (2) CT X-ray irradiation of a body part other than that intended
by the ordering physician or a radiologist if one of the following
dose values are exceeded:
   (A) 0.05 Sv (5 rem) effective dose equivalent.
   (B) 0.5 Sv (50 rem) to an organ or tissue.
   (C) 0.5 Sv (50 rem) shallow dose equivalent to the skin.
   (3) CT or therapeutic exposure that results in unanticipated
permanent functional damage to an organ or a physiological system,
hair loss, or erythema, as determined by a qualified physician.
   (4) A CT or therapeutic dose to an embryo or fetus that is greater
than 50 mSv (5 rem) dose equivalent, that is a result of radiation
to a known pregnant individual unless the dose to the embryo or fetus
was specifically approved, in advance, by a qualified physician.
   (5) Therapeutic ionizing irradiation of the wrong individual, or
wrong treatment site.
   (6) The total dose from therapeutic ionizing radiation delivered
differs from the prescribed dose by 20 percent or more. A report
shall not be required pursuant to this paragraph in any instance
where the dose administered exceeds 20 percent of the amount
prescribed in a situation where the radiation was utilized for
palliative care for the specific patient. The radiation oncologist
shall notify the referring physician that the dose was exceeded.
   (b) The facility shall, no later than five business days after
discovery of an event described in subdivision (a), provide
notification of the event to the department and the referring
physician of the person subject to the event and shall, no later than
15 business days after discovery of an event described in
subdivision (a) provide written notification to the person who is
subject to the event.
   (c) The information required pursuant to this section shall
include, but not be limited to, information regarding each
substantiated adverse event, as defined in Section 1279.1, reported
to the department, and may include compliance information history.
  SEC. 176.  Section 120335 of the Health and Safety Code, as amended
by Section 2 of Chapter 434 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   120335.  (a) As used in this chapter,  but excluding
Section 120380, and as used in Sections 120400, 120405, 120410, and
120415, the term  "governing authority" means the governing
board of each school district or the authority of each other private
or public institution responsible for the operation and control of
the institution or the principal or administrator of each school or
institution.
   (b) The governing authority shall not unconditionally admit any
person as a pupil of any private or public elementary or secondary
school, child care center, day nursery, nursery school, family day
care home, or development center, unless ,  prior to his or
her first admission to that institution  ,  he or she has
been fully immunized. The following are the diseases for which
immunizations shall be documented:
   (1) Diphtheria.
   (2) Haemophilus influenzae type b.
   (3) Measles.
   (4) Mumps.
   (5) Pertussis (whooping cough).
   (6) Poliomyelitis.
   (7) Rubella.
   (8) Tetanus.
   (9) Hepatitis B.
   (10) Varicella (chickenpox).
   (11) Any other disease deemed appropriate by the department,
taking into consideration the recommendations of the Advisory
Committee on Immunization Practices of the United States Department
of Health and Human Services, the American Academy of Pediatrics, and
the American Academy of Family Physicians.
   (c) Commencing July 1, 2011, notwithstanding subdivision (b), full
immunization against hepatitis B shall not be a condition by which
the governing authority admits or advances any pupil to the 7th grade
level of any private or public elementary or secondary school.
   (d) Commencing July 1, 2011, the governing authority shall not
unconditionally admit or advance any pupil to the 7th through 12th
grade levels, inclusive, of any private or public elementary or
secondary school unless the pupil has been fully immunized against
pertussis, including all pertussis boosters appropriate for the pupil'
s age.
   (e) The department may specify the immunizing agents 
which   that  may be utilized and the manner in
which immunizations are administered.
   (f) This section shall become inoperative on June 30, 2012, and as
of January 1, 2013, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
that is enacted before January 1, 2013, deletes or extends that date.

   (g) The department may adopt emergency regulations to implement
subdivisions (c) and (d)  ,  including, but not limited to,
requirements for documentation and immunization status reports, in
accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative
Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1
of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The initial
adoption of emergency regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency
and considered by the Office of Administrative Law as necessary for
the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety, or
general welfare. Emergency regulations adopted pursuant to this
subdivision shall remain in effect for no more than 180 days.
  SEC. 177.  Section 120335 of the Health and Safety Code, as added
by Section 3 of Chapter 434 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   120335.  (a) As used in this chapter,  but excluding
Section 120380, and as used in Sections 120400, 120405, 120410, and
120415, the term  "governing authority" means the governing
board of each school district or the authority of each other private
or public institution responsible for the operation and control of
the institution or the principal or administrator of each school or
institution.
   (b) The governing authority shall not unconditionally admit any
person as a pupil of any private or public elementary or secondary
school, child care center, day nursery, nursery school, family day
care home, or development center, unless  ,  prior to his or
her first admission to that institution  ,  he or she has
been fully immunized. The following are the diseases for which
immunizations shall be documented:
   (1) Diphtheria.
   (2) Haemophilus influenzae type b.
   (3) Measles.
   (4) Mumps.
   (5) Pertussis (whooping cough).
   (6) Poliomyelitis.
   (7) Rubella.
   (8) Tetanus.
   (9) Hepatitis B.
   (10) Varicella (chickenpox).
   (11) Any other disease deemed appropriate by the department,
taking into consideration the recommendations of the Advisory
Committee on Immunization Practices of the United States Department
of Health and Human Services, the American Academy of Pediatrics, and
the American Academy of Family Physicians.
   (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), full immunization against
hepatitis B shall not be a condition by which the governing authority
shall admit or advance any pupil to the 7th grade level of any
private or public elementary or secondary school.
   (d) The governing authority shall not unconditionally admit or
advance any pupil to the 7th grade level of any private or public
elementary or secondary school unless the pupil has been fully
immunized against pertussis, including all pertussis boosters
appropriate for the pupil's age.
   (e) The department may specify the immunizing agents 
which   that  may be utilized and the manner in
which immunizations are administered.
   (f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2012.
  SEC. 178.  Section 120955 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   120955.  (a) (1)  To the extent that state and federal funds are
appropriated in the annual Budget Act for these purposes, the
director shall establish and may administer a program to provide drug
treatments to persons infected with human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV), the etiologic agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS). If the director makes a formal determination that, in any
fiscal year, funds appropriated for the program will be insufficient
to provide all of those drug treatments to existing eligible persons
for the fiscal year and that a suspension of the implementation of
the program is necessary, the director may suspend eligibility
determinations and enrollment in the program for the period of time
necessary to meet the needs of existing eligible persons in the
program.
   (2) The director, in consultation with the AIDS Drug Assistance
Program Medical Advisory Committee, shall develop, maintain, and
update as necessary a list of drugs to be provided under this
program. The list shall be exempt from the requirements of the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340), Chapter 4 (commencing
with Section 11370), and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of
Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), and shall
not be subject to the review and approval of the Office of
Administrative Law. In addition, the director shall notify the fiscal
and policy committees of the Legislature of any additions,
deletions, or restrictions to the list within 15 business days of the
action. At a minimum, this notification shall describe the specific
change to the formulary, the reason for the action taken, the
estimated number of people it may affect, and any estimate of costs
or savings where applicable.
   (b) The director may grant funds to a county public health
department through standard agreements to administer this program in
that county. To maximize the recipients' access to drugs covered by
this program, the director shall urge the county health department in
counties granted these funds to decentralize distribution of the
drugs to the recipients.
   (c) The director shall establish a rate structure for
reimbursement for the cost of each drug included in the program.
Rates shall not be less than the actual cost of the drug. However,
the director may purchase a listed drug directly from the
manufacturer and negotiate the most favorable bulk price for that
drug.
   (d) Manufacturers of the drugs on the list shall pay the
department a rebate equal to the rebate that would be applicable to
the drug under Section 1927(c) of the federal Social Security Act (42
U.S.C. Sec. 1396r-8(c)) plus an additional rebate to be negotiated
by each manufacturer with the department, except that no rebates
shall be paid to the department under this section on drugs for which
the department has received a rebate under Section 1927(c) of the
federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396r-8(c)) or that have
been purchased on behalf of county health departments or other
eligible entities at discount prices made available under Section
256b of Title 42 of the United States Code.
   (e) The department shall submit an invoice, not less than two
times per year, to each manufacturer for the amount of the rebate
required by subdivision (d).
   (f) Drugs may be removed from the list for failure to pay the
rebate required by subdivision (d), unless the department determines
that removal of the drug from the list would cause substantial
medical hardship to beneficiaries.
   (g) The department may adopt emergency regulations to implement
amendments to this chapter made during the 1997-98 Regular Session,
in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act  ,
Chapter   (Chapter  3.5 (commencing with Section
11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government 
Code   Code)  . The initial adoption of emergency
regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and considered by the
Office of Administrative Law as necessary for the immediate
preservation of the public peace, health and safety, or general
welfare. Emergency regulations adopted pursuant to this section shall
remain in effect for no more than 180 days.
   (h) Reimbursement under this chapter shall not be made for any
drugs that are available to the recipient under any other private,
state, or federal programs, or under any other contractual or legal
entitlements, except that the director may authorize an exemption
from this subdivision where exemption would represent a cost savings
to the state.
   (i) The department may also subsidize certain cost-sharing
requirements for persons otherwise eligible for the AIDS Drug
Assistance Program (ADAP) with existing non-ADAP drug coverage by
paying for prescription drugs included on the ADAP formulary within
the existing ADAP operational structure up to, but not exceeding, the
amount of that cost-sharing obligation. This cost sharing may only
be applied in circumstances in which the other payer recognizes the
ADAP payment as counting toward the individual's cost-sharing
obligation.
  SEC. 179.  Section 121025 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   121025.  (a) Public health records relating to human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS), containing personally identifying information, that were
developed or acquired by a state or local public health agency, or an
agent of that agency, shall be confidential and shall not be
disclosed, except as otherwise provided by law for public health
purposes or pursuant to a written authorization by the person who is
the subject of the record or by his or her guardian or conservator.
   (b) In accordance with subdivision  (f)   (g)
 of Section 121022, a state or local public health agency, or
an agent of that agency, may disclose personally identifying
information in public health records, as described in subdivision
(a), to other local, state, or federal public health agencies or to
corroborating medical researchers, when the confidential information
is necessary to carry out the duties of the agency or researcher in
the investigation, control, or surveillance of disease, as determined
by the state or local public health agency.
   (c) Except as provided in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, any
disclosure authorized by subdivision (a) or (b) shall include only
the information necessary for the purpose of that disclosure and
shall be made only upon agreement that the information will be kept
confidential and will not be further disclosed without written
authorization, as described in subdivision (a).
   (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following
disclosures shall be authorized for the purpose of enhancing
completeness of HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, and sexually transmitted
disease coinfection reporting to the federal Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention (CDC):
   (A) The local public health agency HIV surveillance staff may
further disclose the information to the health care provider who
provides HIV care to the HIV-positive person who is the subject of
the record for the purpose of assisting in compliance with
subdivision (a) of Section 121022.
   (B) Local public health agency tuberculosis control staff may
further disclose the information to state public health agency
tuberculosis control staff, who may further disclose the information,
without disclosing patient identifying information, to the CDC, to
the extent the information is requested by the CDC and permitted by
subdivision (b), for purposes of the investigation, control, or
surveillance of HIV and tuberculosis coinfections.
   (C) Local public health agency sexually transmitted disease
control staff may further disclose the information to state public
health agency sexually transmitted disease control staff, who may
further disclose the information, without disclosing patient
identifying information, to the CDC, to the extent it is requested by
the CDC, and permitted by subdivision (b), for the purposes of the
investigation, control, or surveillance of HIV and syphilis,
gonorrhea, or chlamydia coinfection.
   (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the following
disclosures shall be authorized for the purpose of facilitating
appropriate HIV/AIDS medical care and treatment:
   (A) State public health agency HIV surveillance staff, AIDS Drug
Assistance Program staff, and care services staff may further
disclose the information to local public health agency staff, who may
further disclose the information to the HIV-positive person who is
the subject of the record, or the health care provider who provides
his or her HIV care, for the purpose of proactively offering and
coordinating care and treatment services to him or her.
   (B) AIDS Drug Assistance Program staff and care services staff in
the State Department of Public Health may further disclose the
information directly to the HIV-positive person who is the subject of
the record or the health care provider who provides his or her HIV
care, for the purpose of proactively offering and coordinating care
and treatment services to him or her.
   (3) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for the purpose of
facilitating appropriate medical care and treatment of persons
coinfected with HIV, tuberculosis, and syphilis, gonorrhea, or
chlamydia, local public health agency sexually transmitted disease
control and tuberculosis control staff may further disclose the
information to state or local public health agency sexually
transmitted disease control and tuberculosis control staff, the
HIV-positive person who is the subject of the record, or the health
care provider who provides his or her HIV, tuberculosis, and sexually
transmitted disease care.
   (4) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)  and(3) 
 and (3)  , "staff" does not include nongovernmental
entities.
   (d) No confidential public health record, as defined in
subdivision (c) of Section 121035, shall be disclosed, discoverable,
or compelled to be produced in any civil, criminal, administrative,
or other proceeding.
   (e) (1)  Any   A  person who negligently
discloses the content of  any   a 
confidential public health record, as defined in subdivision (c) of
Section 121035, to any third party, except pursuant to a written
authorization, as described in subdivision (a), or as otherwise
authorized by law, shall be subject to a civil penalty in an amount
not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), plus court costs, as
determined by the court, which penalty and costs shall be paid to the
person whose record was disclosed.
   (2) Any person who willfully or maliciously discloses the content
of any confidential public health record, as defined in subdivision
(c) of Section 121035, to any third party, except pursuant to a
written authorization, or as otherwise authorized by law, shall be
subject to a civil penalty in an amount not less than five thousand
dollars ($5,000) and not more than twenty-five thousand dollars
($25,000), plus court costs, as determined by the court, which
penalty and costs shall be paid to the person whose confidential
public health record was disclosed.
   (3) Any person who willfully, maliciously, or negligently
discloses the content of any confidential public health record, as
defined in subdivision (c) of Section 121035, to any third party,
except pursuant to a written authorization, or as otherwise
authorized by law, that results in economic, bodily, or psychological
harm to the person whose confidential public health record was
disclosed, is guilty of a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in
 the   a  county jail for a period not to
exceed one year, or a fine of not to exceed twenty-five thousand
dollars ($25,000), or both, plus court costs, as determined by the
court, which penalty and costs shall be paid to the person whose
confidential public health record was disclosed.
   (4) Any person who commits any act described in paragraph (1),
(2), or (3), shall be liable to the person whose confidential public
health record was disclosed for all actual damages for economic,
bodily, or psychological harm that is a proximate result of the act.
   (5) Each violation of this section is a separate and actionable
offense.
   (6) Nothing in this section limits or expands the right of an
injured person whose confidential public health record was disclosed
to recover damages under any other applicable law.
   (f) In the event that a confidential public health record, as
defined in subdivision (c) of Section 121035, is disclosed, the
information shall not be used to determine employability, or
insurability of any person.
  SEC. 180.  Section 124982 of the Health and Safety Code is amended
to read:
   124982.  (a) The department shall issue a temporary genetic
counselor license to a person to practice as a licensed genetic
counselor who meets all of the following:
   (1) The requirements for licensure set forth in subdivision (b) of
Section 124981, except passing the certification examination as
required by paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 124981.
   (2) Either of the following requirements:
   (A) The person meets the requirements to apply for and has applied
for the first available certification examination offered. The
department may require an applicant for a temporary genetic counselor
license to provide documentation of acceptance for the examination.
   (B) The person meets the requirements to apply for the
certification examination and plans to apply to sit for the
examination in the year following the year of the first available
examination. The department shall require the applicant to provide
documentation showing registration for the examination, when the
documentation is received by the applicant. After the applicant takes
the  exam   examination  , the department
shall require the applicant to provide documentation showing that the
applicant took the examination.
   (3) Payment of a fee of two hundred dollars ($200).
   (b) A temporary genetic counselor license shall be valid for 24
months and shall not be extended or renewed.
   (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a temporary license issued
pursuant to this section shall expire upon any of the following
events, whichever occurs earlier:
   (1) The issuance of a license pursuant to Section 124981.
   (2) Thirty days after notification of the department that an
applicant has failed the certification examination.
   (3) The expiration date on the temporary license.
   (d) A person holding a temporary genetic counselor license issued
pursuant to this section, shall be required to work under the
supervision of a licensed genetic counselor or a licensed physician
and surgeon.
   (e) The department may revoke the temporary license of a genetic
counselor licensed pursuant to this section if the person has been
convicted of a felony charge that is substantially related to the
qualifications, functions, or duties of a genetic counselor. A plea
of guilty or nolo contendere to a felony charge shall be deemed a
conviction for the purposes of this subdivision.
   (f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2011.
  SEC. 181.  Section 557.5 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   557.5.  No peace officer, member of the  Department of the
 California Highway Patrol, or firefighter shall be
required to report any accident in which he or she is involved while
operating an authorized emergency vehicle, as defined in subdivision
(a), (b), or (f) of Section 165 of the Vehicle Code, or any
employer-leased or employer-rented vehicle in the performance of his
or her duty during the hours of his or her employment, to any person
who has issued that peace officer, member of the  Department
of the  California Highway Patrol, or firefighter a private
automobile insurance policy.
   As used in this section:
   (a) "Peace officer" means every person defined in Chapter 4.5
(commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code.

   (b) "Policy" shall have the same meaning as defined in subdivision
(a) of Section 660.
  SEC. 182.  Section 787.1 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   787.1.  (a) The following definitions apply to this section:
   (1) "Senior designation" means any degree, title, credential,
certificate, certification, accreditation, or approval, that
expresses or implies that a broker or agent possesses expertise,
training, competence, honesty, or reliability with regard to advising
seniors in particular on finance, insurance, or risk management.
   (2) "Use" means utilizing a word, phrase, acronym, or logo, in any
oral or written communication from which a sale of insurance to a
senior may directly or indirectly result, that states or suggests,
alone or in context, that a broker or agent holds a senior
designation.
   (b) (1) A broker or agent may not use a senior designation unless
all of the following conditions have been met:
   (A) The broker or agent has been granted the right to use the
senior designation by the organization that issues the senior
designation, and the broker or agent is currently authorized by the
organization to use the designation.
   (B) The senior designation has been approved by the commissioner
for use by brokers and agents in the sale of insurance to seniors.
   (C) The broker or agent has been licensed for at least four years
in any state or United States territory to sell the types of
insurance with which the designation is used.
   (2) A broker or agent may not use a senior designation in a manner
that misleads a person as to the significance of the senior
designation. Each time a broker or agent uses a senior designation in
a writing, the writing shall also contain the words "California" or
"CA" next to "Insurance Agent" or "Insurance Broker Agent" and
"License," and these words shall be located immediately prior to the
broker's license number or the agent's license number, in type that
is in the same font and at least the same size as the type used for
the senior designation. The requirements set forth in this
subdivision are in addition to the requirements of Section 1725.5 and
shall apply regardless of whether the broker or agent is an
insurance agent, as defined in Section 1621. For purposes of this
paragraph, "writing" means business cards, written price quotations,
and print advertisements distributed exclusively in this state.
   (c) The commissioner shall approve a senior designation only if
the organization that issues the designation satisfies all of the
following requirements with respect to the designation:
   (1) The organization has applied for approval on a form prescribed
by the commissioner.
   (A) The department may require the filing of any supplementary
documents and declarations it deems necessary to determine whether
the prerequisites for approval have been met.
   (B) Before or after approval, an organization shall notify the
department in writing within 45 days following any material change in
information recorded on the application form or in declarations or
documents submitted along with it or in response to a department
request.
                                                             (2) The
designation is accredited by the National Commission for Certifying
Agencies, or the organization or the designation is accredited by an
agency that is on the United States Department of Education's list
entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV Purposes" and
it is established to the satisfaction of the commissioner that the
agency is qualified to accredit an organization or designation
involved with financial services provided to seniors.
   (3) The organization requires California candidates for the
designation to demonstrate superior expertise in advising seniors in
particular in finance, insurance, or risk management by passing
examinations that are based on applicants with no prior insurance
education or experience completing at least 75 hours of study
covering at least the following topics: aspects of aging, health care
coverage, long-term care insurance, financial planning for
retirement, investments, estate planning, and ethics. Textbooks or
other study materials may use chapter and subchapter titles that
differ from those general topics as long as the essential content is
the same. No part of the examinations, textbooks, or other study
materials may concern techniques on how to increase the amount of
insurance or financial products one sells,  nor 
 or  recommend the selling of products offered by specific
companies.
   (d) (1) In determining whether to approve a senior designation for
use in the sale of insurance to seniors, the commissioner shall also
ensure that the organization that issues the senior designation
fulfills the following:
   (A) Is exclusively an educational or certification organization,
and is not directly or indirectly, through an affiliate or partner,
involved in selling insurance, nor receives any compensation directly
or indirectly from any sale of insurance, other than the receipt of
charitable gifts by a nonprofit institution.
   (B) Maintains standards and procedures for disciplining its
designees for improper or unethical conduct, as established by proven
complaints or by disciplinary action by a government licensing
agency or a quasi-governmental licensing and regulatory organization.
The standards and procedures shall include, at a minimum:
   (i) A written procedure to receive, log, and conduct a preliminary
review of complaints alleging improper, illegal, or unethical
conduct.
   (ii) Written standards for determining when a complaint warrants
further investigation into the merits of the allegations contained
therein.
   (iii) Written standards and procedures to ensure that, once a
complaint is determined to warrant further investigation, the
investigation is diligently conducted.
   (iv) Written standards for determining when to file disciplinary
charges based on the results of an investigation.
   (v) Written standards and procedures to ensure due process in the
adjudication of disciplinary charges by adjudicators who are fair,
knowledgeable, and otherwise qualified.
   (vi) Written standards and procedures for the imposition of
appropriate sanctions, including, when warranted, revocation of the
designation.
   (C) Maintains a code of ethics for its California designees
consistent with that of one of the designations recited in Section
1749.4.
   (e) (1) A word, phrase, acronym, or logo shall be deemed a senior
designation if it contains the word "senior," "Medicare," "Medi-Cal,"
"retire," "mature," "gerontology," or "elder," or any variation or
synonym of one of these words within several words of the word
"certified," "chartered," "registered," "adviser," "specialist,"
"consultant," "agent," "broker," "insurance," "planner,"
"professional," "enrolled," "accredited," "analyst," or "fellow," or
any variation or synonym of one of these words. A word, phrase,
acronym, or logo may constitute a senior designation if it meets the
definition in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) regardless of whether
it contains one of the words recited in this subdivision.
   (2) A word, phrase, acronym, or logo shall not constitute a senior
designation if it is a job title or description of an employee of a
governmental entity, or of an organization with a contract with that
governmental entity to provide free counseling to seniors.
   (3) No exemption exists under this section for use of a senior
designation that constitutes a job title or description or part of a
job title or description, except as provided in paragraph (2).
   (4) An advanced academic degree, such as a Ph.D., M.B.A., or M.S.,
may be used without compliance with subdivision (d), if the degree
was awarded by an institution of higher education that has been
accredited by an organization that is on the United States Department
of Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for
Title IV Purposes."
   (f) A violation of subdivision (b) by a broker or agent shall be
grounds for suspension or revocation of the broker's or agent's
license pursuant to Sections 1668 and 1738. Such a violation also
shall be grounds for a cease and desist order and monetary penalty
pursuant to Section 12921.8, as if the broker or agent had acted in a
capacity for which a license was required but not possessed.
   (g) Any person who grants to a California resident the right to
use a senior designation that has not been approved by the
commissioner, without reasonably attempting to determine whether
California is one of the designee's residences, shall be subject to a
cease and desist order and monetary penalty pursuant to Section
12921.8, as if the person had acted in a capacity for which a license
was required but not possessed.
   (h) The disciplinary and remedial authority recited in this
subdivision shall be in addition to any other disciplinary and
remedial authority included in this code.
   (i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code, the criteria
in Sections 1668 and 1668.5 apply to an organization that issues a
senior designation, and the commissioner may deny or rescind approval
of an organization issuing a senior designation based on that
criteria.
   (j) The commissioner shall maintain a list of senior designations
approved pursuant to subdivisions (c), (d), and (e) and shall publish
the current list on the Internet Web site of the Department of
Insurance.
   (k) This section shall apply to all types of insurance, including
those listed in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (c) of Section
785, except those listed in paragraphs (3) to (7), inclusive, and
paragraph (9) of subdivision (c) of Section 785 and subdivision (d)
of Section 785.
   (l) The commissioner may, upon receipt of a petition from an
organization, issue written confirmation that a designation issued by
that organization is exempt from the requirement of approval
pursuant to this section. The commissioner may issue confirmation if
the designation, according to its title or curriculum, or in its
actual use, concerns almost exclusively subject matters other than
insurance or financial services sold to seniors in particular.
   (m) (1) The commissioner may rescind approval of a designation
whenever there has been a material change in the management or
operation of the organization that issues the designation, or in the
procedures or criteria for issuance of the designation, such that if
the organization were to apply for approval of the designation
subsequent to the change, approval would be denied.
   (2) Any rescission of the approval of a designation shall be after
notice and a hearing conducted in accordance with Chapter 5
(commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of
the Government Code, as if the approval were a license, and the
commissioner shall have all of the powers granted therein.
  SEC. 183.  Section 1063.75 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   1063.75.  Any bonds issued to provide funds for covered claim
obligations for workers' compensation claims shall be issued prior to
January 1, 2013, in an aggregate principal amount outstanding at any
one time not to exceed  $1.5 billion   one
billion five hundred million dollars ($1,500,000,000)  , and any
bonds issued or issued to refund bonds shall not have a final
maturity exceeding 20 years from the date of issuance. The bonds
shall be issued at the request of CIGA, shall be in the form, shall
bear the date or dates, and shall mature at the time or times as the
indenture authorized by the request may provide. The bonds may be
issued in one or more series, as serial bonds or as term bonds, or as
a combination thereof, and, notwithstanding any other provision of
law, the amount of principal of, or interest on, bonds maturing at
each date of maturity need not be equal. The bonds shall bear
interest at the rate or rates, variable or fixed or a combination
thereof, be in the denominations, be in the form, either coupon or
registered, carry the registration privileges, be executed in the
manner, be payable in the medium of payment at the place or places
within or without the state, be subject to the terms of redemption,
contain the terms and conditions, and be secured by the covenants as
the indenture may provide. The indenture may provide for the proceeds
of the bonds and funds securing the bonds to be invested in any
securities and investments, including investment agreements, as
specified therein. CIGA may enter into or authorize any ancillary
obligations or derivative agreements as it determines necessary or
desirable to manage interest rate risk or security features related
to the bonds. The bonds shall be sold at public or private sale by
the Treasurer at, above, or below the principal amount thereof, on
the terms and conditions and for the consideration in the medium of
payment that the Treasurer shall determine prior to the sale.
  SEC. 184.  Section 10112.2 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   10112.2.  To the extent required under federal law, a group or
individual health insurance policy issued, amended, renewed, or
delivered on or after September 23, 2010, shall comply with Section
2713 of the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec.
300gg-13)  , as added by Section 1001 of the federal Patient
Protection and Affordable Care Act (P.L. 111-148),  and any
rules or regulations issued under that section.
  SEC. 185.  Section 10112.3 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   10112.3.  (a) For purposes of this section, the following
definitions shall apply:
   (1) "Exchange" means the California Health Benefit Exchange
established in Title 22 (commencing with Section 100500) of the
Government Code.
   (2) "Federal act" means the federal Patient Protection and
Affordable Care Act  (Public Law   (P.L. 
111-148), as amended by the federal Health Care and Education
Reconciliation Act of 2010  (Public Law   (P.L.
 111-152), and any amendments to, or regulations or guidance
issued under, those acts.
   (3) "Qualified health plan" has the same  meaning  as
that term is defined in Section 1301 of the federal act.
   (4) "Small employer" has the same meaning as that term is defined
in Section 10700.
   (b) Health insurers participating in the Exchange shall fairly and
affirmatively offer, market, and sell in the Exchange at least one
product within each of the five levels of coverage contained in
subdivisions (d) and (e) of Section 1302 of the federal act. The
board established under Section 100500 of the Government Code may
require insurers to sell additional products within each of those
levels of coverage. This subdivision shall not apply to an insurer
that solely offers supplemental coverage in the Exchange under
paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) of Section 100504 of the Government
Code.
   (c) (1) Health insurers participating in the Exchange that sell
any products outside the Exchange shall do both of the following:
   (A) Fairly and affirmatively offer, market, and sell all products
made available to individuals in the Exchange to individuals
purchasing coverage outside the Exchange.
   (B) Fairly and affirmatively offer, market, and sell all products
made available to small employers in the Exchange to small employers
purchasing coverage outside the Exchange.
   (2) For purposes of this subdivision, "product" does not include
contracts entered into pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section
12693) of Division 2 between the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board
and health insurers for enrolled Healthy Families beneficiaries or
to contracts entered into pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with
Section 14000) of, or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200) of,
Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code between the
State Department of Health Care Services and health insurers for
enrolled Medi-Cal beneficiaries.
   (d) Commencing January 1, 2014, a health insurer, with respect to
policies that cover hospital, medical, or surgical benefits, may only
sell the five levels of coverage contained in subdivisions (d) and
(e) of Section 1302 of the federal act, except that a health insurer
that does not participate in the Exchange may, with respect to
policies that cover hospital, medical, or surgical benefits only sell
the four levels of coverage contained in subdivision (d) of Section
1302 of the federal act.
   (e) Commencing January 1, 2014, a health insurer that does not
participate in the Exchange shall, with respect to policies that
cover hospital, medical, or surgical expenses, offer at least one
standardized product that has been designated by the Exchange in each
of the four levels of coverage contained in subdivision (d) of
Section 1302 of the federal act. This subdivision shall only apply if
the board of the Exchange exercises its authority under subdivision
(c) of Section 100504 of the Government Code. Nothing in this
subdivision shall require an insurer that does not participate in the
Exchange to offer standardized products in the small employer market
if the insurer only sells products in the individual market. Nothing
in this subdivision shall require an insurer that does not
participate in the Exchange to offer standardized products in the
individual market if the insurer only sells products in the small
employer market. This subdivision shall not be construed to prohibit
the insurer from offering other products provided that it complies
with subdivision (d).
  SEC. 186.  Section 10112.4 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   10112.4.  The commissioner shall, in coordination with the
Director of the Department of Managed Health Care, review the
Internet portal developed by the United States Secretary of Health
and Human Services under subdivision (a) of Section 1103 of the
federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act  (Public
Law   (P.L.  111-148) and paragraph (5) of
subdivision (c) of Section 1311 of that act, and any enhancements to
that portal expected to be implemented by the secretary on or before
January 1, 2015. The review shall examine whether the Internet portal
provides sufficient information regarding all health benefit
products offered by health care service plans and health insurers in
the individual and small employer markets in California to facilitate
fair and affirmative marketing of all individual and small employer
products, particularly outside the  California  Health
Benefit Exchange created under Title 22 (commencing with Section
100500) of the Government Code. If the commissioner and the Director
of the Department of Managed Health Care jointly determine that the
Internet portal does not adequately achieve those purposes, they
shall jointly develop and maintain an electronic clearinghouse to
achieve those purposes. In performing this function, the commissioner
and the Director of the Department of Managed Health Care shall
routinely monitor individual and small employer benefit filings with,
and complaints submitted by individuals and small employers to,
their respective departments, and shall use any other available means
to maintain the clearinghouse.
  SEC. 187.  Section 10113.95 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   10113.95.  (a) A health insurer that issues, renews, or amends
individual health insurance policies shall be subject to this
section.
   (b) An insurer subject to this section shall have written
policies, procedures, or underwriting guidelines establishing the
criteria and process whereby the insurer makes its decision to
provide or to deny coverage to individuals applying for coverage and
sets the rate for that coverage. These guidelines, policies, or
procedures shall  assure   ensure  that the
plan rating and underwriting criteria comply with Sections 10140 and
10291.5 and all other applicable provisions.
   (c) On or before June 1, 2006, and annually thereafter, every
insurer shall file with the commissioner a general description of the
criteria, policies, procedures, or guidelines that the insurer uses
for rating and underwriting decisions related to individual health
insurance policies, which means automatic declinable health
conditions, health conditions that may lead to a coverage decline,
height and weight standards, health history, health care utilization,
lifestyle, or behavior that might result in a decline for coverage
or severely limit the health insurance products for which 
they   individuals applying for coverage  would be
eligible. An insurer may comply with this section by submitting to
the department underwriting materials or resource guides provided to
agents and brokers, provided that those materials include the
information required to be submitted by this section.
   (d) Commencing January 1, 2011, the commissioner shall post on the
department's Internet Web site, in a manner accessible and
understandable to consumers, general, noncompany specific information
about rating and underwriting criteria and practices in the
individual market and information about the California Major Risk
Medical Insurance Program (Part 6.5 (commencing with Section 
12700)  12700))  and the federal temporary high
risk pool established pursuant to Part 6.6 (commencing with Section
12739.5)  of Division 2  . The commissioner shall
develop the information for the Internet Web site in consultation
with the Department of Managed Health Care to enhance the consistency
of information provided to consumers. Information about individual
health insurance shall also include the following notification:
   "Please examine your options carefully before declining group
coverage or continuation coverage, such as COBRA, that may be
available to you. You should be aware that companies selling
individual health insurance typically require a review of your
medical history that could result in a higher premium or you could be
denied coverage entirely."
   (e) Nothing in this section shall authorize public disclosure of
company-specific rating and underwriting criteria and practices
submitted to the commissioner.
   (f) This section shall not apply to a closed block of business, as
defined in Section 10176.10.
  SEC. 188.  Section 10120.3 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   10120.3.  (a) With respect to a contract between an insurer
covering dental services and a dentist to provide covered dental
services to insureds, the contract shall not require a dentist to
accept an amount set by the insurer as payment for dental care
services provided to an insured that are not covered services under
the insured's policy. This subdivision shall only apply to provider
contracts issued, amended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2011.
   (b) A provider shall not charge more for dental services that are
not covered services under a health insurance policy than his or her
usual and customary rate for those services. The department shall not
be required to enforce this subdivision.
   (c) The evidence of coverage and disclosure form, or combined
evidence of coverage and disclosure form, for every health insurance
policy covering dental services, or specialized health insurance
policy covering dental services, that is issued, amended, or renewed
on or after July 1, 2011, shall include the following statement:


   IMPORTANT: If you opt to receive dental services that are not
covered services under this policy, a participating dental provider
may charge you his or her usual and customary rate for those
services. Prior to providing a patient with dental services that are
not a covered benefit, the dentist should provide to the patient a
treatment plan that includes each anticipated service to be provided
and the estimated cost of each service. If you would like more
information about dental coverage options, you may call member
services at insert appropriate telephone number] or your insurance
broker. To fully understand your coverage, you may wish to carefully
review this evidence of coverage document.


   (d) For purposes of this section, "covered services" or "covered
dental services" means dental care services for which the insurer is
obligated to pay  ,  pursuant to an insured's
policy, or for which the insurer would be obligated to pay pursuant
to an insured's policy but for the application of contractual
limitations such as deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, waiting
periods, annual or lifetime maximums, frequency limitations, or
alternative benefit payments.
  SEC. 189.  Section 10181 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   10181.  For purposes of this article, the following definitions
shall apply:
   (a) "Large group health insurance policy" means a group health
insurance policy other than a policy issued to a small employer, as
defined in Section 10700.
   (b) "Small group health insurance policy" means a group health
insurance policy issued to a small employer, as defined in Section
10700.
   (c) "PPACA" means Section 2794 of the federal Public Health
Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec.  300gg-14)  
300gg-94)  , as amended by the federal Patient Protection and
Affordable Care Act  (P. L. 111-48)   (P.L.
111-148)  , and any subsequent rules, regulations, or guidance
issued pursuant to that law.
   (d) "Unreasonable rate increase" has the same meaning as that term
is defined in PPACA.
  SEC. 190.  Section 10713 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   10713.  All health benefit plans written, issued, or administered
by carriers on or after the effective date of this chapter, and all
health benefit plans in force on or after the effective date of this
chapter shall be renewable with respect to all eligible employees or
dependents at the option of the policyholder, contractholder, or
small employer except as follows:
   (a) (1) For nonpayment of the required premiums by the
policyholder, contractholder, or small employer, if the policyholder,
contractholder, or small employer has been duly notified and billed
for the charge and at least a 30-day grace period has elapsed since
the date of notification or, if longer, the period of time required
for notice and any other requirements pursuant to Section 2703, 2712,
or 2742 of the federal Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Secs.
300gg-2, 300gg-12, and 300gg-42) and any subsequent rules or
regulations has elapsed.
   (2) An insurer shall continue to provide coverage as required by
the policyholder's, contractholder's, or small employer's policy
during the period described in paragraph (1). Nothing in this section
shall be construed to affect or impair the policyholder's,
contractholder's, small employer's, or insurer's other rights and
responsibilities pursuant to the subscriber contract.
   (b) If the insurer demonstrates fraud or an intentional
misrepresentation of material fact under the terms of the policy by
the policyholder, contractholder, or small employer or, with respect
to coverage of individual enrollees, the enrollees or their
representative.
   (c) Violation of a material contract provision relating to
employer contribution or group participation rates by the
policyholder, contractholder, or small employer.
   (d) When the carrier ceases to write, issue, or administer new
small employer health benefit plans in this state, provided, however,
that the following conditions are satisfied:
   (1) Notice of the decision to cease writing, issuing, or
administering new or existing small employer health benefits plans in
this state is provided to the commissioner, and to either the
policyholder, contractholder, or small employer at least 180 days
prior to the discontinuation of the coverage.
   (2) Small employer health benefit plans subject to this chapter
shall not be canceled for 180 days after the date of the notice
required under paragraph (1). For that business of a carrier that
remains in force, any carrier that ceases to write, issue, or
administer new health benefit plans shall continue to be governed by
this chapter.
   (3) Except in the case where a certification has been approved
pursuant to subdivision  (1)   (l)  of
Section 10705 or the commissioner has made a determination pursuant
to subdivision (a) of Section 10712, a carrier that ceases to write,
issue, or administer new health benefit plans to small employers in
this state after the passage of this chapter shall be prohibited from
writing, issuing, or administering new health benefit plans to small
employers in this state for a period of five years from the date of
notice to the commissioner.
   (e) When a carrier withdraws a benefit plan design from the small
employer market, provided that the carrier notifies all affected
policyholders, contractholders, or small employers and the
commissioner at least 90 days prior to the discontinuation of those
contracts, and that the carrier makes available to the small employer
all small employer benefit plan designs which it markets and
satisfies the requirements of paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of
Section 10714.
   (f) If coverage is made available through a bona fide association
pursuant to subdivision (w) of Section 10700 or a guaranteed
association pursuant to subdivision (y) of Section 10700, the
membership of the employer or the individual, respectively, ceases,
but only if that coverage is terminated under this subdivision
uniformly without regard to any health status-related factor of
covered individuals.
  SEC. 191.  Section 10959 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   10959.  (a) All health benefit plans offered to a child or on
behalf of a child to a responsible party for a child shall conform to
the requirements of Section 10127.18,  10273.4, and 
12682.1,  and 10273.4,  and shall be renewable at
the option of the child or responsible party for a child on behalf of
the child except as permitted to be canceled, rescinded  , 
or not renewed pursuant to Section 10273.4.
   (b) Any carrier that ceases to offer for sale new individual
health benefit plans pursuant to Section 10273.4 shall continue to be
governed                                              by this
chapter with respect to business conducted under this chapter.
   (c) Except as authorized under Section 10958, a carrier that as of
the effective date of this chapter does not write new health benefit
plans for children in this state or that after the effective date of
this chapter ceases to write new health benefit plans for children
in this state shall be prohibited from offering for sale new
individual health benefit plans or in this state for a period of five
years from the date of notice to the commissioner.
  SEC. 192.  Section 10960 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   10960.  On or before July 1, 2011, the commissioner may issue
guidance to health plans regarding compliance with this chapter and
such guidance shall not be subject to the Administrative Procedure
Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government  Code  
Code)  . The guidance shall only be effective until the
commissioner and the Director of the Department of Managed Health
Care adopt joint regulations pursuant to the Administrative Procedure
Act.
  SEC. 193.  Section 12389 of the Insurance Code is amended to read:
   12389.  (a) An underwritten title company as defined in Section
12340.5, which shall be a stock corporation, may engage in the
business of preparing title searches, title reports, title
examinations,  or  certificates or abstracts of title, upon
the basis of which a title insurer writes title policies, provided
that:
   (1) Only domestic corporations may be licensed under this section
and no underwritten title company, as defined in Section 12340.5,
shall become licensed under this section, or change the name under
which it is licensed or operates, unless it has first complied with
Section 881.
   (2) Depending upon the county or counties in which the company is
licensed to transact business, it shall maintain required minimum net
worth as follows:
Aggregate number of
documents
recorded and documents
filed in the
offices of the county
recorders in the
preceding calendar year
in all counties
where the company is
licensed to transact
business.
                                      Amount of
                                      required
Number of documents              minimum net worth
Less than 50,000 ..............      $ 75,000
50,000 to 100,000 .............       120,000
100,000 to 500,000 ............       200,000
500,000 to 1,000,000 ..........       300,000
1,000,000 or more .............       400,000


   "Net worth" is defined as the excess of assets over all
liabilities and required reserves. It may carry as an asset the
actual cost of its title plant provided the value ascribed to that
asset shall not exceed the aggregate value of all other assets.
   Where a title plant of an underwritten title company is not being
currently maintained, the asset value of the plant shall not exceed
its asset value as determined in the preceding paragraph as of the
date to which that plant is currently maintained, less 1/10th thereof
for each succeeding year or part of the succeeding year that the
plant is not being currently maintained. For the purposes of this
section, a title plant shall be deemed currently maintained so long
as it is used in the normal conduct of the business of title
insurance, and  (1)   (A)  the owner of the
plant continues regularly to obtain and index title record data to
the plant or to a continuation thereof in a format other than that
previously used, including, but not limited to, computerization of
the data, or  (2)   (B)  the owner of the
plant is a participant, in an arrangement for joint use of a title
plant system regularly maintained in any format, provided the owner
is contractually entitled to receive a copy of the title record data
contained in the jointly used title plant system during the period of
the owner's participation therein, either periodically or upon
termination of that participation, at a cost not to exceed the actual
cost of duplication of the title record data.
   An underwritten title company at all times shall maintain current
assets of at least ten thousand dollars ($10,000) in excess of its
current liabilities, as current assets and liabilities may be defined
pursuant to regulations made by the commissioner. In making the
regulations, the commissioner shall be guided by generally accepted
accounting principles followed by certified public accountants in
this state.
   (3) An underwritten title company shall obtain from the
commissioner a license to transact its business. The license shall
not be granted until the applicant conforms to the requirements of
this section and all other provisions of this code specifically
applicable to applicant. After issuance the holder shall continue to
comply with the requirements as to its business set forth in this
code, in the applicable rules and regulations of the commissioner and
in the laws of this state.
   Any underwritten title company who possesses, or is required to
possess, a license pursuant to this section shall be subject as if an
insurer to the provisions of Article 8 (commencing with Section 820)
of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 1 of this code and shall be
deemed to be subject to authorization by the Insurance Commissioner
within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 25100 of the
Corporations Code.
   The license may be obtained by filing an application on a form
prescribed by the commissioner accompanied by a filing fee of three
hundred fifty-four dollars ($354). The license when issued shall be
for an indefinite term and shall expire with the termination of the
existence of the holder, subject to the annual renewal fee imposed
under Sections 12415 and 12416.
   An underwritten title company seeking to extend its license to an
additional county shall pay a two hundred seven dollar ($207) fee for
each additional county, and shall furnish to the commissioner
evidence, at least sufficient to meet the minimum net worth
requirements of paragraph (2), of its financial ability to expand its
business operation to include the additional county or counties.
   (4) (A) An underwritten title company shall furnish an audit to
the commissioner on the forms provided by the commissioner annually,
either on a calendar year basis on or before March  31st
  31  or, if approved in writing by the
commissioner in respect to any individual company, on a fiscal year
basis on or before 90 days after the end of the fiscal year. The time
for furnishing any audit required by this paragraph may be extended,
for good cause shown, on written approval of the commissioner for a
period, not to exceed 60 days. Failure to submit an audit on time, or
within the extended time that the commissioner may grant, shall be
grounds for an order by the commissioner to accept no new business
pursuant to subdivision (d). The audits shall be private, except that
a synopsis of the balance sheet on a form prescribed by the
commissioner may be made available to the public.
   (B) The audits shall be made in accordance with generally accepted
auditing standards by an independent certified public accountant or
independent licensed public accountant whose certification or license
is in good standing at the time of the preparation. The fee for
filing the audit shall be three hundred thirteen dollars ($313).
   (C) The commissioner may refuse to accept an audit or order a new
audit for any of the following reasons:
   (i) Adverse result in any proceeding before the California Board
of Accountancy affecting the auditor's license.
   (ii) The auditor has an affiliation with the underwritten title
company or any of its officers or directors that would prevent his or
her reports on the company from being reasonably objective.
   (iii) The auditor has suffered conviction of any misdemeanor or
felony based on his or her activities as an accountant.
   (iv) Judgment adverse to the auditor in any civil action finding
him or her guilty of fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation in the
practice of his or her profession.
   Any company that fails to file any audit or other report on or
before the date it is due shall pay to the commissioner a penalty fee
of one hundred eighteen dollars ($118) and on failure to pay that or
any other fee or file the audit required by this section shall
forfeit the privilege of accepting new business until the delinquency
is corrected.
   (b) An underwritten title company may engage in the escrow
business and act as escrow agent provided that:
   (1) It shall maintain record of all receipts and disbursements of
escrow funds.
   (2) It shall deposit seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500)
for each county in which it transacts business in some form permitted
by Section 12351 with the commissioner who shall immediately make a
special deposit of that amount in the State Treasury and that deposit
shall be subject to Sections 12353, 12356, 12357, and 12358 and 
,  as long as there are no claims against the deposit  ,
 all interest and dividends thereon shall be paid to the
depositor. The deposit shall be for the security and protection of
persons having lawful claims against the depositor growing out of
escrow transactions with it. The deposit shall be maintained until
four years after all escrows handled by the depositor have been
closed.
   (A) The commissioner may release the deposits prior to the passage
of the four-year period upon presentation of evidence satisfactory
to the commissioner of either a statutory merger of the depositor
into a licensee or certificate holder subject to the jurisdiction of
the commissioner, or a valid assumption agreement under which all
liability of the depositor stemming from escrow transactions handled
by it is assumed by a licensee or certificate holder subject to the
jurisdiction of the commissioner.
   (B) With the foregoing exceptions, the deposit shall be returned
to the depositor or lawful successor in interest following the
four-year period, upon presentation of evidence satisfactory to the
commissioner that there are no claims against the deposit stemming
from escrow transactions handled by the depositor. If the
commissioner has evidence of one or more claims against the
depositor, and the depositor is not in conservatorship or
liquidation, the commissioner may interplead the deposit by special
endorsement to a court of competent jurisdiction for distribution on
the basis that claims against the depositor stemming from escrow
transactions handled by it have priority in the distribution over
other claims against the depositor.
   (c) The commissioner shall, whenever it appears necessary, examine
the business and affairs of a company licensed under this section.
All of these examinations shall be at the expense of the company.
   (d) At any time that the commissioner determines, after notice and
hearing, that a company licensed under this section has willfully
failed to comply with  any of the provisions   a
provision  of this section, the commissioner shall make his or
her order prohibiting the company from conducting its business for a
period of not more than one year.
   Any company violating the commissioner's order is subject to
seizure under Article 14 (commencing with Section 1010) of Chapter 1
of Part 2 of Division 1, is guilty of a misdemeanor, and may have
 its   the  license revoked by the
commissioner. Any person aiding and abetting any company in a
violation of the commissioner's order is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   The purpose of this section is to maintain the solvency of the
companies subject to this section and to protect the public by
preventing fraud and requiring fair dealing. In order to carry out
these purposes, the commissioner may make reasonable rules and
regulations to govern the conduct of its business of companies
subject to this section.
   The name under which each underwritten title company is licensed
shall at all times be an approved name. The fee for filing an
application for a change of name shall be one hundred eighteen
dollars ($118). Each such company shall be subject to the provisions
of Article 14 (commencing with Section 1010) and Article 14.5
(commencing with Section 1065.1) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division
1.
   The rules and regulations shall be adopted, amended  , 
or repealed in accordance with the procedure provided in Chapter 3.5
(commencing with Section  11350)   11340) 
of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
  SEC. 194.  Section 12739.53 of the Insurance Code is amended to
read:
   12739.53.  (a) The board shall, consistent with Section 1101 of
the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 
(Public Law   (P.L.  111-148) and  State
  state  and federal law and contingent on the
agreement of the federal Department of Health and Human Services and
receipt of sufficient federal funding, enter into an agreement with
the federal Department of Health and Human Services to administer the
federal temporary high risk pool in California.
   (b) If the federal Department of Health and Human Services and the
state enter into an agreement to administer the federal temporary
high risk pool, the board shall do all of the following:
   (1) Administer the program pursuant to that agreement.
   (2) Begin providing coverage in the program on the date
established pursuant to the agreement with the federal Department of
Health and Human Services.
   (3) Establish the scope and content of high risk medical coverage.

   (4) Determine reasonable minimum standards for participating
health plans, third-party administrators, and other contractors.
   (5) Determine the time, manner, method, and procedures for
withdrawing program approval from a plan, third-party administrator,
or other contractor, or limiting enrollment of subscribers in a plan.

   (6) Research and assess the needs of persons without adequate
health coverage and promote means of ensuring the availability of
adequate health care services.
   (7) Administer the program to ensure the following:
   (A) That the program subsidy amount does not exceed amounts
transferred to the fund pursuant to this part.
   (B) That the aggregate amount spent for high risk medical coverage
and program administration does not exceed the federal funds
available to the state for this purpose and that no state funds are
spent for the purposes of this part.
   (8) Maintain enrollment and expenditures to ensure that
expenditures do not exceed amounts available in the fund and that no
state funds are spent for purposes of this part. If sufficient funds
are not available to cover the estimated cost of program
expenditures, the board shall institute appropriate measures to limit
enrollment.
   (9) In adopting benefit and eligibility standards, be guided by
the needs and welfare of persons unable to secure adequate health
coverage for themselves and their dependents and by prevailing
practices among private health plans.
   (10) As required by the federal Department of Health and Human
Services, implement procedures to provide for the transition of
subscribers into qualified health plans offered through an exchange
or exchanges to be established pursuant to the federal Patient
Protection and Affordable Care Act  (Public Law 
 (P.L.  111-148).
   (11) Post on the board's Internet Web site the monthly progress
reports submitted to the federal Department of Health and Human
Services. In addition, the board shall provide notice of any
anticipated waiting lists or disenrollments due to insufficient
funding to the public, by making that notice available as part of its
board meetings, and concurrently to the Legislature.
   (12) Develop and implement a plan for marketing and outreach.
   (c) There shall not be any liability in a private capacity on the
part of the board or any member of the board, or any officer or
employee of the board for or on account of any act performed or
obligation entered into in an official capacity, when done in good
faith, without intent to defraud, and in connection with the
administration, management, or conduct of this part or affairs
related to this part.
  SEC. 195.  Section 1509 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
   1509.  For purposes of this part, the following terms have the
following meanings:
   (a) "Employee" and "employee benefits" have the same meanings set
forth in Section  1500  1501  .
   (b) "Employer" means any person, partnership, corporation,
association, or other business entity that employs 15 or more
employees.
  SEC. 196.  Section 1695 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
   1695.  (a) Every licensee shall do all of the following:
   (1) Carry his or her license and proof of registration issued
pursuant to paragraph (8) with him or her at all times and exhibit
the same to all persons with whom he or she intends to deal in his or
her capacity as a farm labor contractor prior to so dealing.
   (2) File at the United States Post Office serving the address of
the licensee, as noted on the face of his or her license, with the
office of the Labor Commissioner, and with the agricultural
commissioner of the county or counties in which the labor contractor
has contracted with a grower, a correct change of address immediately
upon each occasion the licensee permanently moves his or her
address. The address shall also be the mailing address for purposes
of notice required by the Labor Code or by any other applicable
statute or regulations respecting service by mail.
   (3) Promptly when due, pay or distribute to the individuals
entitled thereto, all moneys or other things of value entrusted to
the licensee by any third person for this purpose.
   (4) Comply on his or her part with the terms and provisions of all
legal and valid agreements and contracts entered into between
licensee in his or her capacity as a farm labor contractor and third
persons.
   (5) Have available for inspection by his or her employees and by
the grower with whom he or she has contracted  ,  a
written statement in English and Spanish showing the rate of
compensation he or she receives from the grower and the rate of
compensation he or she is paying to his or her employees for services
rendered to, for, or under the control of the grower.
   (6) Take out a policy of insurance with any insurance carrier
authorized to do business in the State of California in an amount
satisfactory to the commissioner, which insures the licensee against
liability for damage to persons or property arising out of the
licensee's operation of, or ownership of, any vehicle or vehicles for
the transportation of individuals in connection with his or her
business, activities, or operations as a farm labor contractor.
   (7) Have displayed prominently at the site where the work is to be
performed and on all vehicles used by the licensee for the
transportation of employees  ,  the rate of
compensation the licensee is paying to his or her employees for their
services, printed in both English and Spanish and in lettering of a
size to be prescribed by the Department of Industrial Relations.
   (8) Register annually with the agricultural commissioner of the
county or counties in which the labor contractor has contracted with
a grower.
   (9) Provide information and training on applicable laws and
regulations governing worker safety, including the requirements of
Article 10.5 (commencing with Section 12980) of Chapter 2 of Division
7 of the Food and  Agriculture   Agricultural
 Code, or regulating the terms and conditions of agricultural
employment, to each crew leader,  foreman  
foreperson  , or other employee whose duties include the
supervision, direction, or control of any agricultural worker on
behalf of a licensee, or pursuant to, a contract or agreement for
agricultural services entered into with a licensee.
   (b) The board of supervisors of a county may establish fees to be
charged each licensee for the recovery of the actual costs incurred
by commissioners in the administration of registrations and change of
address and the issuance of proofs of registration.
  SEC. 197.  Section 1771.3 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
   1771.3.  (a) (1) The State Public Works Enforcement Fund is hereby
created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Notwithstanding
Section 13340 of the Government Code, moneys in the fund shall be
continuously appropriated for the purposes  of  the
Department of Industrial Relations' enforcement of prevailing wage
requirements applicable to public works pursuant to this chapter, and
labor compliance enforcement as set forth in subdivision (b) of
Section 1771.55, and shall not be used or borrowed for any other
purpose.
   (2) The Director of Industrial Relations, with the approval of the
Director of Finance, shall determine and assess a fee on any
awarding body using funds derived from any bond issued by the state
to fund public works projects, in an amount not to exceed one-fourth
of 1 percent of the bond proceeds. The fee shall be set to cover the
expenses of the Department of Industrial Relations for administering
the prevailing wage requirements on public works projects using those
bond funds. The fee shall be payable by the board, commission,
department, agency, or official responsible for the allocation of
bond proceeds from the bond funds awarded to each project at the time
the funds are released to the project or other such time the
Department of Industrial Relations and the entity responsible for
allocation of the bond proceeds may agree. All fees collected
pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the State Public Works
Enforcement Fund, and shall be used only for enforcement of
prevailing wage requirements on projects using bond funds and other
projects for which awarding bodies pay into the fund. The
administration and enforcement of prevailing wage requirements is an
administrative expense associated with public works construction.
   (b) The fee imposed by this section shall not apply to any
contract awarded prior to the effective date of regulations adopted
by the department pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of
Section 1771.55.
   (c) The department shall report to the Legislature, not later than
March 1, 2011, on its administration of the State Public Works
Enforcement Fund, and the prevailing wage enforcement activities
undertaken by the department utilizing that funding.
  SEC. 198.  Section 987.58 of the Military and Veterans Code is
amended to read:
   987.58.  (a) If a veteran dies after filing an application for
purchase of a farm or a home, and the veteran's eligibility and
qualifications are subsequently approved, the veteran's surviving
spouse may, in the discretion of the department, succeed to the
veteran's rights under the application, and may succeed to the
veteran's rights, privileges, and benefits under this article. The
contract of purchase which the department otherwise would have made
with the deceased veteran may be made with the surviving spouse.
   (b) If a person was a member of the  armed forces
  Armed   Forces on active military duty,
entered active duty while in the State of California and lived in
this state for six months immediately preceding entry into active
duty, and was killed in the line of duty while on active duty or died
after discharge from active duty from injuries incurred in the line
of duty while on active duty, that person is a veteran for purposes
of this article, and his or her unremarried surviving spouse may file
an application, is entitled to the same rights, privileges, and
benefits for which the  armed forces   Armed
Forces  member would have been eligible, and may contract with
the department pursuant to subdivision (a). In making a determination
of eligibility under this subdivision, the department may base its
determination on documentation furnished to the surviving spouse by
the United States Department of Veterans Affairs specifying the cause
of death of the  armed forces   Armed Forces
 member.
   (c) If a member of the  armed forces   Armed
Forces  entered active military duty while in the State of
California, lived in this state for six months or more immediately
preceding entry into active duty, and is being held as a prisoner of
war or has been designated by the  armed forces 
 Armed Forces  as missing in action, that person is a
veteran for purposes of this article, and his or her spouse may file
an application, is entitled to the same rights, privileges, and
benefits, and may contract with the department pursuant to
subdivision (a).
  SEC. 199.  Section 166 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   166.  (a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d),
every person guilty of any contempt of court, of any of the following
kinds, is guilty of a misdemeanor:
   (1) Disorderly, contemptuous, or insolent behavior committed
during the sitting of any court of justice, in the immediate view and
presence of the court, and directly tending to interrupt its
proceedings or to impair the respect due to its authority.
   (2) Behavior as specified in paragraph (1) committed in the
presence of any referee, while actually engaged in any trial or
hearing, pursuant to the order of any court, or in the presence of
any jury while actually sitting for the trial of a cause, or upon any
inquest or other proceedings authorized by law.
   (3) Any breach of the peace, noise, or other disturbance directly
tending to interrupt the proceedings of any court.
   (4) Willful disobedience of the terms as written of any process or
court order or out-of-state court order, lawfully issued by any
court, including orders pending trial.
   (5) Resistance willfully offered by any person to the lawful order
or process of any court.
   (6) The contumacious and unlawful refusal of any person to be
sworn as a witness or, when so sworn, the like refusal to answer any
material question.
   (7) The publication of a false or grossly inaccurate report of the
proceedings of any court.
   (8) Presenting to any court having power to pass sentence upon any
prisoner under conviction, or to any member of the court, any
affidavit or testimony or representation of any kind, verbal or
written, in aggravation or mitigation of the punishment to be imposed
upon the prisoner, except as provided in this code.
   (9) Willful disobedience of the terms of any injunction that
restrains the activities of a criminal street gang or any of its
members, lawfully issued by any court, including an order pending
trial.
   (b) (1) Any person who is guilty of contempt of court under
paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) by willfully contacting a victim by
telephone or mail, or directly, and who has been previously convicted
of a violation of Section 646.9 shall be punished by imprisonment in
a county jail for not more than one year, by
                       a fine of five thousand dollars ($5,000), or
by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (2) For the purposes of sentencing under this subdivision, each
contact shall constitute a separate violation of this subdivision.
   (3) The present incarceration of a person who makes contact with a
victim in violation of paragraph (1) is not a defense to a violation
of this subdivision.
   (c) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), any
willful and knowing violation of any protective order or stay-away
court order issued pursuant to Section 136.2, in a pending criminal
proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700,
or issued as a condition of probation after a conviction in a
criminal proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in
Section 13700, or elder or dependent adult abuse, as defined in
Section 368, or that is an order described in paragraph (3), shall
constitute contempt of court, a misdemeanor, punishable by
imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine
of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
imprisonment and fine.
   (2) If a violation of paragraph (1) results in a physical injury,
the person shall be imprisoned in a county jail for at least 48
hours, whether a fine or imprisonment is imposed, or the sentence is
suspended.
   (3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) apply to the following court orders:
   (A) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the
Family Code.
   (B) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or from
the dwelling of the other.
   (C) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the
court determined was necessary to effectuate the orders described in
paragraph (1).
   (4) A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of any order
described in paragraph (1) occurring within seven years of a prior
conviction for a violation of any of those orders and involving an
act of violence or "a credible threat" of violence, as provided in
subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 139, is punishable by
imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or in the state
prison for 16 months or two or three years.
   (5) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the primary
responsibility for the enforcement of the orders described in
paragraph (1).
   (d) (1) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives a
firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so by the
provisions of a protective order as defined in Section 136.2 of this
code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6 or 527.8 of
the Code of Civil Procedure, shall be punished under the provisions
of subdivision (g) of Section 12021.
   (2) A person subject to a protective order described in paragraph
(1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning,
possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that
firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (h) of
Section 6389 of the Family Code.
   (e) (1) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of
subdivision (c), the court shall impose probation consistent with
Section 1203.097  of the Penal Code  .
   (2) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of
subdivision (c), the conditions of probation may include, in lieu of
a fine, one or both of the following requirements:
   (A) That the defendant make payments to a battered women's
shelter, up to a maximum of one thousand dollars ($1,000).
   (B) That the defendant provide restitution to reimburse the victim
for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable expenses
that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant's
offense.
   (3) For any order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered women'
s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation under this
subdivision or subdivision (c), the court shall make a determination
of the defendant's ability to pay. In no event shall any order to
make payments to a battered women's shelter be made if it would
impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution to the
victim or court-ordered child support.
   (4) If the injury to a married person is caused  ,  in
whole or in part  ,  by the criminal acts of his or her
spouse in violation of subdivision (c), the community property may
not be used to discharge the liability of the offending spouse for
restitution to the injured spouse required by Section 1203.04, as
operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a
shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse and dependents
required by this subdivision, until all separate property of the
offending spouse is exhausted.
   (5) Any person violating any order described in subdivision (c)
may be punished for any substantive offenses described under Section
136.1 or 646.9. No finding of contempt shall be a bar to prosecution
for a violation of Section 136.1 or 646.9. However, any person held
in contempt for a violation of subdivision (c) shall be entitled to
credit for any punishment imposed as a result of that violation
against any sentence imposed upon conviction of an offense described
in Section 136.1 or 646.9. Any conviction or acquittal for any
substantive offense under Section 136.1 or 646.9 shall be a bar to a
subsequent punishment for contempt arising out of the same act.
  SEC. 200.  Section 171d of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 47
of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   171d.  Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as
defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of
Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the
federal government who is carrying out official duties while in
California, any person summoned by that officer to assist in making
arrests or preserving the peace while he or she is actually engaged
in assisting the officer, a member of the military forces of this
state or of the United States engaged in the performance of his or
her duties, a person holding a valid license to carry the firearm
pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5
of Title 4 of Part 6, the Governor or a member of his or her
immediate family or a person acting with his or her permission with
respect to the Governor's Mansion or any other residence of the
Governor, any other constitutional officer or a member of his or her
immediate family or a person acting with his or her permission with
respect to the officer's residence, or a Member of the Legislature or
a member of his or her immediate family or a person acting with his
or her permission with respect to the Member's residence, shall be
punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year,
by  a  fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000),
or by both the fine and imprisonment, or by imprisonment in the
state prison, if he or she does any of the following:
   (a) Brings a loaded firearm into, or possesses a loaded firearm
within, the Governor's Mansion, or any other residence of the
Governor, the residence of any other constitutional officer, or the
residence of any Member of the Legislature.
   (b) Brings a loaded firearm upon, or possesses a loaded firearm
upon, the grounds of the Governor's Mansion or any other residence of
the Governor, the residence of any other constitutional officer, or
the residence of any Member of the Legislature.
  SEC. 201.  Section 326.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   326.3.  (a) The Legislature finds and declares all of the
following:
   (1) Nonprofit organizations provide important and essential
educational, philanthropic, and social services to the people of the
State of California.
   (2) One of the great strengths of California is a vibrant
nonprofit sector.
   (3) Nonprofit and philanthropic organizations touch the lives of
every Californian through service and employment.
   (4) Many of these services would not be available if nonprofit
organizations did not provide them.
   (5) There is a need to provide methods of fundraising to nonprofit
organizations to enable them to provide these essential services.
   (6) Historically, many nonprofit organizations have used
charitable bingo as one of their key fundraising strategies to
promote the mission of the charity.
   (7) Legislation is needed to provide greater revenues for
nonprofit organizations to enable them to fulfill their charitable
purposes, and especially to meet their increasing social service
obligations.
   (8) Legislation is also needed to clarify that existing law
requires that all charitable bingo must be played using a tangible
card and that the only permissible electronic devices to be used by
charitable bingo players are card-minding devices.
   (b) Neither the prohibition on gambling in this chapter nor in
Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 330) applies to any remote caller
bingo game that is played or conducted in a city, county, or city
and county pursuant to an ordinance enacted under Section 19 of
Article IV of the California Constitution, if the ordinance allows a
remote caller bingo game to be played or conducted only in accordance
with  the requirements of  this section, including
the following requirements:
   (1) The game may be conducted only by the following organizations:

   (A) An organization that is exempted from the payment of the taxes
imposed under the Corporation Tax Law by Section 23701a, 23701b,
23701d, 23701e, 23701f, 23701g, 23701k,  23701   l 
 , or  23701w  , or 23701   l  of
the Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (B) A mobilehome park association.
   (C) A senior citizens organization.
   (D) Charitable organizations affiliated with a school district.
   (2) The organization conducting the game shall have been
incorporated or in existence for three years or more.
   (3) The organization conducting the game shall be licensed
pursuant to subdivision (l) of Section 326.5.
   (4) The receipts of the game shall be used only for charitable
purposes. The organization conducting the game shall determine the
disbursement of the net receipts of the game.
   (5) The operation of bingo may not be the primary purpose for
which the organization is organized.
   (c) (1) A city, county, or city and county may adopt an ordinance
in substantially the following form to authorize remote caller bingo
in accordance with the requirements of subdivision (b):


   Sec. _.01. Legislative Authorization.
   This chapter is adopted pursuant to Section 19 of Article IV of
the California Constitution, as implemented by Sections 326.3 and
326.4 of the Penal Code.
   Sec. _.02. Remote Caller Bingo Authorized.
   Remote Caller Bingo may be lawfully played in the City, County, or
City and County] pursuant to the provisions of Sections 326.3 and
326.4 of the Penal Code, and this chapter, and not otherwise.
   Sec. _.03. Qualified Applicants: Applicants for Licensure.
   (a) The following organizations are qualified to apply to the
License Official for a license to operate a bingo game if the
receipts of those games are used only for charitable purposes:
   (1) An organization exempt from the payment of the taxes imposed
under the Corporation Tax Law by Section 23701a, 23701b, 23701d,
23701e, 23701f, 23701g, 23701k, 23701  l  , or 23701w of the
Revenue and Taxation Code.
   (2) A mobile home park association of a mobile home park that is
situated in the City, County, or City and County].
   (3) Senior citizen organizations.
   (4) Charitable organizations affiliated with a school district.
   (b) The application shall be in a form prescribed by the License
Official and shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable filing fee in an
amount determined by resolution of the Governing Body of the City,
County, or City and County] from time to time. The following
documentation shall be attached to the application, as applicable:
   (1) A certificate issued by the Franchise Tax Board certifying
that the applicant is exempt from the payment of the taxes imposed
under the Corporation Tax Law pursuant to Section 23701a, 23701b,
23701d, 23701e, 23701f, 23701g, 23701k, 23701  l  , or
23701w of the Revenue and Taxation Code. In lieu of a certificate
issued by the Franchise Tax Board, the License Official may refer to
the Franchise Tax Board's Internet Web site to verify that the
applicant is exempt from the payment of the taxes imposed under the
Corporation Tax Law.
   (2) Other evidence as the License Official determines is necessary
to verify that the applicant is a duly organized mobile home park
association of a mobile home park situated in the City, County, or
City and County].
   Sec. _.04. License Application: Verification.
   The license shall not be issued until the License Official has
verified the facts stated in the application and determined that the
applicant is qualified.
   Sec. _.05. Annual Licenses.
   A license issued pursuant to this chapter shall be valid until the
end of the calendar year, at which time the license shall expire. A
new license shall only be obtained upon filing a new application and
payment of the license fee. The fact that a license has been issued
to an applicant creates no vested right on the part of the licensee
to continue to offer bingo for play. The Governing Body of the City,
County, or City and County] expressly reserves the right to amend or
repeal this chapter at any time by resolution. If this chapter is
repealed, all licenses issued pursuant to this chapter shall cease to
be effective for any purpose on the effective date of the repealing
resolution.
   Sec. _.06. Conditions of Licensure.
   (a) Any license issued pursuant to this chapter shall be subject
to the conditions contained in Sections 326.3 and 326.4 of the Penal
Code, and each licensee shall comply with the requirements of those
provisions.
   (b) Each license issued pursuant to this chapter shall be subject
to the following additional conditions:
   (1) Bingo games shall not be conducted by any licensee on more
than two days during any week, except that a licensee may hold one
additional game, at its election, in each calendar quarter.
   (2) The licensed organization is responsible for ensuring that the
conditions of this chapter and Sections 326.3 and 326.4 of the Penal
Code are complied with by the organization and its officers and
members. A violation of any one or more of those conditions or
provisions shall constitute cause for the revocation of the
organization's license. At the request of the organization, the
Governing Body of the City, County, or City and County] shall hold a
public hearing before revoking any license issued pursuant to this
chapter.


   (2) Nothing in this section shall require a city, county, or city
and county to use this model ordinance in order to authorize remote
caller bingo.
   (d) It is a misdemeanor for any person to receive or pay a profit,
wage, or salary from any remote caller bingo game, provided that
administrative, managerial, technical, financial, and security
personnel employed by the organization conducting the bingo game may
be paid reasonable fees for services rendered from the revenues of
bingo games, as provided in subdivision (m), except that fees paid
under those agreements shall not be determined as a percentage of
receipts or other revenues from, or be dependant on the outcome of,
the game.
   (e) A violation of subdivision (d) shall be punishable by a fine
not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000), which fine shall be
deposited in the general fund of the city, county, or city and county
that enacted the ordinance authorizing the remote caller bingo game.
A violation of any provision of this section, other than subdivision
(d), is a misdemeanor.
   (f) The city, county, or city and county that enacted the
ordinance authorizing the remote caller bingo game, or the Attorney
General, may bring an action to enjoin a violation of this section.
   (g) No minors shall be allowed to participate in any remote caller
bingo game.
   (h) A remote caller bingo game shall not include any site that is
not located within this state.
   (i) An organization authorized to conduct a remote caller bingo
game pursuant to subdivision (b) shall conduct the game only on
property that is owned or leased by the organization, or the use of
which is donated to the organization. Nothing in this subdivision
shall be construed to require that the property that is owned or
leased by, or the use of which is donated to, the organization be
used or leased exclusively by, or donated exclusively to, that
organization.
   (j) (1) All remote caller bingo games shall be open to the public,
not just to the members of the authorized organization.
   (2) No more than 750 players may participate in a remote caller
bingo game in a single location.
   (3) If the Governor of California or the President of the United
States declares a state of emergency in response to a natural
disaster or other public catastrophe occurring in California, an
organization authorized to conduct remote caller bingo games may,
while that declaration is in effect, conduct a remote caller bingo
game pursuant to this section with more than 750 participants in a
single venue if the net proceeds of the game, after deduction of
prizes and overhead expenses, are donated to or expended exclusively
for the relief of the victims of the disaster or catastrophe, and the
organization gives the California Gambling Control Commission at
least 10 days' written notice of the intent to conduct that game.
   (4) An organization authorized to conduct remote caller bingo
games shall provide the commission with at least 30 days' advance
written notice of its intent to conduct a remote caller bingo game.
That notice shall include all of the following:
   (A) The legal name of the organization and the address of record
of the agent upon whom legal notice may be served.
   (B) The locations of the caller and remote players, whether the
property is owned by the organization or donated, and if donated, by
whom.
   (C) The name of the licensed caller and site manager.
   (D) The names of administrative, managerial, technical, financial,
and security personnel employed.
   (E) The name of the vendor and any person or entity maintaining
the equipment used to operate and transmit the game.
   (F) The name of the person designated as having a fiduciary
responsibility for the game pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision
(k).
   (G) The license numbers of all persons specified in subparagraphs
(A) to (F), inclusive, who are required to be licensed.
   (H) A copy of the local ordinance for any city, county, or city
and county in which the game will be played. The commission shall
post the ordinance on its Internet Web site.
   (k) (1) A remote caller bingo game shall be operated and staffed
only by members of the authorized organization that organized it.
Those members shall not receive a profit, wage, or salary from any
remote caller bingo game. Only the organization authorized to conduct
a remote caller bingo game shall operate that game, or participate
in the promotion, supervision, or any other phase of a remote caller
bingo game. Subject to the provisions of subdivision (m), this
subdivision shall not preclude the employment of administrative,
managerial, technical, financial, or security personnel who are not
members of the authorized organization at a location participating in
the remote caller bingo game by the organization conducting the
game. Notwithstanding any other  provisions  
provision  of law, exclusive or other agreements between the
authorized organization and other entities or persons to provide
services in the administration, management, or conduct of the game
shall not be considered a violation of the prohibition against
holding a legally cognizable financial interest in the conduct of the
remote caller bingo game by persons or entities other than the
charitable organization, or other entity authorized to conduct the
remote caller bingo games, provided that those persons or entities
obtain the gambling licenses, the key employee licenses, or the work
permits required by, and otherwise comply with, Chapter 5 (commencing
with Section 19800) of Division 8 of the Business and Professions
Code. Fees to be paid under any such agreements shall be reasonable
and shall not be determined as a percentage of receipts or other
revenues from, or be dependent on the outcome of, the game.
   (2) An organization that conducts a remote caller bingo game shall
designate a person as having fiduciary responsibility for the game.
   (l) No individual, corporation, partnership, or other legal
entity, except the organization authorized to conduct or participate
in a remote caller bingo game, shall hold a legally cognizable
financial interest in the conduct of such a game.
   (m) An organization authorized to conduct a remote caller bingo
game pursuant to this section shall not have overhead costs exceeding
20 percent of gross sales, except that the limitations of this
section shall not apply to one-time, nonrecurring capital
acquisitions. For purposes of this subdivision, "overhead costs"
includes, but is not limited to, amounts paid for rent and equipment
leasing and the reasonable fees authorized to be paid to
administrative, managerial, technical, financial, and security
personnel employed by the organization pursuant to subdivision (d).
For the purpose of keeping its overhead costs below 20 percent of
gross sales, an authorized organization may elect to deduct all or a
portion of the fees paid to financial institutions for the use and
processing of credit card sales from the amount of gross revenues
awarded for prizes. In that case, the redirected fees for the use and
processing of credit card sales shall not be included in "overhead
costs" as defined in the California Remote Caller Bingo Act.
Additionally, fees paid to financial institutions for the use and
processing of credit card sales shall not be deducted from the
proceeds retained by the charitable organization.
   (n) No person shall be allowed to participate in a remote caller
bingo game unless the person is physically present at the time and
place where the remote caller bingo game is being conducted. A person
shall be deemed to be physically present at the place where the
remote caller bingo game is being conducted if he or she is present
at any of the locations participating in the remote caller bingo game
in accordance with this section.
   (o) (1) An organization shall not cosponsor a remote caller bingo
game with one or more other organizations unless one of the following
is true:
   (A) All of the cosponsors are affiliated under the master charter
or articles and bylaws of a single organization.
   (B) All of the cosponsors are affiliated through an organization
described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), and have the same
Internal Revenue Service activity code.
   (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a maximum of 10 unaffiliated
organizations described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) may enter
into an agreement to cosponsor a remote caller game, provided 
that  the game shall have not more than 10 locations.
   (3) An organization shall not conduct remote caller bingo more
than two days per week.
   (4) Before sponsoring or operating any game authorized under
paragraph (1) or (2), each of the cosponsoring organizations shall
have entered into a written agreement, a copy of which shall be
provided to the commission, setting forth how the expenses and
proceeds of the game are to be allocated among the participating
organizations, the bank accounts into which all receipts are to be
deposited and from which all prizes are to be paid, and how game
records are to be maintained and subjected to annual audit.
   (p) The value of prizes awarded during the conduct of any remote
caller bingo game shall not exceed 37 percent of the gross receipts
for that game. When an authorized organization elects to deduct fees
paid for the use and processing of credit card sales from the amount
of gross revenues for that game awarded for prizes, the maximum
amount of gross revenues that may be awarded for prizes shall not
exceed 37 percent of the gross receipts for that game, less the
amount of redirected fees paid for the use and processing of credit
card sales. Every remote caller bingo game shall be played until a
winner is declared. Progressive prizes are prohibited. The declared
winner of a remote caller bingo game shall provide his or her
identifying information and a mailing address to the onsite manager
of the remote caller bingo game. Prizes shall be paid only by check;
no cash prizes shall be paid. The organization conducting the remote
caller bingo game may issue a check to the winner at the time of the
game, or may send a check to the declared winner by United States
Postal Service certified mail, return receipt requested. All prize
money exceeding state and federal exemption limits on prize money
shall be subject to income tax reporting and withholding requirements
under applicable state and federal laws and regulations and those
reports and withholding shall be forwarded, within 10 business days,
to the appropriate state or federal agency on behalf of the winner. A
report shall accompany the amount withheld identifying the person on
whose behalf the money is being sent. Any game interrupted by a
transmission failure, electrical outage, or act of God shall be
considered void in the location that was affected. A refund for a
canceled game or games shall be provided to the purchasers.
   (q) (1) The California Gambling Control Commission shall regulate
remote caller bingo, including, but not limited to, licensure and
operation. The commission shall establish reasonable criteria
regulating, and shall require the licensure of, the following:
   (A) Any person who conducts a remote caller bingo game pursuant to
this section, including, but not limited to, an employee, a person
having fiduciary responsibility for a remote caller bingo game, a
site manager, and a bingo caller.
   (B) Any person who directly or indirectly manufactures,
distributes, supplies, vends, leases, or otherwise provides supplies,
devices, services, or other equipment designed for use in the
playing of a remote caller bingo game by any nonprofit organization.
   (C) Beginning January 31, 2009, or a later date as may be
established by the commission, all persons described in subparagraph
(A) or (B) may submit to the commission a letter of intent to submit
an application for licensure. The letter shall clearly identify the
principal applicant, all categories under which the application will
be filed, and the names of all those particular individuals who are
applying. Each charitable organization shall provide an estimate of
the frequency with which it plans to conduct remote caller bingo
                                               operations, including
the number of locations. The letter of intent may be withdrawn or
updated at any time.
   (2) (A) The Department of Justice shall conduct background
investigations and conduct field enforcement as it relates to remote
caller bingo consistent with the Gambling Control Act (Chapter 5
(commencing with Section 19800) of Division 8 of the Business and
Professions Code) and as specified in regulations promulgated by the
commission.
   (B) Fees to cover background investigation costs shall be paid and
accounted for in accordance with Section 19867 of the Business and
Professions Code.
   (3) (A) Every application for a license or approval shall be
accompanied by a nonrefundable fee, the amount of which shall be
adopted by the commission by regulation.
   (B) Fees and revenue collected pursuant to this paragraph shall be
deposited in the California Bingo Fund, which is hereby created in
the State Treasury. The funds deposited in the California Bingo Fund
shall be available, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for
expenditure by the commission and the department exclusively for the
support of the commission and department in carrying out their duties
and responsibilities under this section and Section 326.5.
   (C) A loan is hereby authorized from the Gambling Control Fund to
the California Bingo Fund on or after January 1, 2009, in an amount
of up to five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000) to fund operating,
personnel, and other startup costs incurred by the commission
relating to this act. Funds from the California Bingo Fund shall be
available to the commission upon appropriation by the Legislature in
the annual Budget Act. The loan shall be subject to all of the
following conditions:
   (i) The loan shall be repaid to the Gambling Control Fund as soon
as there is sufficient money in the California Bingo Fund to repay
the amount loaned, but no later than five years after the date of the
loan.
   (ii) Interest on the loan shall be paid from the California Bingo
Fund at the rate accruing to moneys in the Pooled Money Investment
Account.
   (iii) The terms and conditions of the loan are approved, prior to
the transfer of funds, by the Department of Finance pursuant to
appropriate fiscal standards.
   The commission may assess and collect reasonable fees and deposits
as necessary to defray the costs of regulation and oversight.
   (r) The administrative, managerial, technical, financial, and
security personnel employed by an organization that conducts remote
caller bingo games shall apply for, obtain, and thereafter maintain
valid work permits, as defined in Section 19805 of the Business and
Professions Code.
   (s) An organization that conducts remote caller bingo games shall
retain records in connection with the remote caller bingo game for
five years.
   (t) (1) All equipment used for remote caller bingo shall be
approved in advance by the California Gambling Control Commission
pursuant to regulations adopted pursuant to subdivision (r) of
Section 19841 of the Business and Professions Code.
   (2) The California Gambling Control Commission shall monitor
operation of the transmission and other equipment used for remote
caller bingo, and monitor the game.
   (u) (1) As used in this section, "remote caller bingo game" means
a game of bingo, as defined in subdivision (o) of Section 326.5, in
which the numbers or symbols on randomly drawn plastic balls are
announced by a natural person present at the site at which the live
game is conducted, and the organization conducting the bingo game
uses audio and video technology to link any of its in-state
facilities for the purpose of transmitting the remote calling of a
live bingo game from a single location to multiple locations owned,
leased, or rented by that organization, or as described in
subdivision (o) of this section. The audio or video technology used
to link the facilities may include cable, Internet, satellite,
broadband, or telephone technology, or any other means of electronic
transmission that ensures the secure, accurate, and simultaneous
transmission of the announcement of numbers or symbols in the game
from the location at which the game is called by a natural person to
the remote location or locations at which players may participate in
the game. The drawing of each ball bearing a number or symbol by the
natural person calling the game shall be visible to all players as
the ball is drawn, including through a simultaneous live video feed
at remote locations at which players may participate in the game.
   (2) The caller in the live game must be licensed by the California
Gambling Control Commission. A game may be called by a nonlicensed
caller if the drawing of balls and calling of numbers or symbols by
that person is observed and personally supervised by a licensed
caller.
   (3) Remote caller bingo games shall be played using traditional
paper or other tangible bingo cards and daubers, and shall not be
played by using electronic devices, except card-minding devices, as
described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (p) of Section 326.5.
   (4) Prior to conducting a remote caller bingo game, the
organization that conducts remote caller bingo shall submit to the
commission the controls, methodology, and standards of game play,
which shall include, but not be limited to, the equipment used to
select bingo numbers and create or originate cards, control or
maintenance, distribution to participating locations, and
distribution to players. Those controls, methodologies, and standards
shall be subject to prior approval by the commission, provided that
the controls shall be deemed approved by the commission after 90 days
from the date of submission unless disapproved.
   (v) A location shall not be eligible to participate in a remote
caller bingo game if bingo games are conducted at that location in
violation of Section 326.5 or any regulation adopted by the
commission pursuant to Section 19841 of the Business and Professions
Code, including, but not limited to, a location at which unlawful
electronic devices are used.
   (w) (1) The vendor of the equipment used in a remote caller bingo
game shall have its books and records audited at least annually by an
independent California certified public accountant and shall submit
the results of that audit to the California Gambling Control
Commission within 120 days after the close of the vendor's fiscal
year. In addition, the California Gambling Control Commission may
audit the books and records of the vendor at any time.
   (2) An authorized organization that conducts remote caller bingo
games shall provide copies of the records pertaining to those games
to the California Gambling Control Commission within 30 days after
the end of each calendar quarter. In addition, those records shall be
audited by an independent California certified public accountant at
least annually and copies of the audit reports shall be provided to
the California Gambling Control Commission within 120 days after the
close of the organization's fiscal year. The audit report shall
account for the annual amount of fees paid to financial institutions
for the use and processing of credit card sales by the authorized
organization and the amount of fees for the use and processing of
credit card sales redirected from "overhead costs" and deducted from
the amount of gross revenues awarded for prizes.
   (3) The costs of the licensing and audits required by this section
shall be borne by the person or entity required to be licensed or
audited. The audit shall enumerate the receipts for remote caller
bingo, the prizes disbursed, the overhead costs, and the amount
retained by the nonprofit organization. The commission may audit the
books and records of an organization that conducts remote caller
bingo games at any time.
   (4) If, during an audit, the commission identifies practices in
violation of this section, the license for the audited entity may be
suspended pending review and hearing before the commission for a
final determination.
   (5) No audit required to be conducted by the commission shall
commence before January 1, 2010.
   (x) (1) The provisions of this section are severable. If any
provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that
invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can
be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
   (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if paragraph (1) or (3) of
subdivision (u), or the application of either of those provisions, is
held invalid, this entire section shall be invalid.
   (y) The commission shall submit a report to the Legislature, on or
before January 1, 2012, on the fundraising effectiveness and
regulation of remote caller bingo, and other matters that are
relevant to the public interest regarding remote caller bingo.
   (z) The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:
   (1) "Commission" means the California Gambling Control Commission.

   (2) "Person" includes a natural person, corporation, limited
liability company, partnership, trust, joint venture, association, or
any other business organization.
  SEC. 202.  Section 330.1 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   330.1.  (a) Every person who manufactures, owns, stores, keeps,
possesses, sells, rents, leases, lets on shares, lends or gives away,
transports, or exposes for sale or lease, or offers to sell, rent,
lease, let on shares, lend or give away or who permits the operation
of or permits to be placed, maintained, used, or kept in any room,
space, or building owned, leased, or occupied by him or her or under
his or her management or control, any slot machine or device as
hereinafter defined, and every person who makes or permits to be made
with any person any agreement with reference to any slot machine or
device as hereinafter defined, pursuant to which agreement the user
thereof, as a result of any element of hazard or chance, may become
entitled to receive anything of value or additional chance or right
to use that slot machine or device, or to receive any check, slug,
token, or memorandum, whether of value or otherwise, entitling the
holder to receive anything of value, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (b) A first violation of this section shall be punishable by a
fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by
imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or by both
that fine and imprisonment.
   (c) A second offense shall be punishable by a fine of not less
than one thousand dollars ($1,000) nor more than ten thousand dollars
($10,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six
months, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (d) A third or subsequent offense shall be punishable by a fine of
not less than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) nor more than
twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000), or by imprisonment in a
county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and
imprisonment.
   (e) If the offense involved more than one machine or more than one
location, an additional fine of not less than one thousand dollars
($1,000) nor more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) shall be
imposed per machine and per location.
   (f) A slot machine or device within the meaning of Sections 330.1
to 330.5, inclusive, of this code is one that is, or may be, used or
operated in such a way that, as a result of the insertion of any
piece of money or coin or other object the machine or device is
caused to operate or may be operated or played, mechanically,
electrically, automatically  ,  or manually, and by reason
of any element of hazard or chance, the user may receive or become
entitled to receive anything of value or any check, slug, token, or
memorandum, whether of value or otherwise, which may be given in
trade, or the user may secure additional chances or rights to use
such machine or device, irrespective of whether it may, apart from
any element of hazard or chance, also sell, deliver  ,  or
present some merchandise, indication of weight, entertainment  ,
 or other thing of value.
  SEC. 203.  Section 381 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   381.  (a) Any person who possesses toluene or any substance or
material containing toluene, including, but not limited to, glue,
cement, dope, paint thinner, paint and any combination of
hydrocarbons, either alone or in combination with any substance or
material including but not limited to paint, paint thinner, shellac
thinner, and solvents, with the intent to breathe, inhale  ,
 or ingest for the purpose of causing a condition of
intoxication, elation, euphoria, dizziness, stupefaction, or dulling
of the senses or for the purpose of, in any manner, changing,
distorting  ,  or disturbing the audio, visual, or mental
processes, or who knowingly and with the intent to do so is under the
influence of toluene or any material containing toluene, or any
combination of hydrocarbons is guilty of a misdemeanor.
   (b) Any person who possesses any substance or material, which the
State Department of  Public  Health  Services
 has determined by regulations adopted pursuant to the
Administrative  Procedures   Procedure  Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3
of Title 2 of the Government Code) has toxic qualities similar to
toluene, with the intent to breathe, inhale, or ingest for the
purpose of causing a condition of intoxication, elation, euphoria,
dizziness, excitement, irrational behavior, exhilaration,
satisfaction, stupefaction, or dulling of the senses or for the
purpose of, in any manner, changing, distorting  ,  or
disturbing the audio, visual, or mental processes, or who is under
the influence of such substance or material is guilty of a
misdemeanor.
  SEC. 204.  Section 594 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 2 of
Chapter 851 of the Statutes of 1998, is repealed. 
   594.  (a) Every person who maliciously commits any of the
following acts with respect to any real or personal property not his
or her own, in cases other than those specified by state law, is
guilty of vandalism:
   (1) Defaces with graffiti or other inscribed material.
   (2) Damages.
   (3) Destroys.
   Whenever a person violates this subdivision with respect to real
property, vehicles, signs, fixtures, or furnishings belonging to any
public entity, as defined by Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or
the federal government, it shall be a permissive inference that the
person neither owned the property nor had the permission of the owner
to deface, damage, or destroy the property.
   (b) (1) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is
fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) or more, vandalism is punishable by
imprisonment in the state prison or in a county jail not exceeding
one year, or by a fine of not more than fifty thousand dollars
($50,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (2) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is five
thousand dollars ($5,000) or more but less than fifty thousand
dollars ($50,000), vandalism is punishable by imprisonment in the
state prison, or in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a
fine of not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment.
   (3) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is four
hundred dollars ($400) or more but less than five thousand dollars
($5,000), vandalism is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail
not exceeding one year, or by a fine of five thousand dollars
($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (4) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is less
than four hundred dollars ($400), vandalism is punishable by
imprisonment in a county jail for not more than six months, or by a
fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment.
   (c) Upon conviction of any person under this section for acts of
vandalism consisting of defacing property with graffiti or other
inscribed materials, the court may, in addition to any punishment
imposed under subdivision (b), order the defendant to clean up,
repair, or replace the damaged property himself or herself, or, if
the jurisdiction has adopted a graffiti abatement program, order the
defendant, and his or her parents or guardians if the defendant is a
minor, to keep the damaged property or another specified property in
the community free of graffiti for up to one year. Participation of a
parent or guardian is not required under this subdivision if the
court deems this participation to be detrimental to the defendant, or
if the parent or guardian is a single parent who must care for young
children.
   (d) If a minor is personally unable to pay a fine levied for acts
prohibited by this section, the parent of that minor shall be liable
for payment of the fine. A court may waive payment of the fine or any
part thereof by the parent upon a finding of good cause.
   (e) As used in this section, the term "graffiti or other inscribed
material" includes any unauthorized inscription, word, figure, mark,
or design that is written, marked, etched, scratched, drawn, or
painted on real or personal property.
   (f) As used in this section, "graffiti abatement program" means a
program adopted by a city, county, or city and county by resolution
or ordinance that provides for the administration and financing of
graffiti removal, community education on the prevention of graffiti,
and enforcement of graffiti laws.
   (g) The court may order any person ordered to perform community
service or graffiti removal pursuant to subdivision (c) to undergo
counseling.
   (h) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2002.

  SEC. 205.  Section 594 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 1.2
of Chapter 852 of the Statutes of 1998, is repealed. 
   594.  (a) Every person who maliciously commits any of the
following acts with respect to any real or personal property not his
or her own, in cases other than those specified by state law, is
guilty of vandalism:
   (1) Defaces with graffiti or other inscribed material.
   (2) Damages.
   (3) Destroys.
   Whenever a person violates this subdivision with respect to real
property, vehicles, signs, fixtures, or furnishings belonging to any
public entity, as defined by Section 811.2 of the Government Code, or
the federal government, it shall be a permissive inference that the
person neither owned the property nor had the permission of the owner
to deface, damage, or destroy the property.
   (b) (1) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is
fifty thousand dollars ($50,000) or more, vandalism is punishable by
imprisonment in the state prison or in a county jail not exceeding
one year, or by a fine of not more than fifty thousand dollars
($50,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (2) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is five
thousand dollars ($5,000) or more but less than fifty thousand
dollars ($50,000), vandalism is punishable by imprisonment in the
state prison, or in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by a
fine of not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment.
   (3) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is four
hundred dollars ($400) or more but less than five thousand dollars
($5,000), vandalism is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail
not exceeding one year, or by a fine of five thousand dollars
($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (4) (A) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is
less than four hundred dollars ($400), vandalism is punishable by
imprisonment in a county jail for not more than six months, or by a
fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment.
   (B) If the amount of defacement, damage, or destruction is less
than four hundred dollars ($400), and the defendant has been
previously convicted of vandalism or affixing graffiti or other
inscribed material under Section 594, 594.3, 594.4, 640.5, 640.6, or
640.7, vandalism is punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for
not more than one year, or by a fine of not more than five thousand
dollars ($5,000) or by both that fine and imprisonment.
   (c) (1) Upon conviction of any person under this section for acts
of vandalism consisting of defacing property with graffiti or other
inscribed materials, the court may, in addition to any punishment
imposed under subdivision (b), order the defendant to clean up,
repair, or replace the damaged property himself or herself, or, if
the jurisdiction has adopted a graffiti abatement program, order the
defendant, and his or her parents or guardians if the defendant is a
minor, to keep the damaged property or another specified property in
the community free of graffiti for up to one year. Participation of a
parent or guardian is not required under this subdivision if the
court deems this participation to be detrimental to the defendant, or
if the parent or guardian is a single parent who must care for young
children.
   (2) Any city, county, or city and county may enact an ordinance
that provides all of the following:
   (A) Upon conviction of any person pursuant to this section for
acts of vandalism, the court may, in addition to any punishment
imposed under subdivision (b), provided that the court determines
that the defendant has the ability to pay any law enforcement costs
not exceeding two hundred fifty dollars ($250), order the defendant
to pay all or part of the costs not to exceed two hundred fifty
dollars ($250) incurred by a law enforcement agency in identifying
and apprehending the defendant. The law enforcement agency shall
provide evidence of, and bear the burden of establishing, the
reasonable costs that it incurred in identifying and apprehending the
defendant.
   (B) The law enforcement costs authorized to be paid pursuant to
this subdivision are in addition to any other costs incurred or
recovered by the law enforcement agency, and payment of these costs
does not in any way limit, preclude, or restrict any other right,
remedy, or action otherwise available to the law enforcement agency.
   (d) If a minor is personally unable to pay a fine levied for acts
prohibited by this section, the parent of that minor shall be liable
for payment of the fine. A court may waive payment of the fine or any
part thereof by the parent upon a finding of good cause.
   (e) As used in this section, the term "graffiti or other inscribed
material" includes any unauthorized inscription, word, figure, mark,
or design that is written, marked, etched, scratched, drawn, or
painted on real or personal property.
   (f) As used in this section, "graffiti abatement program" means a
program adopted by a city, county, or city and county by resolution
or ordinance that provides for the administration and financing of
graffiti removal, community education on the prevention of graffiti,
and enforcement of graffiti laws.
   (g) The court may order any person ordered to perform community
service or graffiti removal pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision
(c) to undergo counseling.
   (h) No amount paid by a defendant in satisfaction of a criminal
matter shall be applied in satisfaction of the law enforcement costs
that may be imposed pursuant to this section until all outstanding
base fines, state and local penalty assessments, restitution orders,
and restitution fines have been paid.
   (i) This section shall remain in effect until January 1, 2002, and
as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is
enacted before January 1, 2002, deletes or extends that date.

  SEC. 206.  Section 597y of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   597y.  A violation of Section 597u  ,   or
 597v  , or 597w  is a misdemeanor.
  SEC. 207.  Section 602 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   602.  Except as provided in subdivision (u), subdivision (v),
subdivision (x), and Section 602.8, every person who willfully
commits a trespass by any of the following acts is guilty of a
misdemeanor:
   (a) Cutting down, destroying, or injuring any kind of wood or
timber standing or growing upon the lands of another.
   (b) Carrying away any kind of wood or timber lying on those lands.

   (c) Maliciously injuring or severing from the freehold of another
anything attached to it, or its produce.
   (d) Digging, taking, or carrying away from any lot situated within
the limits of any incorporated city, without the license of the
owner or legal occupant, any earth, soil, or stone.
   (e) Digging, taking, or carrying away from land in any city or
town laid down on the map or plan of the city, or otherwise
recognized or established as a street, alley, avenue, or park,
without the license of the proper authorities, any earth, soil, or
stone.
   (f) Maliciously tearing down, damaging, mutilating, or destroying
any sign, signboard, or notice placed upon, or affixed to, any
property belonging to the state, or to any city, county, city and
county, town or village, or upon any property of any person, by the
state or by an automobile association, which sign, signboard  ,
 or notice is intended to indicate or designate a road 
,  or a highway, or is intended to direct travelers from
one point to another, or relates to fires, fire
                         control, or any other matter involving the
protection of the property, or putting up, affixing, fastening,
printing, or painting upon any property belonging to the state, or to
any city, county, town, or village, or dedicated to the public, or
upon any property of any person, without license from the owner, any
notice, advertisement, or designation of, or any name for any
commodity, whether for sale or otherwise, or any picture, sign, or
device intended to call attention to it.
   (g) Entering upon any lands owned by any other person whereon
oysters or other shellfish are planted or growing; or injuring,
gathering, or carrying away any oysters or other shellfish planted,
growing, or on any of those lands, whether covered by water or not,
without the license of the owner or legal occupant; or damaging,
destroying, or removing, or causing to be removed, damaged, or
destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs intended to designate
the boundaries and limits of any of those lands.
   (h) (1) Entering upon lands or buildings owned by any other person
without the license of the owner or legal occupant, where signs
forbidding trespass are displayed, and whereon cattle, goats, pigs,
sheep, fowl, or any other animal is being raised, bred, fed, or held
for the purpose of food for human consumption; or injuring,
gathering, or carrying away any animal being housed on any of those
lands, without the license of the owner or legal occupant; or
damaging, destroying, or removing, or causing to be removed, damaged,
or destroyed, any stakes, marks, fences, or signs intended to
designate the boundaries and limits of any of those lands.
   (2) In order for there to be a violation of this subdivision, the
trespass signs under paragraph (1) must be displayed at intervals not
less than three per mile along all exterior boundaries and at all
roads and trails entering the land.
   (3) This subdivision shall not be construed to preclude
prosecution or punishment under any other provision of law,
including, but not limited to, grand theft or any provision that
provides for a greater penalty or longer term of imprisonment.
   (i) Willfully opening, tearing down, or otherwise destroying any
fence on the enclosed land of another, or opening any gate, bar, or
fence of another and willfully leaving it open without the written
permission of the owner, or maliciously tearing down, mutilating, or
destroying any sign, signboard, or other notice forbidding shooting
on private property.
   (j) Building fires upon any lands owned by another where signs
forbidding trespass are displayed at intervals not greater than one
mile along the exterior boundaries and at all roads and trails
entering the lands, without first having obtained written permission
from the owner of the lands or the owner's agent, or the person in
lawful possession.
   (k) Entering any lands, whether unenclosed or enclosed by fence,
for the purpose of injuring any property or property rights or with
the intention of interfering with, obstructing, or injuring any
lawful business or occupation carried on by the owner of the land,
the owner's agent  ,  or by the person in lawful possession.

   (l) Entering any lands under cultivation or enclosed by fence,
belonging to, or occupied by, another, or entering upon uncultivated
or unenclosed lands where signs forbidding trespass are displayed at
intervals not less than three to the mile along all exterior
boundaries and at all roads and trails entering the lands without the
written permission of the owner of the land, the owner's agent 
,  or of the person in lawful possession, and
   (1) Refusing or failing to leave the lands immediately upon being
requested by the owner of the land, the owner's agent or by the
person in lawful possession to leave the lands, or
   (2) Tearing down, mutilating, or destroying any sign, signboard,
or notice forbidding trespass or hunting on the lands, or
   (3) Removing, injuring, unlocking, or tampering with any lock on
any gate on or leading into the lands, or
   (4) Discharging any firearm.
   (m) Entering and occupying real property or structures of any kind
without the consent of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person
in lawful possession.
   (n) Driving any vehicle, as defined in Section 670 of the Vehicle
Code, upon real property belonging to, or lawfully occupied by,
another and known not to be open to the general public, without the
consent of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful
possession. This subdivision shall not apply to any person described
in Section 22350 of the Business and Professions Code who is making a
lawful service of process, provided that upon exiting the vehicle,
the person proceeds immediately to attempt the service of process,
and leaves immediately upon completing the service of process or upon
the request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful
possession.
   (o) Refusing or failing to leave land, real property, or
structures belonging to or lawfully occupied by another and not open
to the general public, upon being requested to leave by (1) a peace
officer at the request of the owner, the owner's agent, or the person
in lawful possession, and upon being informed by the peace officer
that he or she is acting at the request of the owner, the owner's
agent, or the person in lawful possession, or (2) the owner, the
owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession. The owner, the
owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession shall make a
separate request to the peace officer on each occasion when the peace
officer's assistance in dealing with a trespass is requested.
However, a single request for a peace officer's assistance may be
made to cover a limited period of time not to exceed 30 days and
identified by specific dates, during which there is a fire hazard or
the owner, owner's agent  ,  or person in lawful possession
is absent from the premises or property. In addition, a single
request for a peace officer's assistance may be made for a period not
to exceed six months when the premises or property is closed to the
public and posted as being closed. However, this subdivision shall
not be applicable to persons engaged in lawful labor union activities
which are permitted to be carried out on the property by the
 California   Alatorre-Zenovich-Dunlap-Berman
 Agricultural Labor Relations Act , Part  
of 1975   (Part  3.5 (commencing with Section 1140) of
Division 2 of the Labor  Code,   Code)  or
by the National Labor Relations Act. For purposes of this section,
land, real property, or structures owned or operated by any housing
authority for tenants as defined under Section 34213.5 of the Health
and Safety Code constitutes property not open to the general public;
however, this subdivision shall not apply to persons on the premises
who are engaging in activities protected by the California or United
States Constitution, or to persons who are on the premises at the
request of a resident or management and who are not loitering or
otherwise suspected of violating or actually violating any law or
ordinance.
   (p) Entering upon any lands declared closed to entry as provided
in Section 4256 of the Public Resources Code, if the closed areas
shall have been posted with notices declaring the closure, at
intervals not greater than one mile along the exterior boundaries or
along roads and trails passing through the lands.
   (q) Refusing or failing to leave a public building of a public
agency during those hours of the day or night when the building is
regularly closed to the public upon being requested to do so by a
regularly employed guard,  watchman  
watchperson  , or custodian of the public agency owning or
maintaining the building or property, if the surrounding
circumstances would indicate to a reasonable person that the person
has no apparent lawful business to pursue.
   (r) Knowingly skiing in an area or on a ski trail which is closed
to the public and which has signs posted indicating the closure.
   (s) Refusing or failing to leave a hotel or motel, where he or she
has obtained accommodations and has refused to pay for those
accommodations, upon request of the proprietor or manager, and the
occupancy is exempt, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1940 of
the Civil Code, from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of
Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code. For purposes of
this subdivision, occupancy at a hotel or motel for a continuous
period of 30 days or less shall, in the absence of a written
agreement to the contrary, or other written evidence of a periodic
tenancy of indefinite duration, be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing
with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil
Code.
   (t) (1) Entering upon private property, including contiguous land,
real property, or structures thereon belonging to the same owner,
whether or not generally open to the public, after having been
informed by a peace officer at the request of the owner, the owner's
agent, or the person in lawful possession, and upon being informed by
the peace officer that he or she is acting at the request of the
owner, the owner's agent, or the person in lawful possession, that
the property is not open to the particular person; or refusing or
failing to leave the property upon being asked to leave the property
in the manner provided in this subdivision.
   (2) This subdivision shall apply only to a person who has been
convicted of a crime committed upon the particular private property.
   (3) A single notification or request to the person as set forth
above shall be valid and enforceable under this subdivision unless
and until rescinded by the owner, the owner's agent, or the person in
lawful possession of the property.
   (4) Where the person has been convicted of a violent felony, as
described in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, this subdivision shall
apply without time limitation. Where the person has been convicted
of any other felony, this subdivision shall apply for no more than
five years from the date of conviction. Where the person has been
convicted of a misdemeanor, this subdivision shall apply for no more
than two years from the date of conviction. Where the person was
convicted for an infraction pursuant to Section 490.1, this
subdivision shall apply for no more than one year from the date of
conviction. This subdivision shall not apply to convictions for any
other infraction.
   (u) (1) Knowingly entering, by an unauthorized person, upon any
airport operations area, passenger vessel terminal, or public transit
facility if the area has been posted with notices restricting access
to authorized personnel only and the postings occur not greater than
every 150 feet along the exterior boundary, to the extent, in the
case of a passenger vessel terminal, as defined in subparagraph (B)
of paragraph (3), that the exterior boundary extends shoreside. To
the extent that the exterior boundary of a passenger vessel terminal
operations area extends waterside, this prohibition shall apply if
notices have been posted in a manner consistent with the requirements
for the shoreside exterior boundary, or in any other manner approved
by the captain of the port.
   (2) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be
punished as follows:
   (A) By a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100).
   (B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or
by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both
that fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the
airport or passenger vessel terminal after being requested to leave
by a peace officer or authorized personnel.
   (C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six months, or
by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both
that fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense.
   (3) As used in this subdivision  ,  the following
definitions shall control:
   (A) "Airport operations area" means that part of the airport used
by aircraft for landing, taking off, surface maneuvering, loading and
unloading, refueling, parking, or maintenance, where aircraft
support vehicles and facilities exist, and which is not for public
use or public vehicular traffic.
   (B) "Passenger vessel terminal" means only that portion of a
harbor or port facility, as described in Section 105.105(a)(2) of
Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with a secured area that
regularly serves scheduled commuter or passenger operations. For the
purposes of this section, "passenger vessel terminal" does not
include any area designated a public access area pursuant to Section
105.106 of Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
   (C) "Public transit facility" has the same meaning as specified in
Section 171.7.
   (D) "Authorized personnel" means any person who has a valid
airport identification card issued by the airport operator or has a
valid airline identification card recognized by the airport operator,
or any person not in possession of an airport or airline
identification card who is being escorted for legitimate purposes by
a person with an airport or airline identification card. "Authorized
personnel" also means any person who has a valid port identification
card issued by the harbor operator, or who has a valid company
identification card issued by a commercial maritime enterprise
recognized by the harbor operator, or any other person who is being
escorted for legitimate purposes by a person with a valid port or
qualifying company identification card. "Authorized personnel" also
means any person who has a valid public transit employee
identification.
   (E) "Airport" means any facility whose function is to support
commercial aviation.
   (v) (1) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding
submission to the screening and inspection of one's person and
accessible property in accordance with the procedures being applied
to control access when entering or reentering a sterile area of an
airport, passenger vessel terminal, as defined in Section 171.5, or
public transit facility, as defined in subdivision (u), if the
sterile area is posted with a statement providing reasonable notice
that prosecution may result from a trespass described in this
subdivision, is a violation of this subdivision, punishable by a fine
of not more than five hundred dollars ($500) for the first offense.
A second and subsequent violation is a misdemeanor, punishable by
imprisonment in a county jail for a period of not more than one year,
or by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both
that fine and imprisonment.
   (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), if a first violation of this
subdivision is responsible for the evacuation of an airport terminal,
passenger vessel terminal, or public transit facility and is
responsible in any part for delays or cancellations of scheduled
flights or departures, it is punishable by imprisonment of not more
than one year in a county jail.
   (w) Refusing or failing to leave a battered women's shelter at any
time after being requested to leave by a managing authority of the
shelter.
   (1) A person who is convicted of violating this subdivision shall
be punished by imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one
year.
   (2) The court may order a defendant who is convicted of violating
this subdivision to make restitution to a battered woman in an amount
equal to the relocation expenses of the battered woman and her
children if those expenses are incurred as a result of trespass by
the defendant at a battered women's shelter.
   (x) (1) Knowingly entering or remaining in a neonatal unit,
maternity ward, or birthing center located in a hospital or clinic
without lawful business to pursue therein, if the area has been
posted so as to give reasonable notice restricting access to those
with lawful business to pursue therein and the surrounding
circumstances would indicate to a reasonable person that he or she
has no lawful business to pursue therein. Reasonable notice is that
which would give actual notice to a reasonable person, and is posted,
at a minimum, at each entrance into the area.
   (2) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1) shall be
punished as follows:
   (A) As an infraction, by a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars
($100).
   (B) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by
a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment, if the person refuses to leave the posted area
after being requested to leave by a peace officer or other
authorized person.
   (C) By imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by
a fine not exceeding two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment, for a second or subsequent offense.
   (D) If probation is granted or the execution or imposition of
sentencing is suspended for any person convicted under this
subdivision, it shall be a condition of probation that the person
participate in counseling, as designated by the court, unless the
court finds good cause not to impose this requirement. The court
shall require the person to pay for this counseling, if ordered,
unless good cause not to pay is shown.
   (y) Except as permitted by federal law, intentionally avoiding
submission to the screening and inspection of one's person and
accessible property in accordance with the procedures being applied
to control access when entering or reentering a courthouse or a city,
county, city and county, or state building if entrances to the
courthouse or the city, county, city and county, or state building
have been posted with a statement providing reasonable notice that
prosecution may result from a trespass described in this subdivision.

  SEC. 208.  Section 626.95 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section
60 of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   626.95.  (a) Any person who is in violation of paragraph (2) of
subdivision (a), or subdivision (b), of Section 417, or  Section
 25400 or 25850, upon the grounds of or within a playground, or
a public or private youth center during hours in which the facility
is open for business, classes, or school-related programs, or at any
time when minors are using the facility, knowing that he or she is on
or within those grounds, shall be punished by imprisonment in the
state prison for one, two, or three years, or in a county jail not
exceeding one year.
   (b) State and local authorities are encouraged to cause signs to
be posted around playgrounds and youth centers giving warning of
prohibition of the possession of firearms upon the grounds of or
within playgrounds or youth centers.
   (c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
apply:
   (1) "Playground" means any park or recreational area specifically
designed to be used by children that has play equipment installed,
including public grounds designed for athletic activities such as
baseball, football, soccer, or basketball, or any similar facility
located on public or private school grounds, or on city or county
parks.
   (2) "Youth center" means any public or private facility that is
used to host recreational or social activities for minors while
minors are present.
   (d) It is the Legislature's intent that only an actual conviction
of a felony of one of the offenses specified in this section would
subject the person to firearms disabilities under the federal Gun
Control Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-618; 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921).
  SEC. 209.  Section 647.7 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   647.7.  (a) In any case in which a person is convicted of
violating subdivision (i) or  (k)   (j)  of
Section 647, the court may require counseling as a condition of
probation. Any defendant so ordered to be placed in a counseling
program shall be responsible for paying the expense of his or her
participation in the counseling program as determined by the court.
The court shall take into consideration the ability of the defendant
to pay, and no defendant shall be denied probation because of his or
her inability to pay.
   (b) Every person who, having been convicted of violating
subdivision (i) or  (k)   (j)  of Section
647, commits a second or subsequent violation of subdivision (i) or
 (k)   (j)  of Section 647, shall be
punished by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by
a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
fine and imprisonment, except as provided in subdivision (c).
   (c) Every person who, having been previously convicted of
violating subdivision (i) or  (k)   (j)  of
Section 647, commits a violation of paragraph (3) of subdivision
 (k)   (j)  of Section 647 regardless of
whether it is a first, second, or subsequent violation of that
paragraph, shall be punished by imprisonment in a county jail not
exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars
($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
  SEC. 210.  Section 653.56 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   653.56.  For purposes of this chapter:
   (a) "Compensation" means money, property, or anything else of
value.
   (b) "Immigration matter" means any proceeding, filing, or action
affecting the immigration or citizenship status of any person which
arises under immigration and naturalization law, executive order or
presidential proclamation, or action of the United States Immigration
and  Naturalization Service   Customs Enf 
 orcement  , the United States Department of State  ,
 or the United States Department of Labor.
   (c) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation,
limited liability company, association, other organization, or any
employee or agent thereof.
   (d) "Preparation" means giving advice on an immigration matter and
includes drafting an application, brief, document, petition  ,
 or other paper, or completing a form provided by a federal or
state agency in an immigration matter.
  SEC. 211.  Section 829.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   829.5.  (a) "Code enforcement officer" means any person who is not
described in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830)  of
Title 3 of Part 2  and who is employed by any governmental
subdivision, public or quasi-public corporation, public agency,
public service corporation, any town, city, county, or municipal
corporation, whether incorporated or chartered, who has enforcement
authority for health, safety, and welfare requirements,  and
 whose duties include enforcement of any statute, 
rules   rule  ,  regulations  
regulation  , or standards   standard
 , and who is authorized to issue citations, or file formal
complaints.
   (b) "Code enforcement officer" also includes any person who is
employed by the Department of Housing and Community Development who
has enforcement authority for health, safety, and welfare
requirements pursuant to the Employee Housing Act (Part 1 (commencing
with Section 17000) of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code);
the State Housing Law (Part 1.5 (commencing with Section 17910) of
Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code); the 
Mobilehomes-Manufactured   Manufactured  Housing
Act  of 1980  (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18000) of
Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code); the Mobilehome Parks Act
(Part 2.1 (commencing with Section 18200) of Division 13 of the
Health and Safety Code); and the Special Occupancy Parks Act (Part
2.3 (commencing with Section 18860) of Division 13 of the Health and
Safety Code).
  SEC. 212.  Section 830.8 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section
67 of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   830.8.  (a) Federal criminal investigators and law enforcement
officers are not California peace officers, but may exercise the
powers of arrest of a peace officer in any of the following
circumstances:
   (1) Any circumstances specified in Section 836  of this code
 or Section 5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for
violations of state or local laws.
   (2) When these investigators and law enforcement officers are
engaged in the enforcement of federal criminal laws and exercise the
arrest powers only incidental to the performance of these duties.
   (3) When requested by a California law enforcement agency to be
involved in a joint task force or criminal investigation.
   (4) When probable cause exists to believe that a public offense
that involves immediate danger to persons or property has just
occurred or is being committed.
   In all of these instances, the provisions of Section 847 shall
apply. These investigators and law enforcement officers, prior to the
exercise of these arrest powers, shall have been certified by their
agency heads as having satisfied the training requirements of Section
832, or the equivalent thereof.
   This subdivision does not apply to federal officers of the Bureau
of Land Management or the  United States  Forest Service
 of the Department of Agriculture . These officers
have no authority to enforce California statutes without the written
consent of the sheriff or the chief of police in whose jurisdiction
they are assigned.
   (b) Duly authorized federal employees who comply with the training
requirements set forth in Section 832 are peace officers when they
are engaged in enforcing applicable state or local laws on property
owned or possessed by the United States government, or on any street,
sidewalk, or property adjacent thereto, and with the written consent
of the sheriff or the chief of police, respectively, in whose
jurisdiction the property is situated.
   (c) National park rangers are not California peace officers but
may exercise the powers of arrest of a peace officer as specified in
Section 836 and the powers of a peace officer specified in Section
5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for violations of state or
local laws provided these rangers are exercising the arrest powers
incidental to the performance of their federal duties or providing or
attempting to provide law enforcement services in response to a
request initiated by California state park rangers to assist in
preserving the peace and protecting state parks and other property
for which California state park rangers are responsible. National
park rangers, prior to the exercise of these arrest powers, shall
have been certified by their agency heads as having satisfactorily
completed the training requirements of Section 832.3, or the
equivalent thereof.
   (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, during a state of
war emergency or a state of emergency, as defined in Section 8558 of
the Government Code, federal criminal investigators and law
enforcement officers who are assisting California law enforcement
officers in carrying out emergency operations are not deemed
California peace officers, but may exercise the
                     powers of arrest of a peace officer as specified
in Section 836 and the powers of a peace officer specified in
Section 5150 of the Welfare and Institutions Code for violations of
state or local laws. In these instances, the provisions of Section
847  of this code  and of Section 8655 of the Government
Code shall apply.
   (e) (1) Any qualified person who is appointed as a Washoe tribal
law enforcement officer is not a California peace officer, but may
exercise the powers of a Washoe tribal peace officer when engaged in
the enforcement of Washoe tribal criminal laws against any person who
is an Indian, as defined in subsection  (a)  
(d)  of Section 450b of Title 25 of the United States Code, on
Washoe tribal land. The respective prosecuting authorities, in
consultation with law enforcement agencies, may agree on who shall
have initial responsibility for prosecution of specified infractions.
This subdivision is not meant to confer cross-deputized status as
California peace officers, nor to confer California peace officer
status upon Washoe tribal law enforcement officers when enforcing
state or local laws in the State of California. Nothing in this
section shall be construed to impose liability upon or to require
indemnification by the County of Alpine or the State of California
for any act performed by an officer of the Washoe Tribe. Washoe
tribal law enforcement officers shall have the right to travel to and
from Washoe tribal lands within California in order to carry out
tribal duties.
   (2) Washoe tribal law enforcement officers are exempted from the
provisions of subdivision (a) of Section 25400 and subdivision (a)
and subdivisions (c) to (h), inclusive, of Section 25850 while
performing their official duties on their tribal lands or while
proceeding by a direct route to or from the tribal lands. Tribal law
enforcement vehicles are deemed to be emergency vehicles within the
meaning of Section 30 of the Vehicle Code while performing official
police services.
   (3) As used in this subdivision, the term "Washoe tribal lands"
includes the following:
   (A) All lands located in the County of Alpine within the limits of
the reservation created for the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and
California, notwithstanding the issuance of any patent and including
rights-of-way running through the reservation and all tribal trust
lands.
   (B) All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not
been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through the same.
   (4) As used in this subdivision, the term "Washoe tribal law"
refers to the laws codified in the Law and Order Code of the Washoe
Tribe of Nevada and California, as adopted by the Tribal Council of
the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and California.
  SEC. 213.  Section 833.5 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section
68 of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   833.5.  (a) In addition to any other detention permitted by law,
if a peace officer has reasonable cause to believe that a person has
a firearm or other deadly weapon with him or her in violation of any
provision of law relating to firearms or deadly weapons the peace
officer may detain that person to determine whether a crime relating
to firearms or deadly weapons has been committed.
   For purposes of this section  ,  "reasonable cause to
detain" requires that the circumstances known or apparent to the
officer must include specific and articulable facts causing him or
her to suspect that some offense relating to firearms or deadly
weapons has taken place or is occurring or is about to occur and that
the person he or she intends to detain is involved in that offense.
The circumstances must be such as would cause any reasonable peace
officer in like position, drawing when appropriate on his or her
training and experience, to suspect the same offense and the same
involvement by the person in question.
   (b) Incident to any detention permitted pursuant to subdivision
(a), a peace officer may conduct a limited search of the person for
firearms or weapons if the peace officer reasonably concludes that
the person detained may be armed and presently dangerous to the peace
officer or others. Any firearm or weapon seized pursuant to a valid
detention or search pursuant to this section shall be admissible in
evidence in any proceeding for any purpose permitted by law.
   (c) This section shall not be construed to otherwise limit the
authority of a peace officer to detain any person or to make an
arrest based on reasonable cause.
   (d) This section shall not be construed to permit a peace officer
to conduct a detention or search of any person at the person's
residence or place of business absent a search warrant or other
reasonable cause to detain or search.
   (e) If a firearm or weapon is seized pursuant to this section and
the person from whom it was seized owned the firearm or weapon and is
convicted of a violation of any offense relating to the possession
of such firearm or weapon, the court shall order the firearm or
weapon to be deemed a nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided
by Sections 18000 and 18005.
  SEC. 214.  Section 903.4 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   903.4.  The judges are not required to select any  names
  name  from the list returned by the jury
commissioner, but may, if in their  judgement  
judgment  the due administration of justice requires, make
 all   every  or any  selections
  selection  from among the body of persons in the
county suitable and competent to serve as grand jurors regardless of
the list returned by the jury commissioner.
  SEC. 215.  Section 1201.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   1201.3.  (a) Upon the conviction of a defendant for a sexual
offense involving a minor victim  ,  or  , 
in the case of a minor appearing in juvenile court  ,  if a
petition is admitted or sustained for a sexual offense involving a
minor victim, the court is authorized to issue orders that would
prohibit the defendant or juvenile, for a period up to 10 years, from
harassing, intimidating, or threatening the victim or the victim's
family members or spouse.
   (b) No order issued pursuant to this section shall be interpreted
to apply to counsel acting on behalf of the defendant or juvenile, or
to investigators working on behalf of counsel, in an action relating
to a conviction, petition in juvenile court, or any civil action
arising therefrom, provided  ,  however, that no counsel or
investigator shall harass or threaten any person protected by an
order issued pursuant to subdivision (a).
   (c) Notice of the intent to request an order pursuant to this
section shall be given to counsel for the defendant or juvenile by
the prosecutor or the court at the time of conviction, or disposition
of the petition in juvenile court, and counsel shall have adequate
time in which to respond to the request before the order is made.
   (d) A violation of an order issued pursuant to subdivision (a) is
punishable as provided in Section 166.
  SEC. 216.  Section 1203.066 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   1203.066.  (a) Notwithstanding Section 1203 or any other law,
probation shall not be granted to, nor shall the execution or
imposition of sentence be suspended for, nor shall a finding bringing
the defendant within the provisions of this section be stricken
pursuant to Section 1385 for, any of the following persons:
   (1) A person who is convicted of violating Section 288 or 288.5
when the act is committed by the use of force, violence, duress,
menace, or fear of immediate and unlawful bodily injury on the victim
or another person.
   (2) A person who caused bodily injury on the child victim in
committing a violation of Section 288 or 288.5.
   (3) A person who is convicted of a violation of Section 288 or
288.5 and who was a stranger to the child victim or befriended the
child victim for the purpose of committing an act in violation of
Section 288 or 288.5, unless the defendant honestly and reasonably
believed the victim was 14 years of age or older.
   (4) A person who used a weapon during the commission of a
violation of Section 288 or 288.5.
   (5) A person who is convicted of committing a violation of Section
288 or 288.5 and who has been previously convicted of a violation of
Section 261, 262, 264.1, 266, 266c, 267, 285, 286, 288, 288.5, 288a,
or 289, or of assaulting another person with intent to commit a
crime specified in this paragraph in violation of Section 220, or who
has been previously convicted in another state of an offense which,
if committed or attempted in this state, would constitute an offense
enumerated in this paragraph.
   (6) A person who violated Section 288 or 288.5 while kidnapping
the child victim in violation of Section 207, 209, or 209.5.
   (7) A person who is convicted of committing a violation of Section
288 or 288.5 against more than one victim.
   (8) A person who, in violating Section 288 or 288.5, has
substantial sexual conduct with a victim who is under 14 years of
age.
   (9) A person who, in violating Section 288 or 288.5, used obscene
matter, as defined in Section 311, or matter, as defined in Section
311, depicting sexual conduct, as defined in Section 311.3.
   (b) "Substantial sexual conduct" means penetration of the vagina
or rectum of either the victim or the offender by the penis of the
other or by any foreign object, oral copulation, or masturbation of
either the victim or the offender.
   (c) (1) Except for a violation of subdivision (b) of Section 288,
this section shall only apply if the existence of any fact required
in subdivision (a) is alleged in the accusatory pleading and is
either admitted by the defendant in open court, or found to be true
by the trier of fact.
   (2) For the existence of any fact under paragraph (7) of
subdivision (a), the allegation must be made pursuant to this
section.
   (d) (1) If a person is convicted of a violation of Section 288 or
288.5, and the factors listed in subdivision (a) are not pled or
proven, probation may be granted only if the following terms and
conditions are met:
   (A) If the defendant is a member of the victim's household, the
court finds that probation is in the best interest of the child
victim.
   (B) The court finds that rehabilitation of the defendant is
feasible and that the defendant is amenable to undergoing treatment,
and the defendant is placed in a recognized treatment program
designed to deal with child molestation immediately after the grant
of probation or the suspension of execution or imposition of
sentence.
   (C) If the defendant is a member of the victim's household,
probation shall not be granted unless the defendant is removed from
the household of the victim until the court determines that the best
interests of the victim would be served by his or her return. While
removed from the household, the court shall prohibit contact by the
defendant with the victim, with the exception that the court may
permit supervised contact, upon the request of the director of the
court-ordered supervised treatment program, and with the agreement of
the victim and the victim's parent or legal guardian, other than the
defendant.
   (D) If the defendant is not a member of the victim's household,
the court shall prohibit the defendant from being placed or residing
within one-half mile of the child victim's residence for the duration
of the probation term unless the court, on the record, states its
reasons for finding that this residency restriction would not serve
the best  interest   interests  of the
victim.
   (E) The court finds that there is no threat of physical harm to
the victim if probation is granted.
   (2) The court shall state its reasons on the record for whatever
sentence it imposes on the defendant.
   (3) The court shall order the psychiatrist or psychologist who is
appointed pursuant to Section 288.1 to include a consideration of the
factors specified in subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) of paragraph
(1) in making his or her report to the court.
   (4) The court shall order the defendant to comply with all
probation requirements, including the requirements to attend
counseling, keep all program appointments, and pay program fees based
upon ability to pay.
   (5) No victim shall be compelled to participate in a program or
counseling, and no program may condition a defendant's enrollment on
participation by the victim.
   (e) As used in subdivision (d), the following definitions apply:
   (1) "Contact with the victim" includes all physical contact, being
in the presence of the victim, communicating by any means, including
by a third party acting on behalf of the defendant, or sending any
gifts.
   (2) "Recognized treatment program" means a program that consists
of the following components:
   (A) Substantial expertise in the treatment of child sexual abuse.
   (B) A treatment regimen designed to specifically address the
offense.
   (C) The ability to serve indigent clients.
   (D) Adequate reporting requirements to ensure that all persons
who, after being ordered to attend and complete a program, may be
identified for either failure to enroll in, or failure to
successfully complete, the program, or for the successful completion
of the program as ordered. The program shall notify the court and the
probation department, in writing, within the period of time and in
the manner specified by the court of any person who fails to complete
the program. Notification shall be given if the program determines
that the defendant is performing unsatisfactorily or if the defendant
is not benefiting from the education, treatment, or counseling.
  SEC. 217.  Section 4852.03 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section
84 of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   4852.03.  (a) The period of rehabilitation shall begin to run upon
the discharge of the petitioner from custody due to his or her
completion of the term to which he or she was sentenced or upon his
or her release on parole or probation, whichever is sooner. For
purposes of this chapter, the period of rehabilitation shall
constitute five years' residence in this state, plus a period of time
determined by the following rules:
   (1) To the five years there shall be added four years in the case
of any person convicted of violating Section 187, 209, 219, 4500 
,  or 18755 of this code, or subdivision (a) of Section 1672 of
the Military and Veterans Code, or of committing any other offense
which carries a life sentence.
   (2) To the five years there shall be added five years in the case
of any person convicted of committing any offense or attempted
offense for which sex offender registration is required pursuant to
Section 290, except for convictions for violations of subdivision
(b), (c), or (d) of Section 311.2, or of Section 311.3, 311.10, or
314. For those convictions, two years shall be added to the five
years imposed by this section.
   (3) To the five years there shall be added two years in the case
of any person convicted of committing any offense that is not listed
in paragraph (1) or paragraph (2) and that does not carry a life
sentence.
   (4) The trial court hearing the application for the certificate of
rehabilitation may, if the defendant was ordered to serve
consecutive sentences, order that his or her statutory period of
rehabilitation be extended for an additional period of time which
when combined with the time already served will not exceed the period
prescribed by statute for the sum of the maximum penalties for all
the crimes.
   (5) Any person who was discharged after completion of his or her
term or was released on parole before May 13, 1943, is not subject to
the periods of rehabilitation set forth in these rules.
   (b) Unless and until the period of rehabilitation, as stipulated
in this section, has passed, the petitioner shall be ineligible to
file his or her petition for a certificate of rehabilitation with the
court. Any certificate of rehabilitation that is issued and under
which the petitioner has not fulfilled the requirements of this
chapter shall be void.
   (c) A change of residence within this state does not interrupt the
period of rehabilitation prescribed by this section.
  SEC. 218.  Section 4852.17 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section
85 of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   4852.17.  Whenever a person is issued a certificate of
rehabilitation or granted a pardon from the Governor under this
chapter, the fact shall be immediately reported to the Department of
Justice by the court, Governor, officer, or governmental agency by
whose official action the certificate is issued or the pardon
granted. The Department of Justice shall immediately record the facts
so reported on the former criminal record of the person, and
transmit those facts to the Federal Bureau of Investigation at
Washington, D.C. When the criminal record is thereafter reported by
the department, it shall also report the fact that the person has
received a certificate of rehabilitation, or pardon, or both.
   Whenever a person is granted a full and unconditional pardon by
the Governor, based upon a certificate of rehabilitation, the pardon
shall entitle the person to exercise thereafter all civil and
political rights of citizenship, including  ,  but not
limited to: (1) the right to vote; (2) the right to own, possess, and
keep any type of firearm that may lawfully be owned and possessed by
other citizens; except that this right shall not be restored, and
Sections 17800 and 23510 and Chapter 2 (commencing with Section
29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6 shall apply, if the person
was ever convicted of a felony involving the use of a dangerous
weapon.
  SEC. 219.  Section 4854 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 86
of Chapter 178 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   4854.  In the granting of a pardon to a person, the Governor may
provide that the person is entitled to exercise the right to own,
possess  ,  and keep any type of firearm that may lawfully
be owned and possessed by other citizens; except that this right
shall not be restored, and Sections 17800 and 23510 and Chapter 2
(commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6
shall apply, if the person was ever convicted of a felony involving
the use of a dangerous weapon.
  SEC. 220.  Section 5023.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   5023.2.  (a) In order to promote the best possible patient
outcomes, eliminate unnecessary medical and pharmacy costs, and
ensure consistency in the delivery of health care services, the
department shall maintain a statewide utilization management program
that shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
   (1) Objective, evidence-based medical necessity criteria and
utilization guidelines.
   (2) The review, approval, and oversight of referrals to specialty
medical services.
   (3) The management and oversight of community hospital bed usage
and supervision of health care bed availability.
   (4) Case management processes for high medical risk and high
medical cost patients.
   (5) A preferred provider organization (PPO) and related contract
initiatives that improve the coverage, resource allocation, and
quality of contract medical providers and facilities.
   (b) The department shall develop and implement policies and
procedures to ensure that all adult prisons employ the same statewide
utilization management program established pursuant to subdivision
(a) that supports the department's goals for cost-effective auditable
patient outcomes, access to care, an effective and accessible
specialty network, and prompt access to hospital and infirmary
resources. The department shall provide a copy of these policies and
procedures, by July 1, 2011, to the Joint Legislative Budget
Committee, the Senate Committee on Appropriations, the Senate
Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review, the Senate Committee on
Health, the Senate Committee on Public Safety, the Assembly Committee
on Appropriations, the Assembly Committee on Budget, the Assembly
Committee on Health, and the Assembly Committee on Public Safety.
   (c) (1) The department shall establish annual quantitative
utilization management performance objectives to promote greater
consistency in the delivery of contract health care services, enhance
health care quality outcomes, and reduce unnecessary referrals to
contract medical services. On July 1, 2011, the department shall
report the specific quantitative utilization management performance
objectives it intends to accomplish statewide in each adult prison
during the next 12 months to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee,
the Senate Committee on Appropriations, the Senate Committee on
Budget and Fiscal Review, the Senate Committee on Health, the Senate
Committee on Public Safety, the Assembly Committee on Appropriations,
the Assembly Committee on Budget, the Assembly Committee on Health,
and the Assembly Committee on Public Safety.
   (2) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under this
subdivision is inoperative on January 1, 2015, pursuant to Section
10231.5 of the Government Code.
   (d) On March 1, 2012, and each March 1 thereafter, the department
shall report all of the following to the Joint Legislative Budget
Committee, the Senate Committee on Appropriations, the Senate
Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review, the Senate Committee on
Health, the Senate Committee on Public Safety, the Assembly Committee
on Appropriations, the Assembly Committee on Budget, the Assembly
Committee on Health, and the Assembly Committee on Public Safety:
   (1) The extent to which the department achieved the statewide
quantitative utilization management performance objectives set forth
in the report issued the previous March as well as the most
significant reasons for achieving or not achieving those performance
objectives.
   (2) A list of adult prisons that achieved and a list of adult
prisons that did not achieve  its   their 
quantitative utilization management performance objectives and the
significant reasons for the success or failure in achieving those
performance objectives at each adult state prison.
   (3) The specific quantitative utilization management performance
objectives the department and each adult state prison intends to
accomplish in the next 12 months.
   (4) A description of planned and implemented initiatives necessary
to accomplish the next 12 months' quantitative utilization
management performance objectives statewide and for each adult state
prison. The department shall describe initiatives that were
considered and rejected and the reasons for their rejection.
   (5) The costs for inmate health care for the previous fiscal year,
both statewide and at each adult state prison, and a comparison of
costs from the fiscal year prior to the fiscal year being reported
both statewide and at each adult state prison.
   (e) It is the intent of the Legislature that any activities the
department undertakes to implement the provisions of this section
shall result in no  year over year   year- 
 over-   year  net increase in state costs.
   (f) The following definitions shall apply to this section:
   (1) "Contract medical costs" mean costs associated with an
approved contractual agreement for the purposes of providing direct
and indirect specialty medical care services.
   (2) "Specialty care" means medical services not delivered by
primary care providers.
   (3) "Utilization management program" means a strategy designed to
ensure that health care expenditures are restricted to those that are
needed and appropriate by reviewing patient-inmate medical records
through the application of defined criteria or expert opinion, or
both. Utilization management assesses the efficiency of the health
care process and the appropriateness of decisionmaking in relation to
the site of care, its frequency, and its duration through
prospective, concurrent, and retrospective utilization reviews.
   (4) "Community hospital" means an institution located within a
city, county, or city and county which is licensed under all
applicable state and local laws and regulations to provide diagnostic
and therapeutic services for the medical diagnosis, treatment, and
care of injured, disabled, or sick persons in need of acute inpatient
medical, psychiatric, or psychological care.
   (g) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under
subdivision (d) is inoperative on March 1, 2016, pursuant to Section
10231.5 of the Government Code.
  SEC. 221.  Section 6030 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   6030.  (a) The Corrections Standards Authority shall establish
minimum standards for state and local correctional facilities. The
standards for state correctional facilities shall be established by
January 1, 2007. The authority shall review those standards
biennially and make any appropriate revisions.
   (b) The standards shall include, but not be limited to, the
following: health and sanitary conditions, fire and life safety,
security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons
confined in state and local correctional facilities, and personnel
training.
   (c) The standards shall require that at least one person on duty
at the facility is knowledgeable in the area of fire and life safety
procedures.
   (d) The standards shall also include requirements relating to the
acquisition, storage, labeling, packaging, and dispensing of drugs.
   (e) The standards shall require that inmates who are received by
the facility while they are pregnant are provided all of the
following:
   (1) A balanced, nutritious diet approved by a doctor.
   (2) Prenatal and postpartum information and health care,
including, but not limited to, access to necessary vitamins as
recommended by a doctor.
   (3) Information pertaining to childbirth education and infant
care.
   (4) A dental cleaning while in a state facility.
   (f) The standards shall provide that at no time shall a woman who
is in labor be shackled by the wrists, ankles, or both including
during transport to a hospital, during delivery, and while in
recovery after giving birth, except as provided in Section 5007.7.
   (g) In establishing minimum standards, the authority shall seek
the advice of the following:
   (1) For health and sanitary conditions:
   The State Department of  Public  Health  Services
 , physicians, psychiatrists, local public health
officials, and other interested persons.
   (2) For fire and life safety:
   The State Fire Marshal, local fire officials, and other interested
persons.
   (3) For security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, and
treatment of persons confined in correctional facilities:
   The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and local
juvenile justice commissions, state and local correctional
                                         officials, experts in
criminology and penology, and other interested persons.
   (4) For personnel training:
   The Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training,
psychiatrists, experts in criminology and penology, the Department of
Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and local correctional
officials, and other interested persons.
   (5) For female inmates and pregnant inmates in local adult and
juvenile facilities:
   The California State Sheriffs' Association and Chief Probation
Officers' Association of California, and other interested persons.
  SEC. 222.  Section 6228 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   6228.  A defendant is eligible for placement in a restitution
center if the defendant does not have a criminal history of a
conviction for the sale of drugs within the last five years, or for
an offense requiring registration pursuant to Section 290, or a
serious felony, as listed in Section 1192.7, or a violent felony, as
listed in Section 667.5, the defendant did not receive a sentence of
more than 60 months for the current offense or offenses, the
defendant presents no unacceptable risk to the community, and the
defendant is employable. The provisions of Article 2.5 (commencing
with Section 2930) of Chapter 7 of Title 1  of Part 3,
 are applicable to prisoners in restitution centers.
  SEC. 223.  Section 11180 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   11180.  The Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision as
contained herein is hereby enacted into law and entered into on
behalf of the state with any and all other states legally joining
therein in a form substantially as follows:


      Preamble


   Whereas:  The interstate compact for the supervision of Parolees
and Probationers was established in 1937. It is the earliest
corrections "compact" established among the states and has not been
amended since its adoption over 62 years ago.
   Whereas:  This compact is the only vehicle for the controlled
movement of adult parolees and probationers across state lines and it
currently has jurisdiction over more than a quarter of a million
offenders.
   Whereas:  The complexities of the compact have become more
difficult to administer, and many jurisdictions have expanded
supervision expectations to include currently unregulated practices
such as victim input, victim notification requirements, and sex
offender registration.
   Whereas:  After hearings, national surveys, and a detailed study
by a task force appointed by the National Institute of Corrections,
the overwhelming recommendation has been to amend the document to
bring about an effective management capacity that addresses public
safety concerns and offender accountability.
   Whereas:  Upon the adoption of this Interstate Compact for Adult
Offender Supervision, it is the intention of the Legislature to
repeal the previous Interstate Compact for the Supervision of
Parolees and Probationers as to those states that have ratified this
compact.

   Be it enacted by the General Assembly (Legislature) of the state
of California.

   Short title:  This Act may be cited as The Interstate Compact for
Adult Offender Supervision.


   Article I.  Purpose


   The compacting states to this Interstate Compact recognize that
each state is responsible for the supervision of adult offenders in
the community who are authorized pursuant to the Bylaws and Rules of
this compact to travel across state lines both to and from each
compacting state in a manner so as to track the location of
offenders, transfer supervision authority in an orderly and efficient
manner, and when necessary return offenders to the originating
jurisdictions. The compacting states also recognize that Congress, by
enacting the Crime Control Act, 4 U.S.C. Section 112 (1965), has
authorized and encouraged compacts for cooperative efforts and mutual
assistance in the prevention of crime. It is the purpose of this
compact and the Interstate Commission created hereunder, through
means of joint and cooperative action among the compacting states: to
provide the framework for the promotion of public safety and protect
the rights of victims through the control and regulation of the
interstate movement of offenders in the community; to provide for the
effective tracking, supervision, and rehabilitation of these
offenders by the sending and receiving states; and to equitably
distribute the costs, benefits, and obligations of the compact among
the compacting states. In addition, this compact will: create an
Interstate Commission which will establish uniform procedures to
manage the movement between states of adults placed under community
supervision and released to the community under the jurisdiction of
courts, paroling authorities, corrections or other criminal justice
agencies which will promulgate rules to achieve the purpose of this
compact; ensure an opportunity for input and timely notice to victims
and to jurisdictions where defined offenders are authorized to
travel or to relocate across state lines; establish a system of
uniform data collection, access to information on active cases by
authorized criminal justice officials, and regular reporting of
Compact activities to heads of state councils, state executive,
judicial, and legislative branches and criminal justice
administrators; monitor compliance with rules governing interstate
movement of offenders and initiate interventions to address and
correct non-compliance; and coordinate training and education
regarding regulations of interstate movement of offenders for
officials involved in these types of activities. The compacting
states recognize that there is no "right" of any offender to live in
another state and that duly accredited officers of a sending state
may at all times enter a receiving state and there apprehend and
retake any offender under supervision subject to the provisions of
this compact and Bylaws and Rules promulgated hereunder. It is the
policy of the compacting states that the activities conducted by the
Interstate Commission created herein are the formation of public
policies and are therefore public business.


   Article II.  Definitions


   As used in this compact, unless the context clearly requires a
different construction:
   "Adult" means both individuals legally classified as adults and
juveniles treated as adults by court order, statute, or operation of
law.
   "By-laws" mean those by-laws established by the Interstate
Commission for its governance, or for directing or controlling the
Interstate Commission's actions or conduct.
   "Compact Administrator" means the individual in each compacting
state appointed pursuant to the terms of this compact responsible for
the administration and management of the state's supervision and
transfer of offenders subject to the terms of this compact, the rules
adopted by the Interstate Commission and policies adopted by the
State Council under this compact.
   "Compacting state" means any state which has enacted the enabling
legislation for this compact.
   "Commissioner" means the voting representative of each compacting
state appointed pursuant to Article III of this compact.
   "Interstate Commission" means the Interstate Commission for Adult
Offender Supervision established by this compact.
   "Member" means the commissioner of a compacting state or designee,
who shall be a person officially connected with the commissioner.
   "Non Compacting state" means any state which has not enacted the
enabling legislation for this compact.
   "Offender" means an adult placed under, or subject to, supervision
as the result of the commission of a criminal offense and released
to the community under the jurisdiction of courts, paroling
authorities, corrections, or other criminal justice agencies.
   "Person" means any individual, corporation, business enterprise,
or other legal entity, either public or private.
   "Rules" means acts of the Interstate Commission, duly promulgated
pursuant to Article VIII of this compact, substantially affecting
interested parties in addition to the Interstate Commission, which
shall have the force and effect of law in the compacting states.
   "State" means a state of the United States, the District of
Columbia, and any other territorial possessions of the United States.

   "State Council" means the resident members of the State Council
for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision created by each state under
Article III of this compact.


   Article III.  The Compact Commission


   The compacting states hereby create the "Interstate Commission for
Adult Offender Supervision."
   The Interstate Commission shall be a body corporate and joint
agency of the compacting states.
   The Interstate Commission shall have all the responsibilities,
powers, and duties set forth herein, including the power to sue and
be sued, and whatever additional powers as may be conferred upon it
by subsequent action of the respective legislatures of the compacting
states in accordance with the terms of this compact.
   The Interstate Commission shall consist of Commissioners selected
and appointed by resident members of the State Council for Interstate
Adult Offender Supervision for each state. In addition to the
Commissioners who are the voting representatives of each state, the
Interstate Commission shall include individuals who are not
commissioners but who are members of interested organizations; these
noncommissioner members must include a member of the national
organizations of governors, legislators, state chief justices,
attorneys general and crime victims. All noncommissioner members of
the Interstate Commission shall be ex-officio (nonvoting) members.
The Interstate Commission may provide in its by-laws for these
additional, ex-officio, nonvoting members as it deems necessary. Each
compacting state represented at any meeting of the Interstate
Commission is entitled to one vote. A majority of the compacting
states shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business,
unless a larger quorum is required by the by-laws of the Interstate
Commission. The Interstate Commission shall meet at least once each
calendar year. The chairperson may call additional meetings and, upon
the request of 27 or more compacting states, shall call additional
meetings. Public notice shall be given of all meetings and meetings
shall be open to the public.
   The Interstate Commission shall establish an Executive Committee
which shall include commission officers, members and others as shall
be determined by the By-laws. The Executive Committee shall have the
power to act on behalf of the Interstate Commission during periods
when the Interstate Commission is not in session, with the exception
of rulemaking and/or amendment to the Compact. The Executive
Committee oversees the day-to-day activities managed by the Executive
Director and Interstate Commission staff; administers enforcement
and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its by-laws and as
directed by the Interstate Commission and performs other duties as
directed by the Commission or set forth in the By-laws.


   Article IV.  The State Council


   Each member state shall create a State Council for Interstate
Adult Offender Supervision which shall be responsible for the
appointment of the commissioner who shall serve on the Interstate
Commission from that state. Each state council shall appoint as its
commissioner the Compact Administrator from that state to serve on
the Interstate Commission in this capacity under or pursuant to
applicable law of the member state. While each member state may
determine the membership of its own state council, its membership
must include at least one representative from the legislative,
judicial, and executive branches of government, victims groups and
compact administrators. Each compacting state retains the right to
determine the qualifications of the Compact Administrator who shall
be appointed by the state council or by the Governor in consultation
with the Legislature and the Judiciary. In addition to appointment of
its commissioner to the National Interstate Commission, each state
council shall exercise oversight and advocacy concerning its
participation in Interstate Commission activities and other duties as
may be determined by each member state, including, but not limited
to, development of policy concerning operations and procedures of the
compact within that state.


   Article V.  Powers and Duties of the Interstate Commission


   The Interstate Commission shall have the following powers:
   To adopt a seal and suitable by-laws governing the management and
operation of the Interstate Commission.
   To promulgate rules which shall have the force and effect of
statutory law and shall be binding in the compacting states to the
extent and in the manner provided in this compact.
   To oversee, supervise and coordinate the interstate movement of
offenders subject to the terms of this compact and any by-laws
adopted and rules promulgated by the compact commission.
   To enforce compliance with compact provisions, Interstate
Commission rules, and by-laws, using all necessary and proper means,
including, but not limited to, the use of judicial process.
   To establish and maintain offices.
   To purchase and maintain insurance and bonds.
   To borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel,
including, but not limited to, members and their staffs.
   To establish and appoint committees and hire staff which it deems
necessary for the carrying out of its functions including, but not
limited to, an executive committee as required by Article III which
shall have the power to act on behalf of the Interstate Commission in
carrying out its powers and duties hereunder.
   To elect or appoint officers, attorneys, employees, agents, or
consultants, and to fix their compensation, define their duties and
determine their qualifications; and to establish the Interstate
Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to, among other
things, conflicts of interest, rates of compensation, and
qualifications of personnel.
   To accept any and all donations and grants of money, equipment,
supplies, materials, and services, and to receive, utilize, and
dispose of same.
   To lease, purchase, accept contributions or donations of, or
otherwise to own, hold, improve or use any property, real, personal,
or mixed.
   To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or
otherwise dispose of any property, real, personal or mixed.
   To establish a budget and make expenditures and levy dues as
provided in Article X of this compact.
   To sue and be sued.
   To provide for dispute resolution among Compacting States.
   To perform whatever functions as may be necessary or appropriate
to achieve the purposes of this compact.
   To report annually to the legislatures, governors, judiciary, and
state councils of the compacting states concerning the activities of
the Interstate Commission during the preceding year. These reports
shall also include any recommendations that may have been adopted by
the Interstate Commission.
   To coordinate education, training and public awareness regarding
the interstate movement of offenders for officials involved in these
activities.
   To establish uniform standards for the reporting, collecting, and
exchanging of data.


   Article VI.  Organization and Operation of the Interstate
Commission


   Section A.  By-laws
   The Interstate Commission shall, by a majority of the Members,
within twelve months of the first Interstate Commission meeting,
adopt By-laws to govern its conduct as may be necessary or
appropriate to carry out the purposes of the Compact, including, but
not limited to:
   Establishing the fiscal year of the Interstate Commission.
   Establishing an executive committee and other committees as may be
necessary.
   Providing reasonable standards and procedures:
   (i) For the establishment of committees.
   (ii) Governing any general or specific delegation of any authority
or function of the Interstate Commission; providing reasonable
procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Interstate
Commission, and ensuring reasonable notice of each meeting;
establishing the titles and responsibilities of the officers of the
Interstate Commission; providing reasonable standards and procedures
for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the
Interstate Commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other
similar laws of any Compacting State, the By-laws shall exclusively
govern the personnel policies and programs of the Interstate
Commission; and providing a mechanism for winding up the operations
of the Interstate Commission and the equitable return of any surplus
funds that may exist upon the termination of the Compact after the
payment and/or reserving of all of its debts and obligations;
providing transition rules for "start up" administration of the
compact; establishing standards and procedures for compliance and
technical assistance in carrying out the compact.
   Section B.  Officers and Staff
   The Interstate Commission shall, by a majority of the Members,
elect from among its Members a chairperson and a vice chairperson,
each of whom shall have authorities and duties as may be specified in
the By-laws. The chairperson, or in his or her absence or
disability, the vice chairperson, shall preside at all meetings of
the Interstate Commission. The Officers so elected shall serve
without compensation or remuneration from the Interstate Commission;
provided that, subject to the availability of budgeted funds, the
officers shall be reimbursed for any actual and necessary costs and
expenses incurred by them in the performance of their duties and
responsibilities as officers of the Interstate Commission.
   The Interstate Commission shall, through its executive committee,
appoint or retain an executive director for a period, upon terms and
conditions and for compensation as the Interstate Commission may deem
appropriate. The executive director shall serve as secretary to the
Interstate Commission, and hire and supervise other staff as may be
authorized by the Interstate Commission, but shall not be a member.
   Section C.  Corporate Records of the Interstate Commission
   The Interstate Commission shall maintain its corporate books and
records in accordance with the By-laws.
   Section D.  Qualified Immunity, Defense and Indemnification
   The Members, officers, executive director and employees of the
Interstate Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either
personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage
to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability
caused or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission
that occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission employment,
duties or responsibilities; provided, that nothing in this paragraph
shall be construed to protect anyone from suit and/or liability for
any damage, loss, injury or liability caused by their intentional or
willful and wanton misconduct. The Interstate Commission shall defend
the Commissioner of a Compacting State, or his or her
representatives or employees, or the Interstate Commission's
representatives or employees, in any civil action seeking to impose
liability, arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or
omission that occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission
employment, duties or responsibilities, or that the defendant had a
reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of
Interstate Commission employment, duties or responsibilities;
provided, that the actual or alleged act, error or omission did not
result from intentional wrongdoing on the part of that person.
   The Interstate Commission shall indemnify and hold the
Commissioner of a Compacting State, the appointed designee or
employees, or the Interstate Commission's representatives or
employees, harmless in the amount of any settlement or 
judgement   judgment  obtained against 
anyone   any person  arising out of any actual or
alleged act, error  ,  or omission that occurred within the
scope of Interstate Commission employment, duties  ,  or
responsibilities, or that  the  person had a reasonable
basis for believing occurred within the scope of Interstate
Commission employment, duties  ,  or responsibilities,
provided, that the actual or alleged act, error  ,  or
omission did not result from gross negligence or intentional
wrongdoing on the part of the person.


   Article VII.  Activities of the Interstate Commission


   The Interstate Commission shall meet and take whatever actions as
are consistent with the provisions of this Compact.
   Except as otherwise provided in this Compact and unless a greater
percentage is required by the By-laws, in order to constitute an act
of the Interstate Commission, the act shall have been taken at a
meeting of the Interstate Commission and shall have received an
affirmative vote of a majority of the members present.
   Each Member of the Interstate Commission shall have the right and
power to cast a vote to which that Compacting State is entitled and
to participate in the business and affairs of the Interstate
Commission. A Member shall vote in person on behalf of the state and
shall not delegate a vote to another member state. However, a State
Council shall appoint another authorized representative, in the
absence of the commissioner from that state, to cast a vote on behalf
of the member state at a specified meeting. The By-laws may provide
for Members' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of
telecommunication or electronic communication. Any voting conducted
by telephone, or other means of telecommunication or electronic
communication shall be subject to the same quorum requirements of
meetings where members are present in person.
   The Interstate Commission shall meet at least once during each
calendar year. The chairperson of the Interstate Commission may call
additional meetings at any time and, upon the request of a majority
of the Members, shall call additional meetings.
   The Interstate Commission's By-laws shall establish conditions and
procedures under which the Interstate Commission shall make its
information and official records available to the public for
inspection or copying. The Interstate Commission may exempt from
disclosure any information or official records to the extent they
would adversely affect personal privacy rights or proprietary
interests. In promulgating the Rules, the Interstate Commission may
make available to law enforcement agencies records and information
otherwise exempt from disclosure, and may enter into agreements with
law enforcement agencies to receive or exchange information or
records subject to nondisclosure and confidentiality provisions.
   Public notice shall be given of all meetings and all meetings
shall be open to the public, except as set forth in the Rules or as
otherwise provided in the Compact. The Interstate Commission shall
promulgate Rules consistent with the principles contained in the
"Government in Sunshine Act," 5 U.S.C. Section 552(b), as may be
amended. The Interstate Commission and any of its committees may
close a meeting to the public where it determines by two-thirds vote
that an open meeting would be likely to:
   Relate solely to the Interstate Commission's internal personnel
practices and procedures.
   Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute.

   Disclose trade secrets or commercial or financial information
which is privileged or confidential.
   Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any
person.
   Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would
constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
   Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement
purposes.
   Disclose information contained in or related to examination,
operating or condition reports prepared by, or on behalf of or for
the use of, the Interstate Commission with respect to a regulated
entity for the purpose of regulation or supervision of the entity.
   Disclose information, the premature disclosure of which would
significantly endanger the life of a person or the stability of a
regulated entity.
   Specifically relate to the Interstate Commission's issuance of a
subpoena, or its participation in a civil action or proceeding.
   For every meeting closed pursuant to this provision, the
Interstate Commission's chief legal officer shall publicly certify
that, in his or her opinion, the meeting may be closed to the public,
and shall reference each relevant exemptive provision. The
Interstate Commission shall keep minutes which shall fully and
clearly describe all matters discussed in any meeting and shall
provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the
reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views
expressed on any item and the record of any rollcall vote (reflected
in the vote of each Member on the question). All documents considered
in connection with any action shall be identified in the minutes.
The Interstate Commission shall collect standardized data concerning
the interstate movement of offenders as directed through its By-laws
and Rules which shall specify the data to be collected, the means of
collection and data exchange and reporting requirements.


   Article VIII.  Rulemaking Functions of the Interstate Commission


   The Interstate Commission shall promulgate Rules in order to
effectively and efficiently achieve the purposes of the Compact
including transition rules governing administration of the compact
during the period in which it is being considered and enacted by the
states.
   Rulemaking shall occur pursuant to the criteria set forth in this
Article and the By-laws and Rules adopted pursuant thereto.
Rulemaking shall substantially conform to the principles of the
federal Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C.S. section 551 et seq.,
and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C.S. app. 2, section 1
et seq., as may be amended (hereinafter "APA"). All Rules and
amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each Rule
or amendment.
   If a majority of the legislatures of the Compacting States rejects
a Rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner
used to adopt the compact, then the Rule shall have no further force
and effect in any Compacting State.
   When promulgating a Rule, the Interstate Commission shall:
   Publish the proposed Rule stating with particularity the text of
the Rule which is proposed and the reason for the proposed Rule.
                                          Allow persons to submit
written data, facts, opinions and arguments, which information shall
be publicly available.
   Provide an opportunity for an informal hearing.
   Promulgate a final Rule and its effective date, if appropriate,
based on the rulemaking record.
   Not later than sixty days after a Rule is promulgated, any
interested person may file a petition in the United States District
Court for the District of Columbia or in the Federal District Court
where the Interstate Commission's principal office is located for
judicial review of the Rule. If the court finds that the Interstate
Commission's action is not supported by substantial evidence, (as
defined in the APA), in the rulemaking record, the court shall hold
the Rule unlawful and set it aside. Subjects to be addressed within
12 months after the first meeting must at a minimum include:
   Notice to victims and opportunity to be heard.
   Offender registration and compliance.
   Violations/returns.
   Transfer procedures and forms.
   Eligibility for transfer.
   Collection of restitution and fees from offenders.
   Data collection and reporting.
   The level of supervision to be provided by the receiving state.
   Transition rules governing the operation of the compact and the
Interstate Commission during all or part of the period between the
effective date of the compact and the date on which the last eligible
state adopts the compact.
   Mediation, arbitration and dispute resolution.
   The existing rules governing the operation of the previous compact
superceded by this Act shall be null and void twelve (12) months
after the first meeting of the Interstate Commission created
hereunder.
   Upon determination by the Interstate Commission that an emergency
exists, it may promulgate an emergency rule which shall become
effective immediately upon adoption, provided that the usual
rulemaking procedures provided hereunder shall be retroactively
applied to said rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event
later than 90 days after the effective date of the rule.


   Article IX.  Oversight, Enforcement, and Dispute Resolution by the
Interstate Commission


   Section A.  Oversight
   The Interstate Commission shall oversee the interstate movement of
adult offenders in the compacting states and shall monitor the
activities being administered in Non-compacting States which may
significantly affect Compacting States.
   The courts and executive agencies in each Compacting State shall
enforce this Compact and shall take all actions necessary and
appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. In any
judicial or administrative proceeding in a Compacting State
pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact which may affect the
powers, responsibilities or actions of the Interstate Commission,
the Interstate Commission shall be entitled to receive all service of
process in any proceeding, and shall have standing to intervene in
the proceeding for all purposes.
   Section B.  Dispute Resolution
   The Compacting States shall report to the Interstate Commission on
issues or activities of concern to them, and cooperate with and
support the Interstate Commission in the discharge of its duties and
responsibilities.
   The Interstate Commission shall attempt to resolve any disputes or
other issues which are subject to the Compact and which may arise
among Compacting States and Non-compacting States.
   The Interstate Commission shall enact a By-law or promulgate a
Rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for
disputes among the Compacting States.
   Section C.  Enforcement
   The Interstate Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its
discretion, shall enforce the provisions of this compact using any or
all means set forth in Article XII, Section B, of this compact.


   Article X.  Finance


   The Interstate Commission shall pay or provide for the payment of
the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization and
ongoing activities.
   The Interstate Commission shall levy on and collect an annual
assessment from each Compacting State to cover the cost of the
internal operations and activities of the Interstate Commission and
its staff which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover the
Interstate Commission's annual budget as approved each year. The
aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a
formula to be determined by the Interstate Commission, taking into
consideration the population of the state and the volume of
interstate movement of offenders in each Compacting State and shall
promulgate a Rule binding upon all Compacting States which governs
said assessment.
   The Interstate Commission shall not incur any obligations of any
kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall
the Interstate Commission pledge the credit of any of the compacting
states, except by and with the authority of the compacting state.
The Interstate Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all
receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the
Interstate Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting
procedures established under its By-laws. However, all receipts and
disbursements of funds handled by the Interstate Commission shall be
audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant and the
report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the
annual report of the Interstate Commission.


   Article XI.  Compacting States, Effective Date and Amendment


   Any state, as defined in Article II of this compact, is eligible
to become a Compacting State. The Compact shall become effective and
binding upon legislative enactment of the Compact into law by no less
than 35 of the States. The initial effective date shall be the later
of July 1, 2001, or upon enactment into law by the 35th
jurisdiction. Thereafter, it shall become effective and binding, as
to any other Compacting State, upon enactment of the Compact into law
by that State. The governors of Non-member states or their designees
will be invited to participate in Interstate Commission activities
on a non-voting basis prior to adoption of the compact by all states
and territories of the United States.
   Amendments to the Compact may be proposed by the Interstate
Commission for enactment by the Compacting States. No amendment shall
become effective and binding upon the Interstate Commission and the
Compacting States unless and until it is enacted into law by
unanimous consent of the Compacting States.


   Article XII.  Withdrawal, Default, Termination, and Judicial
Enforcement


   Section A.  Withdrawal
   Once effective, the Compact shall continue in force and remain
binding upon each and every Compacting State; provided, that a
Compacting State may withdraw from the Compact ("Withdrawing State")
by enacting a statute specifically repealing the statute which
enacted the Compact into law.
   The effective date of withdrawal is the effective date of the
repeal. The Withdrawing State shall immediately notify the
Chairperson of the Interstate Commission in writing upon the
introduction of legislation repealing this Compact in the Withdrawing
State. The Interstate Commission shall notify the other Compacting
States of the Withdrawing State's intent to withdraw within sixty
days of its receipt thereof. The Withdrawing State is responsible for
all assessments, obligations and liabilities incurred through the
effective date of withdrawal, including any obligations, the
performance of which extend beyond the effective date of withdrawal.
   Reinstatement following withdrawal of any Compacting State shall
occur upon the Withdrawing State reenacting the Compact or upon a
later date as determined by the Interstate Commission.
   Section B.  Default
   If the Interstate Commission determines that any Compacting State
has at any time defaulted ("Defaulting State") in the performance of
any of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact, the
By-laws or any duly promulgated Rules the Interstate Commission may
impose any or all of the following penalties: Fines, fees and costs
in amounts as are deemed to be reasonable as fixed by the Interstate
Commission. Remedial training and technical assistance as directed by
the Interstate Commission; suspension and termination of membership
in the compact. Suspension shall be imposed only after all other
reasonable means of securing compliance under the By-laws and Rules
have been exhausted. Immediate notice of suspension shall be given by
the Interstate Commission to the Governor, the Chief Justice or
Chief Judicial Officer of the state, the majority and minority
leaders of the defaulting state's legislature, and the State Council.

   The grounds for default include, but are not limited to, failure
of a Compacting State to perform the obligations or responsibilities
imposed upon it by this compact, Interstate Commission By-laws, or
duly promulgated Rules. The Interstate Commission shall immediately
notify the Defaulting State in writing of the penalty imposed by the
Interstate Commission on the Defaulting State pending a cure of the
default. The Interstate Commission shall stipulate the conditions and
the time period within which the Defaulting State must cure its
default. If the Defaulting State fails to cure the default within the
time period specified by the Interstate Commission, in addition to
any other penalties imposed herein, the Defaulting State may be
terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of
the Compacting States and all rights, privileges and benefits
conferred by this Compact shall be terminated from the effective date
of suspension. Within sixty days of the effective date of
termination of a Defaulting State, the Interstate Commission shall
notify the Governor, the Chief Justice or Chief Judicial Officer and
the Majority and Minority Leaders of the Defaulting State's
legislature and the state council of the termination.
   The Defaulting State is responsible for all assessments,
obligations and liabilities incurred through the effective date of
termination including any obligations, the performance of which
extends beyond the effective date of termination.
   The Interstate Commission shall not bear any costs relating to the
Defaulting State unless otherwise mutually agreed upon between the
Interstate Commission and the Defaulting State. Reinstatement
following termination of any Compacting State requires both a
reenactment of the Compact by the Defaulting State and the approval
of the Interstate Commission pursuant to the Rules.
   Section C.  Judicial Enforcement
   The Interstate Commission may, by majority vote of the Members,
initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the
District of Columbia or, at the discretion of the Interstate
Commission, in the Federal District where the Interstate Commission
has its offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the
Compact, its duly promulgated Rules and By-laws, against any
Compacting State in default. In the event judicial enforcement is
necessary the prevailing party shall be awarded all litigation costs
including reasonable attorneys fees.
   Section D.  Dissolution of Compact
   The Compact dissolves effective upon the date of the withdrawal or
default of the Compacting State which reduces membership in the
Compact to one Compacting State.
   Upon the dissolution of this Compact, the Compact becomes null and
void and shall be of no further force or effect, and the business
and affairs of the Interstate Commission shall be wound up and any
surplus funds shall be distributed in accordance with the By-laws.


   Article XIII.  Severability and Construction


   The provisions of this Compact shall be severable, and if any
phrase, clause, sentence or provision is deemed unenforceable, the
remaining provisions of the Compact shall be enforceable.
   The provisions of this Compact shall be liberally constructed to
effectuate its purposes.


   Article XIV.  Binding Effect of Compact and Other Laws


   Section A.  Other Laws
   Nothing herein prevents the enforcement of any other law of a
Compacting State that is not inconsistent with this Compact.
   All Compacting States' laws conflicting with this Compact are
superseded to the extent of the conflict.
   Section B.  Binding Effect of the Compact
   All lawful actions of the Interstate Commission, including all
Rules and By-laws promulgated by the Interstate Commission, are
binding upon the Compacting States.
   All agreements between the Interstate Commission and the
Compacting States are binding in accordance with their terms.
   Upon the request of a party to a conflict over meaning or
interpretation of Interstate Commission actions, and upon a majority
vote of the Compacting States, the Interstate Commission may issue
advisory opinions regarding meaning or interpretation.
   In the event any provision of this Compact exceeds the
constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any Compacting
State, the obligations, duties, powers or jurisdiction sought to be
conferred by the provision upon the Interstate Commission shall be
ineffective and the obligations, duties, powers or jurisdiction shall
remain in the Compacting State and shall be exercised by the agency
thereof to which the obligations, duties, powers or jurisdiction are
delegated by law in effect at the time this Compact becomes
effective.

  SEC. 224.  Section 12022 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 5
of Chapter 711 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   12022.  (a) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d),
any person who is armed with a firearm in the commission of a felony
or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and
consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for one year,
unless the arming is an element of that offense. This additional term
shall apply to any person who is a principal in the commission of a
felony or attempted felony if one or more of the principals is armed
with a firearm, whether or not the person is personally armed with a
firearm.
   (2) Except as provided in subdivision (c), and notwithstanding
subdivision (d), if the firearm is an assault weapon, as defined in
Section 30510 or Section 30515, or a machinegun, as defined in
Section 16880, or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section 30530, the
additional and consecutive term described in this subdivision shall
be three years whether or not the arming is an element of the offense
of which the person was convicted. The additional term provided in
this paragraph shall apply to any person who is a principal in the
commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the
principals is armed with an assault weapon or machinegun, or a .50
BMG rifle, whether or not the person is personally armed with an
assault weapon or machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle.
   (b) (1) Any person who personally uses a deadly or dangerous
weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be
punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the
state prison for one year, unless use of a deadly or dangerous
weapon is an element of that offense.
   (2) If the person described in paragraph (1) has been convicted of
carjacking or attempted carjacking, the additional term shall be
one, two, or three years.
   (3) When a person is found to have personally used a deadly or
dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony as
provided in this subdivision and the weapon is owned by that person,
the court shall order that the weapon be deemed a nuisance and
disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000 and 18005.
   (c) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a),
any person who is personally armed with a firearm in the commission
of a violation or attempted violation of Section 11351, 11351.5,
11352, 11366.5, 11366.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379, 11379.5, or 11379.6
of the Health and Safety Code  ,  shall be punished
by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state
prison for three, four, or five years.
   (d) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision (a),
any person who is not personally armed with a firearm who, knowing
that another principal is personally armed with a firearm, is a
principal in the commission of an offense or attempted offense
specified in subdivision (c), shall be punished by an additional and
consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for one, two, or
three years.
   (e) For purposes of imposing an enhancement under Section 1170.1,
the enhancements under this section shall count as  one,
  a  single enhancement.
   (f) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court may
strike the additional punishment for the enhancements provided in
subdivision (c) or (d) in an unusual case where the interests of
justice would best be served, if the court specifies on the record
and enters into the minutes the circumstances indicating that the
interests of justice would best be served by that disposition.
  SEC. 225.  Section 12022.5 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 5
of Chapter 711 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   12022.5.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), any person
who personally uses a firearm in the commission of a felony or
attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive
term of imprisonment in the state prison for 3, 4, or 10 years,
unless use of a firearm is an element of that offense.
   (b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any person who personally
uses an assault weapon, as specified in Section 30510 or 
Section  30515, or a machinegun, as defined in Section
16880, in the commission of a felony or attempted felony, shall be
punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the
state prison for 5, 6, or 10 years.
   (c) Notwithstanding Section 1385 or any other  provisions
  provision  of law, the court shall not strike an
allegation under this section or a finding bringing a person within
the provisions of this section.
   (d) Notwithstanding the limitation in subdivision (a) relating to
being an element of the offense, the additional term provided by this
section shall be imposed for any violation of Section 245 if a
firearm is used, or for murder if the killing is perpetrated by means
of shooting a firearm from a motor vehicle, intentionally at another
person outside of the vehicle with the intent to inflict great
bodily injury or death.
   (e) When a person is found to have personally used a firearm, an
assault weapon, a machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle, in the commission
of a felony or attempted felony as provided in this section and the
firearm, assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle, is owned by
that person, the court shall order that the firearm be deemed a
nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000 and
18005.
   (f) For purposes of imposing an enhancement under Section 1170.1,
the enhancements under this section shall count as  one,
  a  single enhancement.
  SEC. 226.  Section 12022.7 of the Penal Code, as added by Section 5
of Chapter 711 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   12022.7.  (a) Any person who personally inflicts great bodily
injury on any person other than an accomplice in the commission of a
felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and
consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for three years.

   (b) Any person who personally inflicts great bodily injury on any
person other than an accomplice in the commission of a felony or
attempted felony which causes the victim to become comatose due to
brain injury or to suffer paralysis of a permanent nature  ,
 shall be punished by an additional and consecutive term of
imprisonment in the state prison for five years. As used in this
subdivision, "paralysis" means a major or complete loss of motor
function resulting from injury to the nervous system or to a muscular
mechanism.
   (c) Any person who personally inflicts great bodily injury on a
person who is 70 years of age or older, other than an accomplice, in
the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall be punished by
an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment in the state
prison for five years.
   (d) Any person who personally inflicts great bodily injury on a
child under the age of five years in the commission of a felony or
attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and consecutive
term of imprisonment in the state prison for four, five, or six
years.
   (e) Any person who personally inflicts great bodily injury under
circumstances involving domestic violence in the commission of a
felony or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and
consecutive term of imprisonment in the state prison for three, four,
or five years. As used in this subdivision, "domestic violence" has
the meaning provided in subdivision (b) of Section 13700.
   (f) As used in this section, "great bodily injury" means a
significant or substantial physical injury.
   (g) This section shall not apply to murder or manslaughter or a
violation of Section 451 or 452. Subdivisions (a), (b), (c), and (d)
shall not apply if infliction of great bodily injury is an element of
the offense.
   (h) The court shall impose the additional terms of imprisonment
under either subdivision (a), (b), (c), or (d), but may not impose
more than one of those terms for the same offense.
  SEC. 227.  Section 12022.85 of the Penal Code, as added by Section
5 of Chapter 711 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   12022.85.  (a) Any person who violates one or more of the offenses
listed in subdivision (b) with knowledge that he or she has acquired
immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) or with the knowledge that he or
she carries antibodies of the human immunodeficiency virus at the
time of the commission of those offenses  ,  shall
receive a three-year enhancement for each violation in addition to
the sentence provided under those sections.
   (b) Subdivision (a) applies to the following crimes:
   (1) Rape in violation of Section 261.
   (2) Unlawful intercourse with a person under 18 years of age in
violation of Section 261.5.
   (3) Rape of a spouse in violation of Section 262.
   (4) Sodomy in violation of Section 286.
   (5) Oral copulation in violation of Section 288a.
   (c) For purposes of proving the knowledge requirement of this
section, the prosecuting attorney may use test results received under
subdivision (c) of Section 1202.1 or subdivision (g) of Section
1202.6.
  SEC. 228.  Section 16880 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   16880.  (a) As used in this part, "machinegun" means any weapon
that shoots, is designed to shoot, or can readily be restored to
shoot, automatically more than one shot, without manual reloading, by
a single function of the trigger.
   (b) The term "machinegun" also includes the frame or receiver of
any weapon described in subdivision (a), any part designed and
intended solely and exclusively, or combination of parts designed and
intended, for use in converting a weapon into a machinegun, and any
combination of parts from which a machinegun can be assembled if
those parts are in the possession or under the control of a person.
   (c) The term "machinegun" also includes any weapon deemed by the
federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and  Firearms
 and Explosives  as readily convertible to a machinegun
under Chapter 53 (commencing with Section 5801) of Title 26 of the
United States Code.
  SEC. 229.  Section 25105 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   25105.  Section 25100 does not apply whenever any of the following
occurs:
   (a) The child obtains the firearm as a result of an illegal entry
to any premises by any person.
   (b) The firearm is kept in a locked container or in a location
that a reasonable person would believe to be secure.
   (c) The firearm is carried on the person or within close enough
proximity thereto that the individual can readily retrieve and use
the firearm as if carried on the person.
   (d) The firearm is locked with a locking device, as defined in
Section 16860, which has rendered the firearm inoperable.
   (e) The person is a peace officer or a member of the Armed Forces
or the National Guard and the child obtains the firearm during, or
incidental to, the performance of the person's duties.
   (f) The child obtains, or obtains and discharges, the firearm in a
lawful act of self-defense or defense of another person.
   (g) The person who keeps a loaded firearm on any  premise
  premises  that  is   are
 under the person's custody or control has no reasonable
expectation, based on objective facts and circumstances, that a child
is likely to be present on the premises.
  SEC. 230.  Section 25650 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   25650.  (a) Upon approval of the sheriff of the county in which
the retiree resides, Section 25400 does not apply to, or affect, any
honorably retired federal officer or agent of any federal law
enforcement agency, including, but not limited to, the Federal Bureau
of Investigation, the  United States  Secret Service, the
United States Customs Service, the  Federal  
federal  Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and 
Firearms  and Explosives  , the Federal Bureau of Narcotics,
the  United States  Drug Enforcement Administration, the
United States Border Patrol, and any officer or agent of the Internal
Revenue Service who was authorized to carry weapons while on duty,
who was assigned to duty within the state for a period of not less
than one year, or who retired from active service in the state.
   (b) A retired federal officer or agent shall provide the sheriff
with certification from the agency from which the officer or agent
retired certifying that person's service in the state,  stating
 the nature of that person's retirement, and indicating the
agency's concurrence that the retired federal officer or agent should
be accorded the privilege of carrying a concealed firearm.
   (c) Upon that approval, the sheriff shall issue a permit to the
retired federal officer or agent indicating that the retiree may
carry a concealed firearm in accordance with this section. The permit
shall be valid for a period not exceeding five years, shall be
carried by the retiree while carrying a concealed firearm, and may be
revoked for good cause.
   (d) The sheriff of the county in which the retired federal officer
or agent resides may require recertification prior to a permit
renewal, and may suspend the privilege for cause. The sheriff may
charge a fee necessary to cover any reasonable expenses incurred by
the county.
                                SEC. 231.  Section 26020 of the Penal
Code is amended to read:
   26020.  (a) Upon approval of the sheriff of the county in which
the retiree resides, Section 25850 does not apply to any honorably
retired federal officer or agent of any federal law enforcement
agency, including, but not limited to, the Federal Bureau of
Investigation, the  United States  Secret Service, the
United States Customs Service, the  Federal  
federal  Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and 
Firearms  and Explosives  , the Federal Bureau of Narcotics,
the  United States  Drug Enforcement Administration, the
United States Border Patrol, and any officer or agent of the Internal
Revenue Service who was authorized to carry weapons while on duty,
who was assigned to duty within the state for a period of not less
than one year, or who retired from active service in the state.
   (b) A retired federal officer or agent shall provide the sheriff
with certification from the agency from which the officer or agent
retired certifying that person's service in the state,  stating
 the nature of that person's retirement, and indicating the
agency's concurrence that the retired federal officer or agent should
be accorded the privilege of carrying a loaded firearm.
   (c) Upon approval, the sheriff shall issue a permit to the retired
federal officer or agent indicating that the retiree may carry a
loaded firearm in accordance with this section. The permit shall be
valid for a period not exceeding five years, shall be carried by the
retiree while carrying a loaded firearm, and may be revoked for good
cause.
   (d) The sheriff of the county in which the retired federal officer
or agent resides may require recertification prior to a permit
renewal, and may suspend the privilege for cause. The sheriff may
charge a fee necessary to cover any reasonable expenses incurred by
the county.
  SEC. 232.  Section 26175 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   26175.  (a) (1) Applications for licenses, applications for
amendments to licenses, amendments to licenses, and licenses under
this article shall be uniform throughout the state, upon forms to be
prescribed by the Attorney General.
   (2) The Attorney General shall convene a committee composed of one
representative of the California State Sheriffs' Association, one
representative of the California Police  Chiefs' 
 Chiefs  Association, and one representative of the
Department of Justice to review, and as deemed appropriate, revise
the standard application form for licenses. The committee shall meet
for this purpose if two of the committee's members deem that
necessary.
   (b) The application shall include a section summarizing the
statutory provisions of state law that result in the automatic denial
of a license.
   (c) The standard application form for licenses described in
subdivision (a) shall require information from the applicant,
including, but not limited to, the name, occupation, residence  ,
 and business address of the applicant, the applicant's age,
height, weight, color of eyes and hair, and reason for desiring a
license to carry the weapon.
   (d) Applications for licenses shall be filed in writing  ,
 and signed by the applicant.
   (e) Applications for amendments to licenses shall be filed in
writing and signed by the applicant, and shall state what type of
amendment is sought pursuant to Section 26215 and the reason for
desiring the amendment.
   (f) The forms shall contain a provision whereby the applicant
attests to the truth of statements contained in the application.
   (g) An applicant shall not be required to complete any additional
application or form for a license, or to provide any information
other than that necessary to complete the standard application form
described in subdivision (a), except to clarify or interpret
information provided by the applicant on the standard application
form.
   (h) The standard application form described in subdivision (a) is
deemed to be a local form expressly exempt from the requirements of
the Administrative  Procedures   Procedure 
Act  , Chapter   (Chapter  3.5 (commencing
with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the
Government  Code   Code)  .
   (i) Any license issued upon the application shall set forth the
licensee's name, occupation, residence and business address, the
licensee's age, height, weight, color of eyes and hair, and the
reason for desiring a license to carry the weapon, and shall, in
addition, contain a description of the weapon or weapons authorized
to be carried, giving the name of the manufacturer, the serial
number, and the caliber. The license issued to the licensee may be
laminated.
  SEC. 233.  Section 29010 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29010.  (a) Commencing July 1, 1999, no person, firm, or
corporation licensed to manufacture firearms pursuant to Chapter 44
(commencing with Section 921) of Title 18 of the United States Code
may manufacture firearms within this state unless  that person,
firm, or corporation is  licensed pursuant to Chapter 2
(commencing with Section 29030).
   (b) Subdivision (a) does not apply to a person licensed to
manufacture firearms pursuant to Chapter 44 (commencing with Section
921) of Title 18 of the United States Code who manufactures fewer
than 100 firearms in a calendar year within this state.
   (c) If a person, firm, or corporation required to be licensed
pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29030) ceases
operations, then the records required pursuant to Section 29130 and
subdivision (b) of Section 29115 shall be forwarded to the federal
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and  Firearms  and
Explosives  within three days of the closure of business.
   (d) A violation of this section is a misdemeanor.
  SEC. 234.  Section 29065 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29065.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), the license of
any licensee who violates this chapter may be revoked.
   (b) The license of any licensee who knowingly or with gross
negligence violates this chapter or violates this chapter three times
shall be revoked, and that person, firm, or corporation shall become
permanently ineligible to obtain a license pursuant to this chapter.

   (c) Upon the revocation of the license, notification shall be
provided to local law enforcement authorities in the jurisdiction
where the licensee's business is located and to the federal Bureau of
Alcohol, Tobacco,  and  Firearms  and
Explosives  .
  SEC. 235.  Section 29115 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29115.  (a) Whenever a licensee discovers that a firearm has been
stolen or is missing from the licensee's premises, the licensee shall
report the loss or theft within 48 hours of the discovery to all of
the following:
   (1) The Department of Justice, in a manner prescribed by the
department.
   (2) The federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and 
Firearms  and Explosives  .
   (3) The police department in the city or city and county where the
building designated in the license is located.
   (4) If there is no police department in the city or city and
county where the building designated in the license is located, the
sheriff of the county where the building designated in the license is
located.
   (b) For at least 10 years, the licensee shall maintain records of
all firearms that are lost or stolen, as prescribed by the Department
of Justice.
  SEC. 236.  Section 29142 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29142.  (a) For purposes of this chapter, any licensed
manufacturer who produces fewer than 500 firearms in a calendar year
within this state may maintain a "secure facility" by complying with
all of the requirements described in Section 29141, or may design a
security plan that is approved by the Department of Justice or the
federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and  Firearms
 and Explosives  .
   (b) If a security plan is approved by the federal Bureau of
Alcohol, Tobacco,  and  Firearms  and Explosives
 , the approved plan, along with proof of approval, shall be
filed with the Department of Justice and the local police department.
If there is no police department, the filing shall be with the
county sheriff's office.
   (c) If a security plan is approved by the Department of Justice,
the approved plan, along with proof of approval, shall be filed with
the local police department. If there is no police department, the
filing shall be with the county sheriff's office.
  SEC. 237.  Section 29510 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29510.  (a) The Department of Justice shall recover the full costs
of administering the entertainment firearms permit program by
assessing the following application fees:
   (1) For the initial application: one hundred four dollars ($104).
Of this sum, fifty-six dollars ($56) shall be deposited into the
Fingerprint  Fee   Fees  Account, and
forty-eight dollars ($48) shall be deposited into the  Dealer
  Dealers'  Record of Sale  Special 
Account.
   (2) For each annual renewal application: twenty-nine dollars
($29), which shall be deposited into the  Dealer 
 Dealers'  Record of Sale  Special  Account.
   (b) The department shall annually review and shall adjust the fees
specified in subdivision (a), if necessary, to fully fund, but not
to exceed the actual costs of, the permit program provided for by
this chapter, including enforcement of the program.
  SEC. 238.  Section 29615 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29615.  Section 29610 shall not apply if one of the following
circumstances exists:
   (a) The minor is accompanied by a parent or legal guardian, and
the minor is actively engaged in, or is in direct transit to or from,
a lawful, recreational sport, including, but not limited to,
competitive shooting, or agricultural, ranching, or hunting activity,
or a motion picture, television, or video production, or
entertainment or theatrical event, the nature of which involves this
use of a firearm.
   (b) The minor is accompanied by a responsible adult, the minor has
the prior written consent of a parent or legal guardian, and the
minor is actively engaged in, or is in direct transit to or from, a
lawful, recreational sport, including, but not limited to,
competitive shooting, or agricultural, ranching, or hunting activity,
or a motion picture, television, or video production, or
entertainment or theatrical event, the nature of which involves the
use of a firearm.
   (c) The minor is at least 16 years of age, the minor has the prior
written consent of a parent or legal guardian  ,  and the
minor is actively engaged in, or is in direct transit to or from, a
lawful recreational sport, including, but not limited to, competitive
shooting, or agricultural, ranching, or hunting activity, or a
motion picture, television, or video production, or entertainment or
theatrical event, the nature of which involves the use of a firearm.
   (d) The minor has the prior written consent of a parent or legal
guardian, the minor is on lands owned or lawfully possessed by the
parent or legal guardian, and the minor is actively engaged in, or is
in direct transit to or from, a lawful, recreational sport,
including, but not limited to, competitive shooting, or agricultural,
ranching, or hunting activity, or a motion picture, television, or
video production, or entertainment or theatrical event, the nature of
which involves the use of a firearm.
  SEC. 239.  Section 29855 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   29855.  (a) Any person employed as a peace officer described in
Section 830.1, 830.2, 830.31, 830.32, 830.33, or 830.5 whose
employment or livelihood is dependent on the ability to legally
possess a firearm, who is subject to the prohibition imposed by
Section 29805 because of a conviction under Section 273.5, 273.6, or
646.9, may petition the court only once for relief from this
prohibition.
   (b) The petition shall be filed with the court in which the
petitioner was sentenced. If possible, the matter shall be heard
before the same judge who sentenced the petitioner.
   (c) Upon filing the petition, the clerk of the court shall set the
hearing date and shall notify the petitioner and the prosecuting
attorney of the date of the hearing.
   (d) Upon making each of the following findings, the court may
reduce or eliminate the prohibition, impose conditions on reduction
or elimination of the prohibition, or otherwise grant relief from the
prohibition as the court deems appropriate:
   (1) Finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the petitioner
is likely to use a firearm in a safe and lawful manner.
   (2) Finds that the petitioner is not within a prohibited class as
specified in Section 29815, 29820, 29825, or 29900, or subdivision
(a) or (b) of Section 29800, and the court is not presented with any
credible evidence that the petitioner is a person described in
Section 8100 or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.
   (3) Finds that the petitioner does not have a previous conviction
under Section 29805  ,  no matter when the prior conviction
occurred.
   (e) In making its decision, the court shall consider the
petitioner's continued employment, the interest of justice, any
relevant evidence, and the totality of the circumstances. The court
shall require, as a condition of granting relief from the prohibition
under Section 29805, that the petitioner agree to participate in
counseling as deemed appropriate by the court. Relief from the
prohibition shall not relieve any other person or entity from any
liability that might otherwise be imposed. It is the intent of the
Legislature that courts exercise broad discretion in fashioning
appropriate relief under this section in cases in which relief is
warranted. However, nothing in this section shall be construed to
require courts to grant relief to any particular petitioner. It is
the intent of the Legislature to permit persons who were convicted of
an offense specified in Section 273.5, 273.6, or 646.9 to seek
relief from the prohibition imposed by Section 29805.
  SEC. 240.  Section 30105 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   30105.  (a) An individual may request that the Department of
Justice perform a firearms eligibility check for that individual. The
applicant requesting the eligibility check shall provide the
information required by Section 28165 to the department, in an
application specified by the department.
   (b) The department shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20) for
performing the eligibility check authorized by this section, but not
to exceed the actual processing costs of the department. After the
department establishes fees sufficient to reimburse the department
for processing costs, fees charged may increase at a rate not to
exceed the legislatively approved cost-of-living adjustment for the
department's budget or as otherwise increased through the Budget Act.

   (c) An applicant for the eligibility check pursuant to subdivision
(a) shall complete the application, have it notarized by any
licensed California Notary Public, and submit it by mail to the
department.
   (d) Upon receipt of a notarized application and fee, the
department shall do all of the following:
   (1) Examine its records, and the records it is authorized to
request from the State Department of Mental Health pursuant to
Section 8104 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, to determine if
the purchaser is prohibited by state or federal law from possessing,
receiving, owning, or purchasing a firearm.
   (2) Notify the applicant by mail of its determination of whether
the applicant is prohibited by state or federal law from possessing,
receiving, owning, or purchasing a firearm. The department's
notification shall state either "eligible to possess firearms as of
the date the check was completed" or "ineligible to possess firearms
as of the date the check was completed."
   (e) If the department determines that the information submitted to
it in the application contains any blank spaces, or inaccurate,
illegible, or incomplete information, preventing identification of
the applicant, or if the required fee is not submitted, the
department shall not be required to perform the firearms eligibility
check.
   (f) The department shall make applications to conduct a firearms
eligibility check as described in this section available to licensed
firearms dealers and on the department's  Internet  Web
site.
   (g) The department shall be immune from any liability arising out
of the performance of the firearms eligibility check, or any reliance
upon the firearms eligibility check.
   (h) No person or agency may require or request another person to
obtain a firearms eligibility check or notification of a firearms
eligibility check pursuant to this section. A violation of this
subdivision is a misdemeanor.
   (i) The department shall include on the application specified in
subdivision (a) and the notification of eligibility specified in
subdivision (d) the following statements:
   "No person or agency may require or request another person to
obtain a firearms eligibility check or notification of firearms
eligibility check pursuant to Section 30105 of the Penal Code. A
violation of these provisions is a misdemeanor."
   "If the applicant for a firearms eligibility check purchases,
transfers, or receives a firearm through a licensed dealer as
required by law, a waiting period and background check are both
required."
  SEC. 241.  Section 31315 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   31315.  (a) Before  a   any  body armor
may be purchased for use by state peace officers, the Department of
Justice, after consultation with the Department of the California
Highway Patrol, shall establish minimum ballistic performance
standards, and shall determine that the armor satisfies those
standards.
   (b) Only body armor that meets state requirements under
subdivision (a) for acquisition or purchase shall be eligible for
testing for certification under the ballistic performance standards
established by the Department of Justice.
   (c) Only body armor that is certified as acceptable by the
department shall be purchased for use by state peace officers.
  SEC. 242.  Section 31910 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   31910.  As used in this part, "unsafe handgun" means any pistol,
revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the
person, for which any of the following is true:
   (a) For a revolver:
   (1) It does not have a safety device that, either automatically in
the case of a double-action firing mechanism, or by manual operation
in the case of a single-action firing mechanism, causes the hammer
to retract to a point where the firing pin does not rest upon the
primer of the cartridge.
   (2) It does not meet the firing requirement for handguns.
   (3) It does not meet the drop safety requirement for handguns.
   (b) For a pistol:
   (1) It does not have a positive manually operated safety device,
as determined by standards relating to imported guns promulgated by
the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco,  and 
Firearms  and Explosives  .
   (2) It does not meet the firing requirement for handguns.
   (3) It does not meet the drop safety requirement for handguns.
   (4) Commencing January 1, 2006, for a center fire semiautomatic
pistol that is not already listed on the roster pursuant to Section
32015, it does not have either a chamber load indicator, or a
magazine disconnect mechanism.
   (5) Commencing January 1, 2007, for all center fire semiautomatic
pistols that are not already listed on the roster pursuant to Section
32015, it does not have both a chamber load indicator and if it has
a detachable magazine, a magazine disconnect mechanism.
   (6) Commencing January 1, 2006, for all rimfire semiautomatic
pistols that are not already listed on the roster pursuant to Section
32015, it does not have a magazine disconnect mechanism, if it has a
detachable magazine.
   (7) (A) Commencing January 1, 2010, for all semiautomatic pistols
that are not already listed on the roster pursuant to Section 32015,
it is not designed and equipped with a microscopic array of
characters that identify the make, model, and serial number of the
pistol, etched or otherwise imprinted in two or more places on the
interior surface or internal working parts of the pistol, and that
are transferred by imprinting on each cartridge case when the firearm
is fired, provided that the Department of Justice certifies that the
technology used to create the imprint is available to more than one
manufacturer unencumbered by any patent restrictions.
   (B) The Attorney General may also approve a method of equal or
greater reliability and effectiveness in identifying the specific
serial number of a firearm from spent cartridge casings discharged by
that firearm than that which is set forth in this paragraph, to be
thereafter required as otherwise set forth by this paragraph where
the Attorney General certifies that this new method is also
unencumbered by any patent restrictions. Approval by the Attorney
General shall include notice of that fact via regulations adopted by
the Attorney General for purposes of implementing that method for
purposes of this paragraph.
   (C) The microscopic array of characters required by this section
shall not be considered the name of the maker, model, manufacturer's
number, or other mark of identification, including any distinguishing
number or mark assigned by the Department of Justice, within the
meaning of Sections 23900 and 23920.
  SEC. 243.  Section 32105 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
   32105.  (a) The Legislature finds a significant public purpose in
exempting pistols that are designed expressly for use in Olympic
target shooting events. Therefore, those pistols that are sanctioned
by the International Olympic Committee and by USA Shooting, the
national governing body for international shooting competition in the
United States, and that were used for Olympic target shooting
purposes as of January 1, 2001, and that fall within the definition
of "unsafe handgun" pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of
Section 31910 shall be exempt, as provided in subdivisions (b) and
(c).
   (b) Article 4 (commencing with Section 31900) and Article 5
(commencing with Section 32000) shall not apply to any of the
following pistols, because they are consistent with the significant
public purpose expressed in subdivision (a):
MANUFACTURER       MODEL             CALIBER
ANSCHUTZ           FP                .22LR
BENELLI            MP90              .22LR
BENELLI            MP90              .32 S&W LONG
BENELLI            MP95              .22LR
BENELLI            MP95              .32 S&W LONG
DRULOV             FP                .22LR
GREEN              ELECTROARM        .22LR
HAMMERLI           100               .22LR
HAMMERLI           101               .22LR
HAMMERLI           102               .22LR
HAMMERLI           162               .22LR
HAMMERLI           280               .22LR
HAMMERLI           280               .32 S&W LONG
HAMMERLI           FP10              .22LR
HAMMERLI           MP33              .22LR
HAMMERLI           SP20              .22LR
HAMMERLI           SP20              .32 S&W LONG
MORINI             CM102E            .22LR
MORINI             22M               .22LR
MORINI             32M               .32 S&W LONG
MORINI             CM80              .  .  22LR
     
PARDINI            GP                .22 SHORT
PARDINI            GPO               .22 SHORT
PARDINI            GP-SCHUMANN       .22 SHORT
PARDINI            HP                .32 S&W LONG
PARDINI            K22               .22LR
PARDINI            MP                .32 S&W LONG
PARDINI            PGP75             .22LR
PARDINI            SP                .22LR
PARDINI            SPE               .22LR
SAKO               FINMASTER         .22LR
STEYR              FP                .22LR
VOSTOK             IZH NO. 1         .22LR
VOSTOK             MU55              .22LR
VOSTOK             TOZ35             .22LR
WALTHER            FP                .22LR
WALTHER            GSP               .22LR
WALTHER            GSP               .32 S&W LONG
WALTHER            OSP               .22 SHORT
WALTHER            OSP-2000          .22 SHORT


   (c) The department shall create a program that is consistent with
the purpose stated in subdivision (a) to exempt new models of
competitive firearms from Article 4 (commencing with Section 31900)
and Article 5 (commencing with Section 32000). The exempt competitive
firearms may be based on recommendations by USA Shooting consistent
with the regulations contained in the USA Shooting Official Rules or
may be based on the recommendation or rules of any other organization
that the department deems relevant.
  SEC. 244.  Section 16062 of the Probate Code is amended to read:
   16062.  (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section and in
Section 16064, the trustee shall account at least annually, at the
termination of the trust, and upon a change of trustee, to each
beneficiary to whom income or principal is required or authorized in
the trustee's discretion to be currently distributed.
   (b) A trustee of a living trust created by an instrument executed
before July 1, 1987, is not subject to the duty to account provided
by subdivision (a).
   (c) A trustee of a trust created by a will executed before July 1,
1987, is not subject to the duty to account provided by subdivision
(a), except that if the trust is removed from continuing court
jurisdiction pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 17350) of
Chapter 4 of Part 5, the duty to account provided by subdivision (a)
applies to the trustee.
   (d) Except as provided in Section 16064, the duty of a trustee to
account pursuant to former Section 1120.1a of the Probate Code (as
repealed by Chapter 820 of the Statutes of 1986), under a trust
created by a will executed before July 1, 1977, which has been
removed from continuing court jurisdiction pursuant to former Section
1120.1a, continues to apply after July 1, 1987. The duty to account
under former Section 1120.1a may be satisfied by furnishing an
account that satisfies the requirements of Section 16063.
   (e) Any limitation or waiver in a trust instrument of the
obligation to account is against public policy and shall be void as
to any sole trustee who is  a   either of the
following: 
    (1)     A  disqualified person as
defined in Section 21350.5  or who is described 
 . 
    (2)     Described  in subdivision (a)
of Section 21380  and is   ,   but
 not described in Section 21382.
  SEC. 245.  Section 21355 of the Probate Code is amended to read:
   21355.  (a) This part shall apply to instruments that become
irrevocable on or after September 1, 1993, and before January
                                        1, 2011. For the purposes of
this section, an instrument that is otherwise revocable or amendable
shall be deemed to be irrevocable if  ,  on or after
September 1, 1993, the transferor  ,  by reason of
incapacity  ,  was unable to change the disposition of his
or her property and did not regain capacity before the date of his or
her death.
   (b) This part shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2014,
and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
is enacted before January 1, 2014, deletes or extends that date.
  SEC. 246.  Section 2203 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   2203.  (a) (1) A person that, at the time of bid or proposal for a
new contract or renewal of an existing contract, is identified on a
list created pursuant to subdivision (b) as a person engaging in
investment activities in Iran as described in subdivision (a) of
Section 2202.5, is ineligible to, and shall not, bid on, submit a
proposal for, or enter into or renew, a contract with a public entity
for goods or services of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more.
   (2) A person that, at the time of bid or proposal for a new
contract or renewal of an existing contract, engages in investment
activities in Iran as described in subdivision (b) of Section 2202.5,
is ineligible to, and shall not, bid on, submit a proposal for, or
enter into or renew, a contract with a public entity for goods or
services of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more.
   (b) (1) By June 1, 2011, the Department of General Services shall,
using credible information available to the public, develop, or
contract to develop, a list of persons it determines engage in
investment activities in Iran as described in subdivision (a) of
Section 2202.5.
   (2) The Department of General Services shall update the list every
180 days.
   (3) Before finalizing an initial list pursuant to paragraph (1) or
 on   an  updated list pursuant to
paragraph (2), the Department of General Services shall do all of the
following before a person is included on the list:
   (A) Provide 90 days' written notice of its intent to include the
person on the list. The notice shall inform the person that inclusion
on the list would make the person ineligible to bid on, submit a
proposal for, or enter into or renew, a contract for goods or
services of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more with a public
entity. The notice shall specify that the person, if it ceases its
engagement in investment activities in Iran as described in
subdivision (a) of Section 2202.5, may become eligible for a future
contract, or contract renewal, for goods or services of one million
dollars ($1,000,000) or more with a public entity upon removal from
the list.
   (B) The Department of General Services shall provide a person with
an opportunity to comment in writing to the Department of General
Services that it is not engaged in investment activities in Iran. If
the person demonstrates to the Department of General Services that
the person is not engaged in investment activities in Iran as
described in subdivision (a) of Section 2202.5, the person shall not
be included on the list, and shall be eligible to enter into or renew
a contract for goods or services of one million dollars ($1,000,000)
or more with a public entity, unless the person is otherwise
ineligible to bid on a contract as described in paragraph (3) of
subdivision (a) of Section 2205.
   (4) The Department of General Services shall make every effort to
avoid erroneously including a person on the list.
   (5) The Department of General Services may assess a fee upon
persons that use this list to comply with the provisions of this act,
in order to pay for the necessary, actual costs of creating and
maintaining this list. The Department of General Services shall
provide the list free of charge to any public entity and to the
Legislature, upon request.
   (6) A person that has a contract with CalPERS or CalSTRS, or both,
shall not be deemed a person that engages in investment activities
in Iran on the basis of those investments with CalPERS or CalSTRS.
   (c) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a public entity may permit a
person engaged in investment activities in Iran, on a case-by-case
basis, to be eligible for, or to bid on, submit a proposal for, or
enter into or renew, a contract for goods or services of one million
dollars ($1,000,000) or more with a public entity if either of the
following are true:
   (1) All of the following occur:
   (A) The investment activities in Iran were made before July 1,
2010.
   (B) The investment activities in Iran have not been expanded or
renewed after July 1, 2010.
   (C) The awarding body determines that it is in the best interest
of the state or local public entity to contract with the person. For
purposes of state contracts for goods or services of one million
dollars ($1,000,000) or more, "awarding body" means the Department of
General Services. For purposes of local contracts for goods or
services of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or more, "awarding body"
means the representative of the local public entity awarding the
contract, as described in subdivision (a) of Section 2202.
   (D) The person has adopted, publicized, and is implementing a
formal plan to cease the investment activities in Iran and to refrain
from engaging in any new investments in Iran.
   (2) One of the following occurs:
   (A) For a contract for goods or services of one million dollars
($1,000,000) or more with a local public entity, the local public
entity makes a public finding that, absent such an exemption, the
local public entity would be unable to obtain the goods or services
for which the contract is offered.
   (B) For a contract for goods or services of one million dollars
($1,000,000) or more with a state agency, other than the office of a
state constitutional officer, the Governor makes a public finding
that absent such an exemption, the state agency would be unable to
obtain the goods or services for which the contract is offered.
   (C) For a contract for goods or services of one million dollars
($1,000,000) or more with an office of a state constitutional
officer, if the state constitutional officer makes a public finding
that, absent such an exemption, his or her office would be unable to
obtain the goods or services for which the contract is offered.
   (d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a public entity shall permit
a financial institution described in subdivision (b) of Section
2202.5 to be eligible for, or to bid on, submit a proposal for, or
enter into or renew, a contract for goods or services of one million
dollars ($1,000,000) or more with a public entity if the person using
the credit to provide goods or services in the energy sector of Iran
is a person permitted to submit a bid or proposal to the public
entity pursuant to subdivision (c).
   (e) The prohibition described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a)
applies on and after June 1, 2011. The prohibition described in
paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) applies on and after July 1, 2011.
  SEC. 247.  Section 6802 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   6802.  (a) Subject to the limitations of this chapter, a local
transportation entity, if authorized by the commission, may utilize
the design-build method of procurement for up to five projects that
may be for local street or road, bridge, tunnel, or public transit
projects within the jurisdiction of the entity.
   (b) Subject to the limitations of this chapter, the department, if
authorized by the commission, may utilize the design-build method of
procurement for up to 10 state highway, bridge, or tunnel projects.
   (c) (1) In addition to the projects authorized pursuant to
subdivisions (a) and (b), and subject to the limitations of this
chapter, the Riverside County Transportation Commission, if
authorized by the commission, may utilize design-build procurement
for the State Route 91 Corridor Improvements Project on the state
highway system.
   (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the
department shall be the agency responsible for the performance of
construction inspection services for the project authorized pursuant
to this subdivision. Construction inspection services for the project
authorized pursuant to this subdivision include, but are not limited
to, surveying, testing the materials, verification testing,
monitoring of environmental compliance, quality control inspection,
and quality assurance audits. The construction inspection duties and
responsibilities shall include a direct reporting relationship
between the inspectors and senior department engineers responsible
for all inspectors and construction inspection services. The senior
department engineer responsible for construction inspection services
shall be responsible for the acceptance or rejection of the work.
   (3) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for the project
authorized pursuant to this subdivision  ,  the department
shall retain the authority to stop the contractor's operation wholly
or in part and take appropriate action when public safety is
jeopardized. The department shall ensure that public safety and
convenience  is   are  maintained whenever
work is performed under an encroachment permit within the state
highway right-of-way, including, but not limited to, work performed
that includes lane closures, signing, work performed at night,
detours, dust control, temporary pavement quality, crash cushions,
temporary railings, pavement transitions, falsework, shoring, and
delineation. The department shall regularly inspect the job sites for
safety compliance and any possible deficiencies. If any deficiency
is observed, a written notice shall be sent to the resident engineer
to correct the deficiency. Once the deficiency is corrected, a
written notice describing the resolution of the deficiency shall be
sent to the department and documented.
   (4) The department may use department employees or consultants to
perform the services described in this subdivision, consistent with
Article XXII of the California Constitution. Department resources
necessary for the performance of those services, including personnel
requirements, shall be included in the department's capital outlay
support program for workload purposes in the annual Budget Act.
   (5) Not later than the first day of July that occurs two years
after a design-build contract is awarded, and each July 1 thereafter
until the project is completed, the Riverside County Transportation
Commission shall submit a report on the progress of the project and
compliance with this section to the legislative policy committees
having jurisdiction over transportation matters.
  SEC. 248.  Section 6804 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   6804.  (a) For contracts awarded prior to the effective date of
either the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial
Relations pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor
Code or the fees established by the department pursuant to
subdivision (b), a transportation entity authorized to use the
design-build method of procurement shall implement a labor compliance
program, as described in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code, or it
shall contract with a third party to implement, on the transportation
entity's behalf, a labor compliance program subject to that statute.
This requirement does not apply to a project where the
transportation entity or design-build entity has entered into any
collective bargaining agreement or agreements that bind all of the
contractors performing work on the projects.
   (b) For contracts awarded on or after the effective date of both
the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial Relations
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code and
the fees established by the department pursuant to this subdivision,
the transportation entity shall pay a fee to the department, in an
amount that the department shall establish, and as it may from time
to time amend, sufficient to support the department's costs in
ensuring compliance with and enforcing prevailing wage requirements
on the project, and labor compliance enforcement as set forth in
subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code. All fees
collected pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited in the
State Public Works Enforcement Fund, created by  Section 
1771.3 of the Labor Code, and shall be used only for enforcement of
prevailing wage requirements on those projects.
   (c) The Department of Industrial Relations may waive the fee set
forth in subdivision (b) for a transportation entity that has
previously been granted approval by the director to initiate and
operate a labor compliance program on its projects, and that requests
to continue to operate the labor compliance program on its projects
in lieu of labor compliance by the department pursuant to subdivision
(b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code. This fee shall not be
waived for a transportation entity that contracts with a third party
to initiate and enforce labor compliance programs on the
transportation entity's projects.
  SEC. 249.  Section 6808 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   6808.  (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter,
for a project authorized under subdivision (b) of Section 6802, the
department is the responsible agency for the performance of project
development services, including performance specifications,
preliminary engineering, prebid services, the preparation of project
reports and environmental documents, and construction inspection
services. The department is also the responsible agency for the
preparation of documents that may include, but need not be limited
to, the size, type, and desired design character of the project,
performance specifications covering quality of materials, equipment,
and workmanship, preliminary plans, and any other information deemed
necessary to  described   describe 
adequately the needs of the transportation entity.
   (b) The department may use department employees or consultants to
perform the services described in subdivision (a), consistent with
Article XXII of the California Constitution. Department resources,
including personnel requirements, necessary for the performance of
those services shall be included in the department's capital outlay
support program for workload purposes in the annual Budget Act.
  SEC. 250.  Section 10295.2 of the Public Contract Code is amended
to read:
   10295.2.  (a) No vehicle acquisition request, vehicle purchase
order, or new contract shall be approved by the Department of General
Services for the purchase of new vehicles that would result in the
expenditure of funds unless a certification is received in writing
and signed by the secretary or director of an agency or a department,
respectively, or his or her  designees  
designee  , that has requested the acquisition of the new
vehicles, verifying that the purchase is vital and mission critical
for the agency or department.
   (b) The certification shall include the date, title, and the
signature of the person authorizing the purchase.
  SEC. 251.  Section 20133 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   20133.  (a)  A county, with approval of the board of supervisors,
may utilize an alternative procedure for bidding on construction
projects in the county in excess of two million five hundred thousand
dollars ($2,500,000) and may award the project using either the
lowest responsible bidder or by best value.
   (b) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature to enable counties to
utilize design-build for buildings and county sanitation wastewater
treatment facilities. It is not the intent of the Legislature to
authorize this procedure for other infrastructure, including, but not
limited to, streets and highways, public rail transit, or water
resources facilities and infrastructures.
   (2) The Legislature also finds and declares that utilizing a
design-build contract requires a clear understanding of the roles and
responsibilities of each participant in the design-build process.
   (3) (A) For contracts awarded prior to either the effective date
of regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial Relations
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code or
the fees established by the department pursuant to subparagraph (B),
if the board of supervisors elects to proceed under this section, the
board of supervisors shall establish and enforce for design-build
projects a labor compliance program containing the requirements
outlined in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code, or it shall contract
with a third party to operate a labor compliance program containing
the requirements outlined in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code. This
requirement shall not apply to any project where the county or the
design-build entity has entered into any collective bargaining
agreement or agreements that bind all of the contractors performing
work on the projects.
   (B) For contracts awarded on or after both the effective date of
regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial Relations
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code and
the fees established by the department pursuant to this subparagraph,
the board of supervisors shall pay a fee to the department, in an
amount that the department shall establish, and as it may from time
to time amend, sufficient to support the department's costs in
ensuring compliance with and enforcing prevailing wage requirements
on the project, and labor compliance enforcement as set forth in
subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55. All fees collected pursuant to
this paragraph shall be deposited in the State Public Works
Enforcement Fund created by Section 1771.3 of the Labor Code, and
shall be used only for enforcement of prevailing wages requirements
on those projects.
   (C) The Department of Industrial Relations may waive the fee set
forth in subparagraph (B) if the board of supervisors has previously
been granted approval by the director to initiate and operate a labor
compliance program on its projects and requests to continue to
operate that labor compliance program on its projects in lieu of
labor compliance by the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of
Section 1771.55. The fee shall not be waived for the board of
supervisors if it contracts with a third party to initiate and
enforce labor compliance programs on its projects.
   (c) As used in this section:
   (1) "Best value" means a value determined by objective criteria
related to price, features, functions, and life-cycle costs.
   (2) "Design-build" means a procurement process in which both the
design and construction of a project are procured from a single
entity.
   (3) "Design-build entity" means a partnership, corporation, or
other legal entity that is able to provide appropriately licensed
contracting, architectural, and engineering services as needed
pursuant to a design-build contract.
   (4) "Project" means the construction of a building and
improvements directly related to the construction of a building, and
county sanitation wastewater treatment facilities, but does not
include the construction of other infrastructure, including, but not
limited to, streets and highways, public rail transit, or water
resources facilities and infrastructure.
   (d) Design-build projects shall progress in a four-step process,
as follows:
   (1) (A) The county shall prepare a set of documents setting forth
the scope of the project. The documents may include, but are not
limited to, the size, type, and desired design character of the
public improvement, performance specifications covering the quality
of materials, equipment, and workmanship, preliminary plans or
building layouts, or any other information deemed necessary to
describe adequately the county's needs. The performance
specifications and any plans shall be prepared by a design
professional who is duly licensed and registered in California.
   (B) Any architect or engineer retained by the county to assist in
the development of the project specific documents shall not be
eligible to participate in the preparation of a bid with any
design-build entity for that project.
   (2) (A) Based on the documents prepared in paragraph (1), the
county shall prepare a request for proposals that invites interested
parties to submit competitive sealed proposals in the manner
prescribed by the county. The request for proposals shall include,
but is not limited to, the following elements:
   (i) Identification of the basic scope and needs of the project or
contract, the expected cost range, and other information deemed
necessary by the county to inform interested parties of the
contracting opportunity, to include the methodology that will be used
by the county to evaluate proposals and specifically if the contract
will be awarded to the lowest responsible bidder.
   (ii) Significant objective factors that the county reasonably
expects to consider in evaluating proposals, including cost or price
and all  nonprice related   non-price-related
 factors.
   (iii) The relative importance of weight assigned to each of the
factors identified in the request for proposals.
   (B) With respect to clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), if a
nonweighted system is used, the agency shall specifically disclose
whether all evaluation factors other than cost or price when combined
are:
   (i) Significantly more important than cost or price.
   (ii) Approximately equal in importance to cost or price.
   (iii) Significantly less important than cost or price.
   (C) If the county chooses to reserve the right to hold discussions
or negotiations with responsive bidders, it shall so specify in the
request for proposal and shall publish separately or incorporate into
the request for proposal applicable rules and procedures to be
observed by the county to ensure that any discussions or negotiations
are conducted in good faith.
   (3) (A)  The county shall establish a procedure to prequalify
design-build entities using a standard questionnaire developed by the
county. In preparing the questionnaire, the county shall consult
with the construction industry, including representatives of the
building trades and surety industry. This questionnaire shall require
information including, but not limited to, all of the following:
   (i) If the design-build entity is a partnership, limited
partnership, or other association, a listing of all of the partners,
general partners, or association members known at the time of bid
submission who will participate in the design-build contract,
including, but not limited to, mechanical subcontractors.
   (ii) Evidence that the members of the design-build entity have
completed, or demonstrated the experience, competency, capability,
and capacity to complete, projects of similar size, scope, or
complexity, and that proposed key personnel have sufficient
experience and training to competently manage and complete the design
and construction of the project, as well as a financial statement
that assures the county that the design-build entity has the capacity
to complete the project.
   (iii) The licenses, registration, and credentials required to
design and construct the project, including information on the
revocation or suspension of any license, credential, or registration.

   (iv) Evidence that establishes that the design-build entity has
the capacity to obtain all required payment and performance bonding,
liability insurance, and errors and omissions insurance.
   (v) Any prior serious or willful violation of the California
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1973, contained in Part 1
(commencing with Section 6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code, or
the federal Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970  (P.L.
91-596)   (29 U.S.C. Sec. 651 et seq.)  , settled
against any member of the design-build entity, and information
concerning workers' compensation experience history and worker safety
program.
   (vi) Information concerning any debarment, disqualification, or
removal from a federal, state, or local government public works
project. Any instance in which an entity, its owners, officers, or
managing employees submitted a bid on a public works project and were
found to be nonresponsive, or were found by an awarding body not to
be a responsible bidder.
   (vii) Any instance in which the entity, or its owners, officers,
or managing employees, defaulted on a construction contract.
   (viii) Any violations of the Contractors' State License Law
(Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the
Business and Professions Code), excluding alleged violations of
federal or state law including the payment of wages, benefits,
apprenticeship requirements, or personal income tax withholding, or
of Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA; 26 U.S.C. Sec. 3101 et
seq.) withholding requirements settled against any member of the
design-build entity.
   (ix) Information concerning the bankruptcy or receivership of any
member of the design-build entity, including information concerning
any work completed by a surety.
   (x) Information concerning all settled adverse claims, disputes,
or lawsuits between the owner of a public works project and any
member of the design-build entity during the five years preceding
submission of a bid pursuant to this section, in which the claim,
settlement, or judgment exceeds fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).
Information shall also be provided concerning any work completed by a
surety during this period.
   (xi) In the case of a partnership or an association that is not a
legal entity, a copy of the agreement creating the partnership or
association and specifying that all partners or association members
agree to be fully liable for the performance under the design-build
contract.
   (xii) (I) Any instance in which the entity, or any of its members,
owners, officers, or managing employees was, during the five years
preceding submission of a bid pursuant to this section, determined by
a court of competent jurisdiction to have submitted, or legally
admitted for purposes of a criminal plea to have submitted either of
the following:
   (ia) Any claim to any public agency or official in violation of
the federal False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. Sec. 3729 et seq.).
   (ib) Any claim to any public official in violation of the
California False Claims Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section
12650) of Chapter 6 of Part 2 of Division 3 of the Government Code).
   (II) Information provided pursuant to this subdivision shall
include the name and number of any case filed, the court in which it
was filed, and the date on which it was filed. The entity may also
provide further information regarding any such instance, including
any mitigating or
extenuating circumstances that the entity wishes the county to
consider.
   (B) The information required pursuant to this subdivision shall be
verified under oath by the entity and its members in the manner in
which civil pleadings in civil actions are verified. Information that
is not a public record pursuant to the California Public Records Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1
of the Government Code) shall not be open to public inspection.
   (4) The county shall establish a procedure for final selection of
the design-build entity. Selection shall be based on either of the
following criteria:
   (A) A competitive bidding process resulting in lump-sum bids by
the prequalified design-build entities. Awards shall be made to the
lowest responsible bidder.
   (B) A county may use a design-build competition based upon best
value and other criteria set forth in paragraph (2). The design-build
competition shall include the following elements:
   (i) Competitive proposals shall be evaluated by using only the
criteria and selection procedures specifically identified in the
request for proposal. However, the following minimum factors shall
each represent at least 10 percent of the total weight of
consideration given to all criteria factors: price, technical design,
and construction expertise, life cycle costs over 15 years or more,
skilled labor force availability, and acceptable safety record.
   (ii) Once the evaluation is complete, the top three responsive
bidders shall be ranked sequentially from the most advantageous to
the least.
   (iii) The award of the contract shall be made to the responsible
bidder whose proposal is determined, in writing, to be the most
advantageous.
   (iv) Notwithstanding any provision of this code, upon issuance of
a contract award, the county shall publicly announce its award,
identifying the contractor to whom the award is made, along with a
written decision supporting its contract award and stating the basis
of the award. The notice of award shall also include the county's
 second   second-  and  third
ranked   third-ranked  design-build entities.
   (v) For purposes of this paragraph, "skilled labor force
availability" shall be determined by the existence of an agreement
with a registered apprenticeship program, approved by the California
Apprenticeship Council, which has graduated apprentices in each of
the preceding five years. This graduation requirement shall not apply
to programs providing apprenticeship training for any craft that has
been deemed by the Department of Labor and the Department of
Industrial Relations to be an apprenticeable craft in the five years
prior to enactment of this act.
   (vi) For purposes of this paragraph, a bidder's "safety record"
shall be deemed "acceptable" if its experience modification rate for
the most recent three-year period is an average of 1.00 or less, and
its average total recordable injury/illness rate and average lost
work rate for the most recent three-year period does not exceed the
applicable statistical standards for its business category or if the
bidder is a party to an alternative dispute resolution system as
provided for in Section 3201.5 of the Labor Code.
   (e) (1) Any design-build entity that is selected to design and
build a project pursuant to this section shall possess or obtain
sufficient bonding to cover the contract amount for nondesign
services, and errors and omission insurance coverage sufficient to
cover all design and architectural services provided in the contract.
This section does not prohibit a general or engineering contractor
from being designated the lead entity on a design-build entity for
the purposes of purchasing necessary bonding to cover the activities
of the design-build entity.
   (2) Any payment or performance bond written for the purposes of
this section shall be written using a bond form developed by the
county.
   (f) All subcontractors that were not listed by the design-build
entity in accordance with clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph
(3) of subdivision (d) shall be awarded by the design-build entity
in accordance with the design-build process set forth by the county
in the design-build package. All subcontractors bidding on contracts
pursuant to this section shall be afforded the protections contained
in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 4100) of Part 1. The
design-build entity shall do both of the following:
   (1) Provide public notice of the availability of work to be
subcontracted in accordance with the publication requirements
applicable to the competitive bidding process of the county.
   (2) Provide a fixed date and time on which the subcontracted work
will be awarded in accordance with the procedure established pursuant
to this section.
   (g) Lists of subcontractors, bidders, and bid awards relating to
the project shall be submitted by the design-build entity to the
awarding body within 14 days of the award. These documents are deemed
to be public records and shall be available for public inspection
pursuant to this chapter and Article 1 (commencing with Section 6250)
of Chapter 3.5 of Division 7 of the Government Code.
   (h) The minimum performance criteria and design standards
established pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) shall be
adhered to by the design-build entity. Any deviations from those
standards may only be allowed by written consent of the county.
   (i) The county may retain the services of a design professional or
construction project manager, or both, throughout the course of the
project in order to ensure compliance with this section.
   (j) Contracts awarded pursuant to this section shall be valid
until the project is completed.
   (k) Nothing in this section is intended to affect, expand, alter,
or limit any rights or remedies otherwise available at law.
   (l) (1) If the county elects to award a project pursuant to this
section, retention proceeds withheld by the county from the
design-build entity shall not exceed 5 percent if a performance and
payment bond, issued by an admitted surety insurer, is required in
the solicitation of bids.
   (2) In a contract between the design-build entity and the
subcontractor, and in a contract between a subcontractor and any
subcontractor thereunder, the percentage of the retention proceeds
withheld may not exceed the percentage specified in the contract
between the county and the design-build entity. If the design-build
entity provides written notice to any subcontractor who is not a
member of the design-build entity, prior to or at the time the bid is
requested, that a bond may be required and the subcontractor
subsequently is unable or refuses to furnish a bond to the
design-build entity, then the design-build entity may withhold
retention proceeds in excess of the percentage specified in the
contract between the county and the design-build entity from any
payment made by the design-build entity to the subcontractor.
   (m) Each county that elects to proceed under this section and uses
the design-build method on a public works project shall submit to
the Legislative Analyst's Office before September 1, 2013, a report
containing a description of each public works project procured
through the design-build process and completed after November 1,
2009, and before August 1, 2013. The report shall include, but shall
not be limited to, all of the following information:
   (1) The type of project.
   (2) The gross square footage of the project.
   (3) The design-build entity that was awarded the project.
   (4) The estimated and actual length of time to complete the
project.
   (5) The estimated and actual project costs.
   (6) Whether the project was met or altered.
   (7) The number and amount of project change orders.
   (8) A description of any written protests concerning any aspect of
the solicitation, bid, proposal, or award of the design-build
project, including the resolution of the protests.
   (9) An assessment of the prequalification process and criteria.
   (10) An assessment of the effect of retaining  5 percent
  5-percent  retention on the project.
   (11) A description of the Labor Force Compliance Program and an
assessment of the project impact, where required.
   (12) A description of the method used to award the contract. If
best value was the method, the report shall describe the factors used
to evaluate the bid, including the weighting of each factor and an
assessment of the effectiveness of the methodology.
   (13) An assessment of the project impact of "skilled labor force
availability."
   (14) An assessment of the design-build dollar limits on county
projects. This assessment shall include projects where the county
wanted to use design-build and was precluded by the dollar
limitation. This assessment shall also include projects where the
best value method was not used due to dollar limitations.
   (15) An assessment of the most appropriate uses for the
design-build approach.
   (n) Any county that elects not to use the authority granted by
this section may submit a report to the Legislative Analyst's Office
explaining why the county elected not to use the design-build method.

   (o) On or before January 1, 2014, the Legislative Analyst shall
report to the Legislature on the use of the design-build method by
counties pursuant to this section, including the information listed
in  subdivision   subdivisions  (m) and
(p). The report may include recommendations for modifying or
extending this section.
   (p) The Legislative Analyst shall complete a fact-based analysis
of the use of the design-build method by counties pursuant to this
section, utilizing the information provided pursuant to subdivision
(m) and any independent information provided by the public or
interested parties. The Legislative Analyst shall select a
representative sample of projects under this section and review
available public records and reports, media reports, and related
information in its analysis. The Legislative Analyst shall compile
the information required to be analyzed pursuant to this subdivision
into a report, which shall be provided to the Legislature. The report
shall include conclusions describing the actual cost of projects
procured pursuant to this section, whether the project schedule was
met or altered, and whether projects needed or used project change
orders.
   (q) Except as provided in this section, this act shall not be
construed to affect the application of any other law.
   (r) This section shall remain in effect only until July 1, 2014,
and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
is enacted before July 1, 2014, deletes or extends that date.
  SEC. 252.  Section 20193 of the Public Contract Code is amended to
read:
   20193.  (a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law and subject to the
limitations of this article, a qualified entity, with approval of its
governing body, may utilize an alternative procedure on bidding on
projects in excess of two million five hundred thousand dollars
($2,500,000).
   (2) Only 20 design-build projects shall be authorized under this
article.
   (3) A qualified entity may award a project using either the lowest
responsible bidder or by best value.
   (4) For purposes of this article, "qualified entity" means an
entity that meets both of the following:
   (A) The entity is any of the following:
   (i) A city.
   (ii) A county.
   (iii) A city and county.
   (iv) A special district.
   (B) The entity operates wastewater facilities, solid waste
management facilities, or water recycling facilities.
   (b) (1) For contracts awarded prior to the effective date of
either the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial
Relations pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor
Code or the fees established by the department pursuant to paragraph
(2), if a qualified entity elects to proceed under this section, the
qualified entity shall establish and enforce for design-build
projects a labor compliance program containing the requirements
outlined in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code, or it shall contract
with a third party to operate a labor compliance program containing
the requirements outlined in Section 1771.5 of the Labor Code. This
requirement shall not apply to any project where the qualified entity
or the design-build entity has entered into any collective
bargaining agreement or agreements that bind all of the contractors
performing work on the projects.
   (2) For contracts awarded on or after the effective date of both
the regulations adopted by the Department of Industrial Relations
pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1771.55 of the Labor Code and
the fees established by the department pursuant to this paragraph,
the qualified entity shall pay a fee to the department, in an amount
that the department shall establish, and as it may from time to time
amend, sufficient to support the department's costs in ensuring
compliance with and enforcing prevailing wage requirements on the
project, and labor compliance enforcement as set forth in subdivision
(b) of Section 1771.55  of the Labor Code  . All fees
collected pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited in the
State Public Works Enforcement Fund created by Section 1771.3 of the
Labor Code, and shall be used only for enforcement of prevailing wage
requirements on those projects.
   (3) The Department of Industrial Relations may waive the fee set
forth in paragraph (2) if the qualified entity has previously been
granted approval by the director to initiate and operate a labor
compliance program on its projects and requests to continue to
operate that labor compliance program on its projects in lieu of
labor compliance by the department pursuant to subdivision (b) of
Section 1771.55. The fee shall not be waived for the qualified entity
if it contracts with a third party to initiate and enforce labor
compliance programs on its projects.
   (c) As used in this section:
   (1) "Best value" means a value determined by objective criteria
related to price, features, functions, small business contracting
plans, past performance, and life-cycle costs.
   (2) "Design-build" means a procurement process in which both the
design and construction of a project are procured from a single
entity.
   (3) "Design-build entity" means a partnership, corporation, or
other legal entity that is able to provide appropriately licensed
contracting, architectural, and engineering services as needed
pursuant to a design-build contract.
   (4) "Project" means the construction of regional and local
wastewater treatment facilities, regional and local solid waste
facilities, or regional and local water recycling facilities.
   (d) Design-build projects shall progress in a four-step process,
as follows:
   (1) (A) The qualified entity shall prepare a set of documents
setting forth the scope of the project. The documents may include,
but are not limited to, the size, type, and desired design character
of the project and site, performance specifications covering the
quality of materials, equipment, and workmanship, preliminary plans
or project layouts, or any other information deemed necessary to
describe adequately the qualified entity's needs. The performance
specifications and any plans shall be prepared by a design
professional who is duly licensed and registered in California.
   (B) Any architect or engineer retained by the qualified entity to
assist in the development of the project specific documents shall not
be eligible to participate in the preparation of a bid with any
design-build entity for that project.
   (2) (A) Based on the documents prepared in paragraph (1), the
qualified entity shall prepare a request for proposals that invites
interested parties to submit competitive sealed proposals in the
manner prescribed by the qualified entity. The request for proposals
shall include, but is not limited to, the following elements:
   (i) Identification of the basic scope and needs of the project or
contract, the expected cost range, and other information deemed
necessary by the qualified entity to inform interested parties of the
contracting opportunity, to include the methodology that will be
used by the qualified entity to evaluate proposals and specifically
if the contract will be awarded to the lowest responsible bidder.
   (ii) Significant factors that the qualified entity reasonably
expects to consider in evaluating proposals, including cost or price
and all  nonprice related   non-price-related
 factors.
   (iii) The relative importance of weight assigned to each of the
factors identified in the request for proposals.
   (B) With respect to clause (iii) of subparagraph (A), if a
nonweighted system is used, the qualified entity shall specifically
disclose whether all evaluation factors other than cost or price when
combined are:
   (i) Significantly more important than cost or price.
   (ii) Approximately equal in importance to cost or price.
   (iii) Significantly less important than cost or price.
   (C) If the qualified entity chooses to reserve the right to hold
discussions or negotiations with responsive bidders, it shall so
specify in the request for proposal and shall publish separately or
incorporate into the request for proposal applicable rules and
procedures to be observed by the qualified entity to ensure that any
discussions or negotiations are conducted in good faith.
   (3) (A) The qualified entity shall establish a procedure to
prequalify design-build entities using a standard questionnaire
developed by the qualified entity. In preparing the questionnaire,
the qualified entity shall consult with the construction industry,
including representatives of the building trades and surety industry.
This questionnaire shall require information including, but not
limited to, all of the following:
   (i) If the design-build entity is a partnership, limited
partnership, or other association, a listing of all of the partners,
general partners, or association members known at the time of bid
submission who will participate in the design-build contract,
including, but not limited to, mechanical subcontractors.
   (ii) Evidence that the members of the design-build entity have
completed, or demonstrated the experience, competency, capability,
and capacity to complete projects of similar size, scope, or
complexity, and that proposed key personnel have sufficient
experience and training to competently manage and complete the design
and construction of the project, as well as a financial statement
that assures the special district that the design-build entity has
the capacity to complete the project.
   (iii) The licenses, registration, and credentials required to
design and construct the project, including information on the
revocation or suspension of any license, credential, or registration.

   (iv) Evidence that establishes that the design-build entity has
the capacity to obtain all required payment and performance bonding,
liability insurance, and errors and omissions insurance.
   (v) Any prior serious or willful violation of the California
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1973, contained in Part 1
(commencing with Section 6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code or the
federal Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970  (Public
Law 91-596)   (29 U.S.C. Sec. 651 et seq.)  ,
settled against any member of the design-build entity, and
information concerning workers' compensation experience history and
worker safety program.
   (vi) Information concerning any debarment, disqualification, or
removal from a federal, state, or local government public works
project. Any instance where an entity, its owners, officers, or
managing employees submitted a bid on a public works project and were
found to be nonresponsive, or were found by an awarding body not to
be a responsible bidder.
   (vii) Any instance where the entity, its owner, officers, or
managing employees defaulted on a construction contract.
   (viii) Any violations of the Contractors' State License Law
(Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the
Business and Professions Code), excluding alleged violations of
federal or state law including the payment of wages, benefits,
apprenticeship requirements, or personal income tax withholding, or
of Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) withholding requirements
settled against any member of the design-build entity.
   (ix) Information concerning the bankruptcy or receivership of any
member of the design-build entity, including information concerning
any work completed by a surety.
   (x) Information concerning all settled adverse claims, disputes,
or lawsuits between the owner of a public works project and any
member of the design-build entity during the five years preceding
submission of a bid pursuant to this section, in which the claim,
settlement, or judgment exceeds fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).
Information shall also be provided concerning any work completed by a
surety during this period.
   (xi) In the case of a partnership or other association, that is
not a legal entity, a copy of the agreement creating the partnership
or association and specifying that all partners or association
members agree to be fully liable for the performance under the
design-build contract.
   (B) The information required pursuant to this subdivision shall be
verified under oath by the entity and its members in the manner in
which civil pleadings in civil actions are verified. Information that
is not a public record pursuant to the California Public Records Act
(Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1
of the Government Code) shall not be open to public inspection.
   (4) The qualified entity shall establish a procedure for final
selection of the design-build entity. Selection shall be based on
either of the following criteria:
   (A) A competitive bidding process resulting in lump-sum bids by
the prequalified design-build entities. Awards shall be made to the
lowest responsible bidder.
   (B) A qualified entity may use a design-build competition based
upon best value and other criteria set forth in paragraph (2) of
subdivision (d). The design-build competition shall include the
following elements:
   (i) Competitive proposals shall be evaluated by using only the
criteria and selection procedures specifically identified in the
request for proposal. However, the following minimum factors shall
each represent at least 10 percent of the total weight of
consideration given to all criteria factors; price, technical design
and construction expertise, life-cycle costs over 15 years or more,
skilled labor force availability, and acceptable safety record.
   (ii) Once the evaluation is complete, the top three responsive
bidders shall be ranked sequentially from the most advantageous to
the least.
   (iii) The award of the contract shall be made to the responsible
bidder whose proposal is determined, in writing, to be the most
advantageous.
   (iv) Notwithstanding any provision of this code, upon issuance of
a contract award, the qualified entity shall publicly announce its
award, identifying the contractor to which the award is made, along
with a written decision supporting its contract award and stating the
basis of the award. The notice of award shall also include the
qualified entity's  second   second-  and
 third ranked   third-ranked  design-build
entities.
   (v) For purposes of this paragraph, "skilled labor force
availability" shall be determined by the existence of an agreement
with a registered apprenticeship program, approved by the California
Apprenticeship Council, which has graduated apprentices in each of
the preceding five years. This graduation requirement shall not apply
to programs providing apprenticeship training for any craft that has
been deemed by the Department of Labor and the Department of
Industrial Relations to be an apprenticeable craft in the five years
prior to enactment of this act.
   (vi) For purposes of this paragraph, a bidder's "safety record"
shall be deemed "acceptable" if their experience modification rate
for the most recent three-year period is an average of 1.00 or less,
and their average total recordable injury/illness rate and average
lost work rate for the most recent three-year period does not exceed
the applicable statistical standards for its business category, or if
the bidder is a party to an alternative dispute resolution system as
provided for in Section 3201.5 of the Labor Code.
   (e) (1) Any design-build entity that is selected to design and
build a project pursuant to this section shall possess or obtain
sufficient bonding to cover the contract amount for nondesign
services, and errors and omissions insurance coverage sufficient to
cover all design and architectural services provided in the contract.
This section does not prohibit a general or engineering contractor
from being designated the lead entity on a design-build entity for
the purposes of purchasing necessary bonding to cover the activities
of the design-build entity.
   (2) Any payment or performance bond written for the purposes of
this section shall be written using a bond form developed by the
qualified entity.
   (f) All subcontractors that were not listed by the design-build
entity in accordance with clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of paragraph
(3) of subdivision (d) shall be awarded by the design-build entity
in accordance with the design-build process set forth by the
qualified entity in the design-build package. All subcontractors
bidding on contracts pursuant to this section shall be afforded the
protections contained in Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 4100) of
Part 1. The design-build entity shall do both of the following:
   (1) Provide public notice of the availability of work to be
subcontracted in accordance with the publication requirements
applicable to the competitive bidding process of the qualified
entity.
   (2) Provide a fixed date and time on which the subcontracted work
will be awarded in accordance with the procedure established pursuant
to this section.
   (g) The minimum performance criteria and design standards
established pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) shall be
adhered to by the design-build entity. Any deviations from those
standards may only be allowed by written consent of the qualified
entity.
   (h) The qualified entity may retain the services of a design
professional or construction project manager, or both, throughout the
course of the project in order to ensure compliance with this
section.
   (i) Contracts awarded pursuant to this section shall be valid
until the project is completed.

       (j) Nothing in this section is intended to affect, expand,
alter, or limit any rights or remedies otherwise available at law.
   (k) (1) If the qualified entity elects to award a project pursuant
to this section, retention proceeds withheld by the qualified entity
from the design-build entity shall not exceed 5 percent if a
performance and payment bond, issued by an admitted surety insurer,
is required in the solicitation of bids.
   (2) In a contract between the design-build entity and the
subcontractor, and in a contract between a subcontractor and any
subcontractor thereunder, the percentage of the retention proceeds
withheld may not exceed the percentage specified in the contract
between the qualified entity and the design-build entity. If the
design-build entity provides written notice to any subcontractor who
is not a member of the design-build entity, prior to or at the time
the bid is requested, that a bond may be required and the
subcontractor subsequently is unable or refuses to furnish a bond to
the design-build entity, then the design-build entity may withhold
retention proceeds in excess of the percentage specified in the
contract between the qualified entity and the design-build entity
from any payment made by the design-build entity to the
subcontractor.
   (l) Each qualified entity that elects to proceed under this
section and uses the design-build method on a public works project
shall do both of the following:
   (1) Notify the Legislative Analyst's Office upon initiation of the
project and upon completion of the project.
   (2) Submit to the Legislative Analyst's Office, upon completion of
the project, a report containing a description of the public works
project procured through the design-build process pursuant to this
section and completed after January 1, 2009. The report shall
include, but shall not be limited to, all of the following
information:
   (A) The type of project.
   (B) The gross square footage of the project.
   (C) The design-build entity that was awarded the project.
   (D) The estimated and actual project costs.
   (E) A description of any written protests concerning any aspect of
the solicitation, bid, proposal, or award of the design-build
project, including the resolution of the protests.
   (F) An assessment of the prequalification process and criteria.
   (G) An assessment of the effect of retaining 5-percent retention
on the project.
   (H) A description of the Labor Force Compliance Program and an
assessment of the project impact, where required.
   (I) A description of the method used to award the contract. If
best value was the method, the report shall describe the factors used
to evaluate the bid, including the weighting of each factor and an
assessment of the effectiveness of the methodology.
   (J) An assessment of the project impact of "skilled labor force
availability."
   (K) An assessment of the most appropriate uses for the
design-build approach.
   (m) Any qualified entity that elects not to use the authority
granted by this section may submit a report to the Legislative
Analyst's Office explaining why the qualified entity elected to not
use the design-build method.
   (n) (1) In order to comply with paragraph (2) of subdivision (a),
the Office of Planning and Research is required to maintain the list
of entities that have applied and are eligible to be qualified for
this authority.
   (2) Each entity that is interested in proceeding under the
authority in this section must apply to the Office of Planning and
Research.
   (A) The application to proceed must be in writing.
   (B) An entity must have complied with the California Environmental
Quality Act review process pursuant to Division 13 (commencing with
Section 21000) of the Public Resources Code prior to its application,
and must include its approved notice of determination or notice of
completion in its application.
   (3) The Office of Planning and Research must approve or deny an
application, in writing, within 30 days. The authority to deny an
application shall only be exercised if the conditions set forth in
either or both paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) and subparagraph (B)
of paragraph (2) of this subdivision have not been satisfied.
   (4) An entity utilizing this section must, after it determines it
no longer is interested in using this authority, notify the Office of
Planning and Research in writing within 30 days of its
determination. Upon notification, the Office of Planning and Research
may contact any previous applicants, denied pursuant to paragraph
(2) of subdivision (a), to inform them of the availability to proceed
under this section.
   (o) The Legislative Analyst shall report to the Legislature on the
use of the design-build method by qualified entities pursuant to
this section, including the information listed in subdivision (l).
The report may include recommendations for modifying or extending
this section, and shall be submitted on either of the following
dates, whichever occurs first:
   (1) Within one year of the completion of the 20 projects, if the
projects are completed prior to January 1, 2019.
   (2) No later than January 1, 2020.
  SEC. 253.  The heading of Article 32 (commencing with Section
20520) of Chapter 1 of Part 3 of Division 2 of the Public Contract
Code is amended to read:

      Article 32.  City Councils--Municipal Lighting 
Maintainence   Maintenance  District Act of 1927


  SEC. 254.  Section 667 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   667.  Each member of the board shall receive one hundred dollars
($100) for each day during which the member is engaged in the
performance of official duties. The compensation of each member,
except the compensation of the chair, shall not, however, exceed in
any one fiscal year the sum of four thousand dollars ($4,000). The
chair of the board may receive compensation  of not
to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) in any one fiscal year for
the performance of official duties. In addition to the compensation,
each member shall be reimbursed for necessary traveling and other
expenses incurred in the performance of official duties.
  SEC. 255.  Section 4186 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   4186.  All  money   moneys  that
 is   are  received by the state pursuant
to the federal Clarke-McNary Act and that  is  
are  regularly allotted by the federal government according to
an annual formula shall be paid into the General Fund. Any
supplemental money received from the federal government pursuant to
the federal Clarke-McNary Act for use by the department for specially
designated projects shall be authorized by the Director of Finance
for augmentation of the subitem captioned "Reimbursements" of the
principal item of appropriation from the General Fund for the support
of the department contained in the Budget Act for the fiscal year
during which the supplemental money is received. However, the
Director of Finance shall not authorize the augmentation sooner than
30 days after notification in writing of the necessity for the
augmentation to the  chair   chairperson 
of the committee in each house  which   that
 considers appropriations and to the  Chair 
 Chairperson  of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or
sooner than  any   whatever  lesser time
which the  chair   chairperson  of that
committee, or the  chair's   chairperson's 
designee, may in each instance determine.
  SEC. 256.  Section 4512.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended
to read:
   4512.5.  The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
   (a) State forests play a critical and unique role in the state's
carbon balance by sequestering carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and
storing it long term as carbon.
   (b) According to the scoping plan adopted by the State Air
Resources Board pursuant to the California Global Warming Solutions
Act of 2006 (Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) of the
Health and Safety Code), the state's forests currently are an annual
net sequester of five million metric tons of carbon dioxide 
(5MMTCO2)   (5MMTCO  2 )  . In fact, the
forest sector is the only sector included in the scoping plan that
provides a net sequestration of greenhouse gas emissions.
   (c) The scoping plan proposes to maintain the current 
5MMTCO2   5MMTCO  2 annual sequestration rate
through 2020 by implementing "sustainable management practices,"
which include potential changes to existing forest practices and land
use regulations.
   (d) There is increasing evidence that climate change has and will
continue to stress forest ecosystems, which underscores the
importance of proactively managing forests so that they can adapt to
these stressors and remain a net sequester of carbon dioxide.
   (e) The board, the department, and the State Air Resources Board
should strive to go beyond the status quo sequestration rate and
ensure that their policies and regulations reflect the unique role
forests play in combating climate change.
  SEC. 257.  Section 4590 of the Public Resources Code, as amended by
Section 2 of Chapter 376 of the Statutes of 2010, is amended to
read:
   4590.  (a) (1) A timber harvesting plan approved on or after
January 1, 2012, is effective for a period of not more than three
years, unless extended pursuant to paragraph (2).
   (2) A timber harvesting plan, on which timber operations have
commenced but not been completed, may be extended by amendment for a
one-year period in order to complete the timber operations, up to a
maximum of two  one-year   1-year 
extensions, if both of the following occur:
   (A) Good cause is shown.
   (B) All timber operations are in conformance with the plan, this
chapter, and all applicable rules and regulations, upon the filing of
the notice of extension as required by this section.
   (b) The extension shall apply to any area covered by the plan for
which a report has not been submitted under Section 4585. The notice
of extension shall be provided to the department not sooner than 30
days, but at least 10 days, prior to the expiration date of the plan.
The notice shall include the circumstances that prevented a timely
completion of the timber operations under the plan and, consistent
with Section 4583, an agreement to comply with this chapter and the
rules and regulations of the board as these exist on the date the
extension notice is filed.
   (c) Stocking work may continue for more than the effective period
of the plan under subdivision (a), but shall be completed within five
years after the conclusion of other work.
   (d) A timber harvesting plan that is approved on or after January
1, 2010, to December 31, 2011, inclusive, may be extended by
amendment for a two-year period in order to complete the timber
operations, up to a maximum of two  two-year  
2-year  extensions, if the plan complies with subparagraphs (A)
and (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) and the notice of
extension, pursuant to subdivision (b), includes written
certification by a registered professional forester that neither of
the conditions in subdivision (e) has occurred.
   (e) The department shall not approve an extension pursuant to
subdivision (d) if either of the following has occurred:
   (1) Listed species, as defined in Article 1 (commencing with
Section 2050) of Chapter 1.5 of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code
or the federal Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et seq.),
have been discovered in the logging area of the plan since approval
of the timber harvesting plan.
   (2) Significant physical changes to the harvest area or adjacent
areas have occurred since the timber harvesting plan's cumulative
impacts were originally assessed.
   (f) An extension of a timber harvesting plan on which either of
the conditions in subdivision (e) has occurred may be obtained only
pursuant to Section 1039 of Title 14 of the California Code of
Regulations. Notwithstanding the notice provision of subdivision (b),
for purposes of this subdivision the notice of extension shall be
provided to the department, not sooner than 140 days, but at least 10
days, prior to the expiration date of the plan.
   (g) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2012.
  SEC. 258.  Section 5073.5 of the Public Resources Code is amended
to read:
   5073.5.  (a) The Governor shall establish a California
Recreational Trails Committee to advise the director in the
development and coordination of the system. The committee shall
consist of seven members appointed by the Governor. Two members shall
be selected from the northern, two members from the southern, and
two members from the central portions of the state, and one member
shall be selected at large. Members shall be selected from lists
submitted by private organizations that have a demonstrated interest
in the establishment of  recreation  
recreational  trails. The chair of the committee shall be
elected by the members from their membership.
   (b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1,
2013, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted
statute, that is enacted before January 1, 2013, deletes or extends
that date.
  SEC. 259.  Section 6308 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   6308.   When   If  an action or
proceeding is commenced by or against a county, city, or other
political subdivision or agency of the state involving the title to
or the boundaries of tidelands or submerged lands that have been or
may hereafter be granted to it in trust by the Legislature, the State
of California shall be joined as a necessary party defendant in the
action or proceeding. Service of summons shall be made upon the
 chair   Chair  of the State Lands
Commission and upon the Attorney General, and the Attorney General
shall represent the state in all the actions or proceedings. If
judgment is given against the state in the action or proceeding,
costs shall not be recovered from the state.
  SEC. 260.  Section 6362 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   6362.  (a) There is hereby granted in trust to the City of
Pittsburg all of the right, title, and interest of the state held by
the state by virtue of its sovereignty in and to all tidelands and
submerged lands, whether filled or unfilled, situated within the
boundaries of the City of Pittsburg as  such  
those  boundaries exist on January 1, 2007.
   (b) The trust lands shall be held by the trustee and its
successors in trust for the benefit of all the people of the state
for public trust purposes, as more particularly provided in this
article.
   (c) This trust grant is subject to the following express
conditions:
   (1) The use of the trust lands shall be in conformity with the
public trust and the plan, and shall be without cost to the state.
   (2) The trustee or its successors shall not at any time grant,
convey, give, or otherwise alienate the trust lands, or any part
 thereof   of the trust lands  , to any
person, firm, entity, or corporation for any purposes whatsoever. The
trustee may lease the trust lands, or any part  thereof
  of the trust lands  , for limited periods, not
exceeding 66 years, for purposes consistent with the public trust and
the plan. The trustee may collect and retain rents and other trust
revenues from those leases, under rules and regulations adopted by
the trustee.
   (3) In the management, conduct, operation, and control of the
trust lands, or any  improvement   improvements
 , betterments, or structures  thereon   on
the trust lands  , the trustee or its successors shall make no
illegal discrimination in rates, tolls, or charges for any use or
service in connection herewith, nor shall the trustee discriminate
against or unlawfully segregate any person or group of persons on
account of sex, race, color, creed, national origin, ancestry, or
physical handicap for any use or service in connection herewith.
   (4) The state shall have the right to use, without charge, any
transportation, landing, or storage improvements, betterments, or
structures constructed upon the trust lands for any vessel or other
watercraft or railroad owned or operated by or under contract to the
state.
   (5) The state shall have the right, at any time in the future, to
use the trust lands or any portion  thereof   of
the trust lands  for any authorized public use without
compensation to the trustee, its successors or assigns, or any
person, firm, or public or private corporation claiming under it,
except that in the event improvements have been placed with legal
authority upon the property taken by the state, compensation shall be
made to the person entitled  thereto   to
compensation  for the value of the interest in the improvements
taken or the damages to that interest.
   (6) There is reserved to the people of the state the right to fish
in the waters over the trust lands, with the right to convenient
access to those waters over the trust lands for that purpose.
   (7) There is excepted and reserved to the state all remains or
artifacts of archaeological and historical significance and all
deposit of minerals, including, but not limited to, all substances
specified in Section 6407, in the trust lands, and the right to
prospect for, mine, and remove those deposits from the lands.
   (8) This grant is made subject to the rights of any and all
persons under any title derived from the state or any of its agencies
in or to any part of the trust lands.
   (9) A survey of the trust lands pursuant to Sections 6358 and 6359
shall be completed and recorded by the commission by January 1,
2013. The cost of the survey and recordation shall be paid according
to Sections 6358 and 6359.
   (10) Brown's Island is exempted from this act and is  a 
not part of the grant.
  SEC. 261.  Section 7555 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   7555.   (a)    In a case  where
  in which  the state has sold lands acquired by it
as swamp and overflowed lands, the person claiming or deraigning
title to any lands through or under a purchase  thereof
  of the lands  from the state may bring suit
against the state in a court of competent jurisdiction of the state
to establish the boundaries of, and to quiet title to, the land or a
portion  thereof   of the land , and may
prosecute the suit to final judgment. The complaint in the action
shall contain a plat of the property described  therein
  in the complaint  , which plat shall show the
location of the property in respect to a section corner, the location
of which is shown on an approved United States government township
plat, or in respect to a monument that has been established by
reference to a section corner.
    (b)    Service of summons in the suits shall be
made upon the  chair   Chair  of the State
Lands Commission and upon the Attorney General, and the Attorney
General shall represent the state in the suits.
    (c)    Costs against the state shall not be
allowed in the suit.
  SEC. 262.  Section 14574 of the Public Resources Code, as added by
Section 3 of Chapter 5 of the 8th Extraordinary Session of the
Statutes of 2010, is amended to read:
   14574.  (a) (1) A distributor of beverage containers shall pay to
the department the redemption payment for every beverage container,
other than a refillable beverage container, sold or transferred to a
dealer, less 1.5 percent for the distributor's administrative costs.
   (2) The payment made by a distributor shall be made not later than
the last day of the third month following the sale. The distributor
shall make the payment in the form and manner that the department
prescribes.
   (b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), if a distributor displays
a pattern of operation in compliance with this division and the
regulations adopted pursuant to this division, to the satisfaction of
the department, the distributor may make a single annual payment of
redemption payments, if the distributor's projected redemption
payment for a calendar year totals less than seventy-five thousand
dollars ($75,000).
   (2) An annual redemption payment made pursuant to this subdivision
is due and payable on or before February 1 for every beverage
container sold or transferred by the distributor to a dealer in the
previous calendar year.
   (3) A distributor shall notify the department of its intent to
make an annual redemption payment pursuant to this subdivision on or
before January 31 of the calendar year for which the payment will be
due. 
   (b) 
    (c)  This section shall become effective on July 1,
2012.
  SEC. 263.  Section 29735 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   29735.  There is hereby created the Delta Protection Commission
consisting of 15 members as follows:
   (a) One member of the board of supervisors, or his or her
designee, of each of the five counties within the Delta whose
supervisorial district is within the primary zone shall be appointed
by the board of supervisors of each of those respective counties.
   (b) (1) Two elected city council members shall be selected and
appointed by city selection committees, from the appropriate regions
specified in subparagraphs (A) and (B), one in each of the following
areas:
   (A) One from the south Delta, consisting of the County of San
Joaquin.
   (B) One from the west Delta, from either the County of Contra
Costa or the County of Solano, on a rotating basis.
   (2) One elected city council member shall be selected and
appointed by city selection committees, from regional and area
councils of government from the north Delta, consisting of the
Counties of Yolo and Sacramento.
   (3) A city council member appointed pursuant to this subdivision
may select a designee for purposes of this subdivision.
   (4) Notwithstanding Section 29736, the term of office of the
members selected pursuant to this subdivision shall be two years.
   (c) One member each from the board of directors of three different
reclamation districts that are located within the primary zone who
are residents of the Delta, and who are elected by the trustees of
reclamation districts pursuant to paragraphs (1), (2), and (3). Each
reclamation district may nominate one director to be a member. The
member from an area described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3) shall be
selected from among the nominees by a majority vote of the
reclamation districts in that area. A member selected pursuant to
this subdivision may select a designee for this purpose. For the
purposes of this section, each reclamation district shall have one
vote. Reclamation district members shall consist of the following:
   (1) One member from the area of the North Delta Water Agency as
described in Section 9.1 of the North Delta Water Agency Act (Chapter
283 of the Statutes of 1973).
   (2) One member from an area including the west Delta consisting of
the area of  the County of  Contra Costa  County
 within the Delta and within the Central Delta Water Agency
as described in Section 9.1 of the Central Delta Water Agency Act
(Chapter 1133 of the Statutes of 1973).
   (3) One member from the area of the South Delta Water Agency as
described in Section 9.1 of the South Delta Water Agency Act (Chapter
1089 of the Statutes of 1973).
   (d) The Secretary of Food and Agriculture, or the secretary's sole
designee.
   (e) The executive officer of the State Lands Commission, or the
executive officer's sole designee.
   (f) The Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency, or his or her
sole designee.
   (g) The Secretary of Business, Transportation and Housing, or his
or her sole designee.
  SEC. 264.  Section 32330 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   32330.  The board shall consist of 11 voting members and two
nonvoting members, appointed or designated as follows:
   (a) The 11 voting members of the board shall consist of all of the
following:
   (1) The Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency, or his or her
designee.
   (2) The Director of Finance, or his or her designee.
   (3) One member of the board or a designee who is appointed by the
Contra Costa County Board of Supervisors, who is a resident of that
county.
   (4) One member of the board or a designee who is appointed by the
Sacramento County Board of Supervisors, who is a resident of that
county.
   (5) One member of the board or a designee who is appointed by the
San Joaquin County Board of Supervisors, who is a resident of that
county.
   (6) One member of the board or a designee who is appointed by the
Solano County Board of Supervisors, who is a resident of that county.

   (7) One member of the board or a designee who is appointed by the
Yolo County Board of Supervisors, who is a resident of that county.
   (8) Two public members appointed by the Governor, subject to
confirmation by the Senate.
   (9) One public member appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.
   (10) One public member appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.
   (b) The two nonvoting members shall consist of a Member of the
Senate, appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules, and a Member of
the Assembly, appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly. The members
appointed under this subdivision shall meet with the conservancy and
participate in its activities to the extent that this participation
is not incompatible with their positions as Members of the
Legislature. The appointed members shall represent a district that
encompasses a portion of the Delta.
   (c) Ten liaison advisers who shall serve in an advisory, nonvoting
capacity shall consist of all of the following:
   (1) One representative of the United States Fish and Wildlife
Service, designated by the United States Secretary of the Interior.
   (2) One representative of the United States National Marine
Fisheries Service, designated by the United States Secretary of
Commerce.
   (3) One representative of the United States Bureau of Reclamation,
designated by the United States Secretary of the Interior.
   (4) One representative of the United States Army Corps of
Engineers, designated by the Commanding Officer, United States Army
Corps of Engineers, South Pacific Division.
   (5) A designee of the San Francisco Bay Conservation and
Development Commission for coordination purposes.
   (6) A designee of the State Coastal Conservancy for coordination
purposes.
   (7) A designee of the Suisun Resource Conservation District for
coordination purposes.
   (8) A designee of the Central Valley Flood Protection Board.
   (9) A designee of the Yolo Basin Foundation.
   (10) A designee of the Delta Protection Commission.
   (d) The public members appointed by the Governor shall serve for a
term of four years, with a two-term limit.
   (e) The locally appointed members and alternates shall serve at
the pleasure of the appointing board of supervisors.
                                                               (f)
The public members appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules or the
Speaker of the Assembly shall serve for a term of four years, with a
two-term limit.
   (g) The Members of the Senate and Assembly shall serve at the
pleasure of the appointing body.
   (h) Alternates  for members appointed pursuant to paragraphs
(3) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (a)  may be appointed by
the  respective  county boards of supervisors.
  SEC. 265.  Section 41800 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   41800.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), within 120 days
from the date of receipt of a countywide or regional integrated
waste management plan  which   that  the
 board   department  has determined to be
complete, or  any   an  element of the plan
 which   that  the  board
  department  has determined to be complete, the
 board   department  shall determine
whether the plan or element is in compliance with Article 2
(commencing with Section 40050) of Chapter 1 of Part 1, Chapter 2
(commencing with Section 41000), and Chapter 5 (commencing with
Section 41750), and, based upon that determination, the 
board   department  shall approve, conditionally
approve, or disapprove the plan or element.
   (b) (1) Within 120 days from the date of receipt of a city,
county, or regional agency nondisposal facility element  ,
which   that  the  board  
department  has determined to be complete, and within 60 days
from the date of receipt of an amendment to a city, county, or
regional agency nondisposal facility element, the  board
  department  shall determine whether the element,
which the  board   department  has
determined to be complete, or amendment is in compliance with Chapter
4.5 (commencing with Section 41730) and Article 1 (commencing with
Section 41780) of Chapter 6, and, based upon that determination, the
 board   department  shall approve,
conditionally approve, or disapprove the element or amendment within
that time period.
   (2) In reviewing the element or amendment, the  board
  department  shall:
   (A) Not consider the estimated capacity of the facility or
facilities in the element or amendment unless the  board
  department  determines that this information is
needed to determine whether the element or amendment meets the
requirements of Article 1 (commencing with Section 41780) of Chapter
6.
   (B) Recognize that individual facilities represent portions of
local plans or programs that are designed to achieve the diversion
requirements of Section 41780 and therefore may not arbitrarily
require new or expanded diversion at proposed facilities.
   (C) Not disapprove an element or amendment that includes a
transfer station or other facility solely because the facility does
not contribute  towards   toward  the
jurisdiction's efforts to comply with Section 41780.
   (c) If the  board   department  does not
act to approve, conditionally approve, or disapprove an element
 which   that  the  board 
 department  has determined to be complete within 120 days,
or an amendment  which   that  the
 board   department  has determined to be
complete within 60 days, the  board   department
 shall be deemed to have approved the element or amendment.
  SEC. 266.  Section 44820 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   44820.  (a) Except as provided in subdivision (c), the board shall
adopt, by regulation, a permitting, inspection, and enforcement
program for the disposal of asbestos containing waste, as specified
in Section 25143.7 of the Health and Safety Code, at  any
  a  solid waste facility or disposal site subject
to regulation pursuant to this part. The program may include, but is
not limited to, standards and certification requirements for local
enforcement agencies, pursuant to which the board may delegate
authority for the regulation of asbestos containing waste to local
enforcement agencies.
   (b) On or before March 1, 1995, or the earliest feasible date
thereafter, the board and the Department of Toxic Substances Control
shall enter into a memorandum of understanding that defines the
enforcement responsibilities of each agency for the disposal of
asbestos containing waste at  any   a 
solid waste disposal facility or disposal site subject to regulation
pursuant to this part. The memorandum of understanding shall be
periodically updated to be consistent with each agency's
responsibilities pursuant to this section and Chapter 6.5 (commencing
with Section 25100) of Division  30   20 
of the Health and Safety Code.
   (c) Until the board has adopted regulations pursuant to
subdivision (a), the Department of Toxic Substances Control shall
regulate asbestos containing waste at a solid waste facility or
disposal site.
   (d) Any regulations adopted pursuant to this section shall be
deemed emergency regulations and shall be adopted in accordance with
the Administrative  Procedures   Procedure 
Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Division 3 of
Title 2 of the Government  Code.)   Code). 
The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed to be necessary
for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, safety,
or general welfare.
  SEC. 267.  Section 71560 of the Public Resources Code is amended to
read:
   71560.  (a) The endowment may receive charitable contributions or
any sources of income that may be lawfully received, including loans
from the state.
   (b) The endowment shall administer any funds it receives in
accordance with this division.
   (c) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the endowment shall
invest and manage any funds it receives so that the investments shall
provide a source of income in perpetuity and the principal amount
consisting of charitable contributions and donations, including cost
savings donated pursuant to Section  6427.3  
6618  of the Fish and Game Code, shall not be spent. Any returns
on investments made by the endowment are the only funds that shall
be available for expenditure by the endowment.
   (2) Ten percent of any funds received by the endowment pursuant to
Section  6427.3   6618  of the Fish and
Game Code in a calendar year shall be allocated by the endowment
board, pursuant to Section 71552, as grants for projects or programs
consistent with the purpose of this chapter within 24 months of
receipt of the funds. The majority of these funds shall be granted to
state agencies engaged in coastal and ocean protection.
   (d) The endowment shall invest and manage any funds it receives in
accordance with the Nonprofit Public Benefit Corporation Law (Part 2
(commencing with Section 5110) of Division 2 of Title 1 of the
Corporations Code).
   (e) The accounts of the endowment shall be audited annually in
accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by independent
certified public accountants.
   (f) The financial transactions of the endowment for any fiscal
year may be audited by the Bureau of State Audits.
   (g) Each recipient of assistance by grant, contract, or loan
pursuant to this division shall keep records reasonably necessary to
disclose fully the amount of the assistance, the disposition of the
assistance, the total cost of the project or undertaking in
connection with which the assistance is given or used, the amount and
nature of that portion of the cost of the project or undertaking
supplied by other sources, and other records that will facilitate an
effective audit. Each recipient of a fixed price contract awarded
pursuant to competitive bidding procedures is exempt from 
the requirements of  this subdivision.
   (h) The endowment, or its authorized representative, and the
Bureau of State Audits shall have access to any records necessary for
the purpose of auditing and examining all funds received or expended
by the recipients of assistance.
  SEC. 268.  Section 345.5 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to
read:
   345.5.  (a) The Independent System Operator, as a nonprofit,
public benefit corporation, shall conduct its operations consistent
with applicable state and federal laws and consistent with the
interests of the people of the state.
   (b) To ensure the reliability of electric service and the health
and safety of the public, the Independent System Operator shall
manage the transmission grid and related energy markets in a manner
that is consistent with all of the following:
   (1) Making the most efficient use of available energy resources.
For purposes of this section, "available energy resources" include
energy, capacity, ancillary services, and demand bid into markets
administered by the Independent System Operator. "Available energy
resources" do not include a schedule submitted to the Independent
System Operator by an electrical corporation or a local publicly
owned electric utility to meet its own customer load.
   (2) Reducing, to the extent possible, overall economic cost to the
state's consumers.
   (3) Applicable state law intended to protect the public's health
and the environment.
   (4) Maximizing availability of existing electric generation
resources necessary to meet the needs of the state's electricity
consumers.
   (c) The Independent System Operator shall do all of the following:

   (1) Consult and coordinate with appropriate state and local
agencies to ensure that the Independent System Operator operates in
furtherance of state law regarding consumer and environmental
protection.
   (2) Ensure that the purposes and functions of the Independent
System Operator are consistent with the purposes and functions of
nonprofit, public benefit corporations in the state, including duties
of care and conflict-of-interest standards for officers and
directors of a corporation.
   (3) Maintain open meeting standards and meeting notice
requirements consistent with the general policies of the Bagley-Keene
Open  Meetings   Meeting  Act (Article 9
(commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of 
Division 3 of Title 2 of  the Government Code) and affording the
public the greatest possible access, consistent with other duties of
the corporation. The Independent System Operator's Open Meeting
Policy, as adopted on April 23, 1998, and in effect as of May 1,
2002, meets the requirements of this paragraph. The Independent
System Operator shall maintain a policy that is no less consistent
with the Bagley-Keene Open  Meetings   Meeting
 Act than its policy in effect as of May 1, 2002.
   (4) Provide public access to corporate records consistent with the
general policies of the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5
(commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the
Government Code) and affording the public the greatest possible
access, consistent with the other duties of the corporation. The
Independent System Operator's Information Availability Policy, as
adopted on October 22, 1998, and in effect as of May 1, 2002, meets
the requirements of this paragraph. The Independent System Operator
shall maintain a policy that is no less consistent with the
California Public Records Act than its policy in effect as of May 1,
2002.
  SEC. 269.  Section 2827 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to
read:
   2827.  (a) The Legislature finds and declares that a program to
provide net energy metering combined with net surplus compensation,
co-energy metering, and wind energy co-metering for eligible
customer-generators is one way to encourage substantial private
investment in renewable energy resources, stimulate in-state economic
growth, reduce demand for electricity during peak consumption
periods, help stabili