SB 304, as amended, Lieu. Healing arts: boards.
(1) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of physicians and surgeons by the Medical Board of California. Existing law authorizes the board to employ an executive director. Existing law provides that those provisions will be repealed on January 1, 2014, and, upon repeal, the board is subject to review by the Joint Sunset Review Committee.
This bill would instead repeal those provisions on January 1, 2018, and subject the board to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The bill would authorize the board to employ an executive director by, and with the approval of, the Director of Consumer Affairs.
Existing law authorizes the board to issue a physician and surgeon’s license to an applicant who acquired all or part of his or her medical education at a foreign medical school that is not recognized by the board if, among other requirements, the applicant has held an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state or federal territory and has continuously practiced for a minimum of 10 years prior to the date of application or to an applicant who acquired any part of his or her professional instruction at a foreign medical school that has previously been disapproved by the board if, among other requirements, the applicant has held an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state or federal territory and has continuously practiced for a minimum of 20 years prior to the date of application. For the purposes of these provisions, the board may combine the period of time that the applicant has held an unlimited and unrestricted license, but requires each applicant to have a minimum of 5 years continuous licensure and practice in a single state or federal territory.
This bill would instead authorize the board to issue a physician and surgeon’s license to an applicant who acquired any part of his or her medical education from an unrecognized medical school if, among other requirements, the applicant has held an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state, a federal territory, or a Canadian province and has continuously practiced for a minimum of 10 years prior to the date of application, or from a disapproved medical school if, among other requirements, the applicant has held an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician and surgeon in another state, a federal territory, or a Canadian province and has continuously practiced for a minimum of 12 years prior to the date of application. The bill would reduce the minimum number of years that each applicant must have continuous licensure and practice in a single state or federal territory to 2 years and permit the period of continuous licensure and practice to occur in a Canadian province.
Existing law authorizes the Medical Board of California, if it publishes a directory of its licensees, as specified, to require persons licensed, as specified, to furnish specified information to the board for purposes of compiling the directory.
This bill would require that an applicant and licensee who has an electronic mail address report to the board that electronic mail address no later than July 1, 2014. The bill would provide that the electronic mail address is to be considered confidential, as specified.
Existing law requires an applicant for a physician and surgeon’s certificate to obtain a passing score on Step 3 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination with not more than 4 attempts, subject to an exception.
This bill would require an applicant to have obtained a passing score on all parts of that examination with not more than 4 attempts, subject to the exception.
Existing law requires that a complaint, with exceptions, received by the board determined to involve quality of care, before referral to a field office for further investigation, meet certain criteria.
This bill would expand the types of reports that are exempted from that requirement.
Existing law provides for a civil penalty of up to $1,000 per day, as specified, to be imposed on a health care facility that fails to comply with a patient’s medical record request, as specified, within 30 days.
This bill would shorten the time limit for compliance to 15 days for those health care facilities that have electronic health records.
Existing law establishes that corporations and other artificial legal entities have no professional rights, privileges, or powers.
This bill would provide that those provisions do not apply to physicians and surgeons or doctors of podiatric medicine enrolled in approved residency postgraduate training programs or fellowship programs.
(2) Existing law, the Licensed Midwifery Practice Act of 1993, provides for the licensure and regulation of licensed midwives by the Medical Board of California. Existing law specifies that a midwife student meeting certain conditions is not precluded from engaging in the practice of midwifery as part of his or her course of study, if certain conditions are met, including, that the student is under the supervision of a licensed midwife.
This bill would require that to engage in those practices, the student is to be enrolled and participating in a midwifery education program or enrolled in a program of supervised clinical training, as provided. The bill would add that the student is permitted to engage in those practices if he or she is under the supervision of a licensed nurse-midwife.
(3) Existing law provides for the regulation of registered dispensing opticians by the Medical Board of California and requires that the powers and duties of the board in that regard be subject to review by the Joint Sunset Review Committee as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2014.
This bill would instead make the powers and duties of the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature as if those provisions were scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018.
(4) Existing law provides for the accreditation of outpatient settings, as defined by the Medical Board of California, and requires outpatient settings to report adverse events, as defined, to the State Department of Public Health within specified time limits. Existing law provides for the imposition of a civil penalty in the event that an adverse event is not reported within the applicable time limit.
This bill would instead require those outpatient settings to report adverse events to the Medical Board of California within specified time limits and authorize the board to impose a civil penalty if an outpatient setting fails to timely report an adverse event.
(5) Existing law establishes the Medical Quality Hearing Panel, consisting of no fewer than 5 administrative law judges with certain medical training, within the Office of Administrative Hearings. Existing law authorizes those administrative law judges to issue interim orders suspending a license, or imposing drug testing, continuing education, supervision of procedures, or other license restrictions. Existing law requires that in all of those cases in which an interim order is issued, and an accusation is not filed and served within 15 days of the date in which the parties to the hearing have submitted the matter, the order be dissolved.
Under existing law, if a healing arts practitioner is unable to practice his or her profession safely due to mental or physical illness, his or her licensing agency may order the practitioner to be examined by specified professionals.
This bill would extend the time in which the accusation must be filed and served to 30 days from the date on which the parties to the hearing submitted the matter. The bill would also provide that a physician and surgeon’s failure to comply with an order to be examined may constitute grounds for an administrative law judge of the Medical Quality Hearing Panel to issue an interim suspension order.
Existing law establishes the Health Quality Enforcement Section within the Department of Justice tobegin delete carry out certain duties.end deletebegin insert investigate and prosecute proceedings against licensees and applicants within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Board of Psychology, or any committee under the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California.end insert Existing law provides for the funding for the section, and for the appointment of a Senior Assistant Attorney General to the section to carry out specified duties. Existing law requires that all complaints or relevant information concerning licensees that are within the jurisdiction of thebegin delete Medical Board of California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, or the Board of Psychologyend deletebegin insert
boards served by the Health Quality Enforcement Sectionend insert be made available to the Health Quality Enforcement Section. Existing law establishes the procedures for processing the complaints, assisting the boards or committees in establishing training programs for their staff, and for determining whether to bring a disciplinary proceeding against a licensee of the boards. Existing law provides for the repeal of those provisions, as provided, on January 1, 2014.
This bill would extend the operation of those provisions indefinitelybegin insert and make those provisions applicable to the Physical Therapy Board of California and licensees within its jurisdictionend insert.
Existing law establishes, until January 1, 2014, a vertical enforcement and prosecution model for cases before the Medical Board of California and requires the board to report to the Governor and Legislature on that model by March 1, 2012.
This bill would extend the date that report is due to March 1, 2015.
Existing law creates the Division of Investigation within the Department of Consumer Affairs and requires investigators who have the authority of peace officers to be in the division, except that investigators of the Medical Board of California and the Dental Board of California who have that authority are not required to be in the division.
This bill would require, effective July 1, 2014, that investigators of the Medical Board of California who have the authority of a peace officer be in the division and would protect the positions, status, and rights of thosebegin delete investigatorsend deletebegin insert
employeesend insert who are subsequently transferred as a result of these provisions. The bill would alsobegin insert, effective July 1, 2014,end insert create within the Division of Investigation the Health Quality Investigation Unit.
(6) Existing law, the Veterinary Medicine Practice Act, provides for the licensure and registration of veterinarians and registered veterinary technicians and the regulation of the practice of veterinary medicine by the Veterinary Medical Board. Existing law repeals the provisions establishing the board, and authorizing the board to appoint an executive officer, as of January 1, 2014. Under existing law, the board is subject to evaluation by the Joint Sunset Review Committee prior to its repeal.
This bill would provide that those provisions are instead repealed as of January 1, 2016. The bill, upon repeal of the board, would require that the board be subject to a specifically limited review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature.
Existing law authorizes the board, at any time, to inspect the premises in which veterinary medicine, veterinary dentistry, or veterinary surgery isbegin delete beingpracticedend deletebegin insert being practicedend insert
and requires that those premises be registered with the board. Existing law requires the board to establish a regular inspection program that will provide for random, unannounced inspections.
This bill would require the board to make every effort to inspect at least 20% of veterinary premises on an annual basis and would exclude from inspection those premises that are not registered with the board.
Existing law requires the board to establish an advisory committee, the Veterinary Medicine Multidisciplinary Advisory Committee, to assist, advise, and make recommendations for the implementation of rules and regulations necessary to ensure proper administration and enforcement of specified provisions and to assist the board in its examination, licensure, and registration programs. Existing law requires the committee to consist of 7 members, with 4 licensed veterinarians, 2 registered veterinary technicians, and one public member.
This bill would expand the number of members on the committee to 9 by including one veterinarian member of the board, to be appointed by the board president, and the registered veterinary technician of the board, both of whom would serve concurrently with their terms of office on the board. The bill would additionally require that the committee serve only in an advisory capacity to the board, as specified. The bill would make other technical and conforming changes.
Existing law authorizes a registered veterinary technician or a veterinary assistant to administer a drug under the direct or indirect supervision of a licensed veterinarian when administered pursuant to the order, control, and full professional responsibility of a licensed veterinarian. Existing law limits access to controlled substances by veterinary assistants to persons who have undergone a background check and who, to the best of the licensee manager’s knowledge, do not have any drug- or alcohol-related felony convictions. Existing law repeals these provisions on January 1, 2015.
This bill would instead require, until the later of January 1, 2015, or the effective date of a specified legislative determination, a licensee manager to conduct a background check on a veterinary assistant prior to authorizing him or her to obtain or administer a controlled substance by the order of a supervising veterinarian and to prohibit the veterinary assistant from obtaining or administering controlled substances if the veterinary assistant has a drug- or alcohol-related felony conviction.
This bill would require that, upon the later of January 1, 2015, or the effective date of a specified legislative determination, a veterinary assistant be designated by a licensed veterinarian and hold a valid veterinary assistant controlled substances permit from the board in order to obtain or administer controlled substances. The bill would, as part of the application for a permit, require an applicant to furnish a set of fingerprints to the Department of Justice for the purposes of conducting both a state and federal criminal history record check. The bill would require an applicant for a veterinary assistant controlled substances permit to apply for a renewal of his or her permit on or before the last day of the applicant’s birthday month and to update his or her mailing or employer address with the board. The bill would authorize the board to collect a filing fee, not to exceed $100, from applicants for a veterinary assistant controlled substances permit. Because that fee would be deposited in the Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund, which is a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.
begin insert(7) This bill would incorporate additional changes to Section 11529 of the Government Code proposed by SB 670 that would become operative if this bill and SB 670 are enacted and this bill is chaptered last.
end insert(7)
end deletebegin insert(end insertbegin insert8)end insert The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.
This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.
Vote: majority. Appropriation: yes. Fiscal committee: yes. State-mandated local program: yes.
The people of the State of California do enact as follows:
Section 159.5 of the Business and Professions
2Code is amended to read:
(a) (1) There is in the department the Division of
4Investigation. The division is in the charge of a person with the
5title of chief of the division.
6(2) Except as provided in Section 160, investigators who have
7the authority of peace officers, as specified in subdivision (a) of
8Section 160 and in subdivision (a) of Section 830.3 of the Penal
9Code, shall be in the division and shall be appointed by the director.
10(b) (1) There is in the Division of Investigation the Health
11Quality Investigation Unit. The primary responsibility of the unit
12is to investigate violations of law or regulation
within the
13jurisdiction of the Medical Board of California, the California
14Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Board of Psychology,begin insert the
15Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the Physician Assistant
16Board,end insert or anybegin delete committeeend deletebegin insert entitiesend insert under the jurisdiction of the
17Medical Board of California.
18(2) The Medical Board of California shall not be charged an
19hourly rate for the performance of investigations by thebegin delete unit, nor begin insert
unit.end insert
20shall investigation costs incurred by the unit be charged to the
21Medical Board of California.end delete
22(3) This subdivision shall become operative on July 1, 2014.
Section 160 of the Business and Professions Code is
24amended to read:
(a) The Chief and all investigators of the Division of
26Investigation of the department and all investigators of the Medical
27Board of California and the Dental Board of California have the
28authority of peace officers while engaged in exercising the powers
29granted or performing the duties imposed upon them or the division
30in investigating the laws administered by the various boards
31comprising the department or commencing directly or indirectly
32any criminal prosecution arising from any investigation conducted
33under these laws. All persons herein referred to shall be deemed
34to be acting within the scope of employment with respect to all
35acts and matters set forth in this section.
P9 1(b) The
Division of Investigation of the department, the Medical
2Board of California, and the Dental Board of California may
3employ individuals, who are not peace officers, to provide
4investigative services.
5(c) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2014, and,
6as of January 1, 2015, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
7that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2015, deletes or
8extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 160 is added to the Business and Professions
10Code, to read:
(a) The Chief and all investigators of the Division of
12Investigation of the department and all investigators of the Dental
13Board of California have the authority of peace officers while
14engaged in exercising the powers granted or performing the duties
15imposed upon them or the division in investigating the laws
16administered by the various boards comprising the department or
17commencing directly or indirectly any criminal prosecution arising
18from any investigation conducted under these laws. All persons
19herein referred to shall be deemed to be acting within the scope
20of employment with respect to all acts and matters set forth in this
21
section.
22(b) The Division of Investigation of the department and the
23Dental Board of California may employ individuals, who are not
24peace officers, to provide investigative services.
25(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2014.
Section 160.5 of the Business and Professions Code
27 is amended to read:
(a) All civil service employees currently employed by
29the Board of Dental Examiners of the Department of Consumer
30Affairs, whose functions are transferred as a result of the act adding
31this section shall retain their positions, status, and rights pursuant
32to Section 19050.9 of the Government Code and the State Civil
33Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of Division
345 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The transfer of employees
35as a result of the act adding this section shall occur no later than
36July 1, 1999.
37(b) (1) All civil service employees currently employed by the
38Medical Board of California of the
Department of Consumer
39Affairs, whose functions are transferred as a result of the act adding
40this subdivision shall retain their positions, status, and rights
P10 1pursuant to Section 19050.9 of the Government Code and the State
2Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing with Section 18500) of
3Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The transfer of
4employees as a result of the act adding this subdivision shall occur
5no later than July 1, 2014.
6(2) The transfer of employees pursuant to this subdivision shall
7include all peace officerbegin insert and medical consultantend insert positions and all
8staff support positions
for those peace officerbegin insert and medical
9consultantend insert positions.
Section 2001 of the Business and Professions Code is
11amended to read:
(a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a
13Medical Board of California that consists of 15 members, seven
14of whom shall be public members.
15(b) The Governor shall appoint 13 members to the board, subject
16to confirmation by the Senate, five of whom shall be public
17members. The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the
18Assembly shall each appoint a public member.
19(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
20and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
21is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
22Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this
section renders
23the board subject to review by the appropriate policy committees
24of the Legislature.
Section 2006 of the Business and Professions Code is
26amended to read:
(a) Any reference in this chapter to an investigation by
28the board shall be deemed to refer to a joint investigation conducted
29by employees of the Department of Justice and the board under
30the vertical enforcement and prosecution model, as specified in
31Section 12529.6 of the Government Code.
32(b) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2014, and,
33as of January 1, 2015, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
34that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2015, deletes or
35extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 2006 is added to the Business and Professions
37Code, to read:
(a) Any reference in this chapter to an investigation by
39the board shall be deemed to refer to a joint investigation conducted
40by employees of the Department of Justice and the Health Quality
P11 1Investigation Unit under the vertical enforcement and prosecution
2model, as specified in Section 12529.6 of the Government Code.
3(b) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2014.
Section 2020 of the Business and Professions Code is
5amended to read:
(a) The board, by and with the approval of the director,
7may employ an executive director exempt from the provisions of
8the Civil Service Act and may also employ investigators, legal
9counsel, medical consultants, and other assistance as it may deem
10necessary to carry this chapter into effect. The board may fix the
11compensation to be paid for services subject to the provisions of
12applicable state laws and regulations and may incur other expenses
13as it may deem necessary. Investigators employed by the board
14shall be provided special training in investigating medical practice
15activities.
16(b) The Attorney General shall act as legal counsel for the board
17for any judicial and
administrative proceedings and his or her
18services shall be a charge against it.
19(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
20and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
21is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.
Section 2021 of the Business and Professions Code is
23amended to read:
(a) If the board publishes a directory pursuant to Section
25112, it may require persons licensed pursuant to this chapter to
26furnish any information as it may deem necessary to enable it to
27compile the directory.
28(b) Each licensee shall report to the board each and every change
29of address within 30 days after each change, giving both the old
30and new address. If an address reported to the board at the time of
31application for licensure or subsequently is a post office box, the
32applicant shall also provide the board with a street address. If
33another address is the licensee’s address of record, he or she may
34request that the second address not be disclosed to the public.
35(c) Each licensee shall report to the board each and every change
36of name within 30 days after each change, giving both the old and
37new names.
38(d) Each applicant and licensee who has an electronic mail
39address shall report to the board that electronic mail address no
P12 1later than July 1, 2014. The electronic mail address shall be
2considered confidential and not subject to public disclosure.
3(e) The board shall annually send an electronic notice to each
4applicant and licensee that requests confirmation from the applicant
5or licensee that his or her electronic mail address is current.
Section 2135.7 of the Business and Professions Code
7 is amended to read:
(a) Upon review and recommendation, the board may
9determine that an applicant for a physician and surgeon’s certificate
10who acquired his or her medical education or a portion thereof at
11a foreign medical school that is not recognized or has been
12previously disapproved by the board is eligible for a physician and
13surgeon’s certificate if the applicant meets all of the following
14criteria:
15(1) Has successfully completed a resident course of medical
16education leading to a degree of medical doctor equivalent to that
17specified in Sections 2089 to 2091.2, inclusive.
18(2) (A) (i) For an
applicant who acquired any part of his or her
19medical education from an unrecognized foreign medical school,
20he or she holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician
21and surgeon in another state, a federal territory, or a Canadian
22province and has held that license and continuously practiced for
23a minimum of 10 years prior to the date of application.
24(ii) For an applicant who acquired any part of his or her
25professional instruction from a foreign medical school that was
26
disapproved by the board at the time he or she attended the school,
27he or she holds an unlimited and unrestricted license as a physician
28and surgeon in anotherbegin delete state or federal territoryend deletebegin insert state, a federal
29territory, or a Canadian provinceend insert and has held that license and
30continuously practiced for a minimum of 12 years prior to the date
31of application.
32(B) For the purposes of clauses (i) and (ii) of subparagraph (A),
33the board may combine the period of time that the applicant has
34held an unlimited and unrestricted license in other states, federal
35territories, or Canadian provinces and continuously practiced
36therein,
but each applicant under this section shall have a minimum
37of two years continuous licensure and practice in a single state,
38federal territory, or Canadian province. For purposes of this
39paragraph, continuous licensure and practice includes any
40postgraduate training after 24 months in a postgraduate training
P13 1program that is accredited by the Accreditation Council for
2Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) or postgraduate training
3completed in Canada that is accredited by the Royal College of
4Physicians and Surgeons of Canada (RCPSC).
5(3) Is certified by a specialty board that is a member board of
6the American Board of Medical Specialties.
7(4) Has successfully taken and passed the examinations
8described in Article 9 (commencing with Section 2170).
9(5) Has not been the subject of a disciplinary action by a medical
10licensing authority or of adverse judgments or settlements resulting
11from the practice of medicine that the board determines constitutes
12a pattern of negligence or incompetence.
13(6) Has successfully completed three years of approved
14postgraduate training. The postgraduate training required by this
15paragraph shall have been obtained in a postgraduate training
16program accredited by the ACGME or postgraduate training
17completed in Canada that is accredited by the RCPSC.
18(7) Is not subject to denial of licensure under Division 1.5
19(commencing with Section 475) or Article 12 (commencing with
20Section 2220).
21(8) Has not held a healing arts
license and been the subject of
22disciplinary action by a healing arts board of this state or by another
23
state, federal territory, or Canadian province.
24(b) The board may adopt regulations to establish procedures for
25accepting transcripts, diplomas, and other supporting information
26and records when the originals are not available due to
27circumstances outside the applicant’s control. The board may also
28adopt regulations authorizing the substitution of additional specialty
29board certifications for years of practice or licensure when
30considering the certification for a physician and surgeon pursuant
31to this section.
32(c) This section shall not apply to a person seeking to participate
33in a program described in Sections 2072, 2073, 2111, 2112, 2113,
34
2115, or 2168, or seeking to engage in postgraduate training in
35this state.
Section 2177 of the Business and Professions Code
37 is amended to read:
(a) A passing score is required for an entire examination
39or for each part of an examination, as established by resolution of
40the board.
P14 1(b) Applicants may elect to take the written examinations
2conducted or accepted by the board in separate parts.
3(c) (1) An applicant shall have obtained a passing score on all
4parts of Step 3 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination
5within not more than four attempts in order to be eligible for a
6physician’s and surgeon’s certificate.
7(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an applicant who obtains
8a
passing score on all parts of Step 3 of the United States Medical
9Licensing Examination in more than four attempts and who meets
10the requirements of Section 2135.5 shall be eligible to be
11considered for issuance of a physician’s and surgeon’s certificate.
Section 2216.3 is added to the Business and
13Professions Code, to read:
(a) An outpatient setting accredited pursuant to Section
151248.1 of the Health and Safety Code shall report an adverse event
16to the board no later than five days after the adverse event has been
17detected, or, if that event is an ongoing urgent or emergent threat
18to the welfare, health, or safety of patients, personnel, or visitors,
19not later than 24 hours after the adverse event has been detected.
20Disclosure of individually identifiable patient information shall
21be consistent with applicable law.
22(b) For the purposes of this section, “adverse event” has the
23same meaning as in subdivision (b) of Section 1279.1 of the Health
24and Safety
Code.
Section 2216.4 is added to the Business and
26Professions Code, to read:
If an accredited outpatient setting fails to report an
28adverse event pursuant to Section 2216.3, the board may assess
29the accredited outpatient setting a civil penalty in an amount not
30to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) for each day that the adverse
31event is not reported following the initial five-day period or 24-hour
32period, as applicable. If the accredited outpatient setting disputes
33a determination by the board regarding an alleged failure to report
34an adverse event, the accredited outpatient setting may, within 10
35days of notification of the board’s determination, request a hearing,
36which shall be conducted pursuant to the administrative
37adjudication provisions of Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section
3811400) and Chapter 5 (commencing with
Section 11500) of Part
391 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. Penalties shall
P15 1be paid when appeals pursuant to those provisions have been
2exhausted.
Section 2220.08 of the Business and Professions
4Code is amended to read:
(a) Except for reports received by the board pursuant
6to Section 801.01 or 805 that may be treated as complaints by the
7board and new complaints relating to a physician and surgeon who
8is the subject of a pending accusation or investigation or who is
9on probation, any complaint determined to involve quality of care,
10before referral to a field office for further investigation, shall meet
11the following criteria:
12(1) It shall be reviewed by one or more medical experts with
13the pertinent education, training, and expertise to evaluate the
14specific standard of care issues raised by the complaint to determine
15if further field investigation is
required.
16(2) It shall include the review of the following, which shall be
17requested by the board:
18(A) Relevant patient records.
19(B) The statement or explanation of the care and treatment
20provided by the physician and surgeon.
21(C) Any additional expert testimony or literature provided by
22the physician and surgeon.
23(D) Any additional facts or information requested by the medical
24expert reviewers that may assist them in determining whether the
25care rendered constitutes a departure from the standard of care.
26(b) If the board does not receive
the information requested
27pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) within 10 working
28days of requesting that information, the complaint may be reviewed
29by the medical experts and referred to a field office for
30investigation without the information.
31(c) Nothing in this section shall impede the board’s ability to
32seek and obtain an interim suspension order or other emergency
33relief.
Section 2225.5 of the Business and Professions Code
35 is amended to read:
(a) (1) A licensee who fails or refuses to comply with
37a request for the certified medical records of a patient, that is
38accompanied by that patient’s written authorization for release of
39records to the board, within 15 days of receiving the request and
40authorization, shall pay to the board a civil penalty of one thousand
P16 1dollars ($1,000) per day for each day that the documents have not
2been produced after the 15th day, up to ten thousand dollars
3($10,000), unless the licensee is unable to provide the documents
4within this time period for good cause.
5(2) A health care facility shall comply with a request for the
6certified medical records of a patient that is
accompanied by that
7patient’s written authorization for release of records to the board
8together with a notice citing this section and describing the
9penalties for failure to comply with this section. Failure to provide
10the authorizing patient’s certified medical records to the board
11within 30 days of receiving the request, authorization, and notice
12shall subject the health care facility to a civil penalty, payable to
13the board, of up to one thousand dollars ($1,000) per day for each
14day that the documents have not been produced after the 30th day,
15up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000), unless the health care facility
16is unable to provide the documents within this time period for good
17cause. For health care facilities that have electronic health records,
18failure to provide the authorizing patient’s certified medical records
19to the board within 15 days of receiving the request, authorization,
20
and notice shall subject the health care facility to a civil penalty,
21payable to the board, of up to one thousand dollars ($1,000) per
22day for each day that the documents have not been produced after
23the 15th day, up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000), unless the health
24care facility is unable to provide the documents within this time
25period for good cause. This paragraph shall not require health care
26facilities to assist the board in obtaining the patient’s authorization.
27The board shall pay the reasonable costs of copying the certified
28medical records.
29(b) (1) A licensee who fails or refuses to comply with a court
30order, issued in the enforcement of a subpoena, mandating the
31release of records to the board shall pay to the board a civil penalty
32of one thousand dollars ($1,000) per day for each day that the
33documents
have not been produced after the date by which the
34court order requires the documents to be produced, up to ten
35thousand dollars ($10,000), unless it is determined that the order
36is unlawful or invalid. Any statute of limitations applicable to the
37filing of an accusation by the board shall be tolled during the period
38the licensee is out of compliance with the court order and during
39any related appeals.
P17 1(2) Any licensee who fails or refuses to comply with a court
2order, issued in the enforcement of a subpoena, mandating the
3release of records to the board is guilty of a misdemeanor
4punishable by a fine payable to the board not to exceed five
5thousand dollars ($5,000). The fine shall be added to the licensee’s
6renewal fee if it is not paid by the next succeeding renewal date.
7Any statute of limitations applicable to the filing of an accusation
8by
the board shall be tolled during the period the licensee is out
9of compliance with the court order and during any related appeals.
10(3) A health care facility that fails or refuses to comply with a
11court order, issued in the enforcement of a subpoena, mandating
12the release of patient records to the board, that is accompanied by
13a notice citing this section and describing the penalties for failure
14to comply with this section, shall pay to the board a civil penalty
15of up to one thousand dollars ($1,000) per day for each day that
16the documents have not been produced, up to ten thousand dollars
17($10,000), after the date by which the court order requires the
18documents to be produced, unless it is determined that the order
19is unlawful or invalid. Any statute of limitations applicable to the
20filing of an accusation by the board against a licensee shall
be
21tolled during the period the health care facility is out of compliance
22with the court order and during any related appeals.
23(4) Any health care facility that fails or refuses to comply with
24a court order, issued in the enforcement of a subpoena, mandating
25the release of records to the board is guilty of a misdemeanor
26
punishable by a fine payable to the board not to exceed five
27thousand dollars ($5,000). Any statute of limitations applicable to
28the filing of an accusation by the board against a licensee shall be
29tolled during the period the health care facility is out of compliance
30with the court order and during any related appeals.
31(c) Multiple acts by a licensee in violation of subdivision (b)
32shall be punishable by a fine not to exceed five thousand dollars
33($5,000) or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding six
34months, or by both that fine and imprisonment. Multiple acts by
35a health care facility in violation of subdivision (b) shall be
36punishable by a fine not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000)
37and shall be reported to the State Department of Public Health and
38shall be considered as grounds for disciplinary action with respect
39to
licensure, including suspension or revocation of the license or
40certificate.
P18 1(d) A failure or refusal of a licensee to comply with a court
2order, issued in the enforcement of a subpoena, mandating the
3release of records to the board constitutes unprofessional conduct
4and is grounds for suspension or revocation of his or her license.
5(e) Imposition of the civil penalties authorized by this section
6shall be in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act
7(Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Division 3 of
8Title 2 of the Government Code).
9(f) For purposes of this section, “certified medical records”
10means a copy of the patient’s medical records authenticated by the
11licensee or health care facility, as appropriate,
on a form prescribed
12by the board.
13(g) For purposes of this section, a “health care facility” means
14a clinic or health facility licensed or exempt from licensure
15pursuant to Division 2 (commencing with Section 1200) of the
16Health and Safety Code.
Section 2403 is added to the Business and Professions
18Code, to read:
The provisions of Section 2400 do not apply to
20physicians and surgeons or doctors of podiatric medicine enrolled
21in approved residency postgraduate training programs or fellowship
22programs.
Section 2514 of the Business and Professions Code
24 is amended to read:
(a) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent
26a bona fide student from engaging in the practice of midwifery in
27this state, as part of his or her course of study, if both of the
28following conditions are met:
29(1) The student is under the supervision of a licensed midwife
30or certified nurse-midwife, who holds a clear and unrestricted
31license in this state, who is present on the premises at all times
32client services are provided, and who is practicing pursuant to
33Section 2507 or 2746.5, or a physician and surgeon.
34(2) The client is informed of the student’s status.
35(b) For the purposes of this section, a “bona fide student” means
36an individual who is enrolled and participating in a midwifery
37education program or who is enrolled in a program of supervised
38clinical training as part of the instruction of a three year
39postsecondary midwifery education program approved by the
40board.
Section 2569 of the Business and Professions Code
2 is amended to read:
Notwithstanding any other law, the powers and duties
4of the board, as set forth in this chapter, shall be subject to review
5by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review
6shall be performed as if this chapter were scheduled to be repealed
7as of January 1, 2018.
Section 4800 of the Business and Professions Code
9 is amended to read:
(a) There is in the Department of Consumer Affairs a
11Veterinary Medical Board in which the administration of this
12chapter is vested. The board consists of the following members:
13(1) Four licensed veterinarians.
14(2) One registered veterinary technician.
15(3) Three public members.
16(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016,
17and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
18is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.
19(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the repeal of this section
20renders the board subject to review by the appropriate policy
21committees of the Legislature. However, the review of the board
22shall be limited to those issues identified by the appropriate policy
23committees of the Legislature and shall not involve the preparation
24or submission of a sunset review document or evaluative
25questionnaire.
Section 4804.5 of the Business and Professions Code
27 is amended to read:
The board may appoint a person exempt from civil
29service who shall be designated as an executive officer and who
30shall exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated by the
31board and vested in him or her by this chapter.
32This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016,
33and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
34is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.
Section 4809.5 of the Business and Professions Code
36 is amended to read:
The board may at any time inspect the premises in
38which veterinary medicine, veterinary dentistry, or veterinary
39surgery is being practiced. The board’s inspection authority does
40not extend to premises that are not registered with the board.
P20 1Nothing in this section shall be construed to affect the board’s
2ability to investigate alleged unlicensedbegin delete activity.end deletebegin insert activity or to
3inspect a premises for which registration has lapsed or is
4delinquent.end insert
Section 4809.7 of the Business and Professions Code
6 is amended to read:
The board shall establish a regular inspection program
8that will provide for random, unannounced inspections. The board
9shall make every effort to inspect at least 20 percent of veterinary
10premises on an annual basis.
Section 4809.8 of the Business and Professions Code
12 is amended to read:
(a) The board shall establish an advisory committee
14to assist, advise, and make recommendations for the
15implementation of rules and regulations necessary to ensure proper
16administration and enforcement of this chapter and to assist the
17board in its examination, licensure, and registration programs. The
18committee shall serve only in an advisory capacity to the board
19and the objectives, duties, and actions of the committee shall not
20be a substitute for or conflict with any of the powers, duties, and
21responsibilities of the board. The committee shall be known as the
22Veterinary Medicine Multidisciplinary Advisory Committee. The
23multidisciplinary committee shall consist of nine members. The
24following members of the multidisciplinary committee shall be
25appointed
by the board from lists of nominees solicited by the
26board: four licensed veterinarians, two registered veterinary
27technicians, and one public member. The committee shall also
28include one veterinarian member of the board, to be appointed by
29the board president, and the registered veterinary technician
30member of the board. Members of the multidisciplinary committee
31shall represent a sufficient cross section of the interests in
32veterinary medicine in order to address the issues before it, as
33determined by the board, including veterinarians, registered
34veterinary technicians, and members of the public.
35(b) Multidisciplinary committee members appointed by the
36board shall serve for a term of three years and appointments shall
37be staggered accordingly. A member may be reappointed, but no
38person shall serve as a member of the committee for more than
39
two consecutive terms. Vacancies occurring shall be filled by
40appointment for the unexpired term, within 90 days after they
P21 1occur. Board members of the multidisciplinary committee shall
2serve concurrently with their terms of office on the board.
3(c) The multidisciplinary committee shall be subject to the
4requirements of Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of
5Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government
6Code.
7(d) Multidisciplinary committee members shall receive a per
8diem as provided in Section 103 and shall be compensated for their
9actual travel expenses in accordance with the rules and regulations
10adopted by the Department of Human Resources.
11(e) The board may remove a member of the
multidisciplinary
12committee appointed by the board for continued neglect of a duty
13required by this chapter, for incompetency, or for unprofessional
14conduct.
15(f) It is the intent of the Legislature that the multidisciplinary
16committee, in implementing this section, give appropriate
17consideration to issues pertaining to the practice of registered
18veterinarian technicians.
Section 4836.1 of the Business and Professions Code
20 is amended to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a
22registered veterinary technician or a veterinary assistant may
23administer a drug, including, but not limited to, a drug that is a
24controlled substance, under the direct or indirect supervision of a
25licensed veterinarian when done pursuant to the order, control,
26and full professional responsibility of a licensed veterinarian.
27However, no person, other than a licensed veterinarian, may induce
28anesthesia unless authorized by regulation of the board.
29(b) Prior to authorizing a veterinary assistant to obtain or
30administer a controlled substance by the order of a supervising
31veterinarian, the licensee manager in a veterinary practice shall
32conduct
a background check on that veterinary assistant. A
33veterinary assistant who has a drug- or alcohol-related felony
34conviction, as indicated in the background check, shall be
35prohibited from obtaining or administering controlled substances.
36(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), if the Veterinary Medical
37Board, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, identifies a
38dangerous drug, as defined in Section 4022, as a drug that has an
39established pattern of being diverted, the Veterinary Medical Board
40may restrict access to that drug by veterinary assistants.
P22 1(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
2(1) “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as that term
3is defined in Section 11007 of the Health and Safety
Code.
4(2) “Direct supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
5defined in subdivision (e) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
6California Code of Regulations.
7(3) “Drug” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
8Section 11014 of the Health and Safety Code.
9(4) “Indirect supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
10defined in subdivision (f) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
11California Code of Regulations.
12(e) This section shall become inoperative on the later of January
131, 2015, or the date Section 4836.2 becomes operative, and, as of
14January 1 next following that date, is repealed, unless a later
15enacted statute, that becomes
operative on or before that date,
16deletes or extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative is
17
repealed.
Section 4836.1 is added to the Business and
19Professions Code, to read:
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, a registered
21veterinary technician or a veterinary assistant may administer a
22drug, including, but not limited to, a drug that is a controlled
23substance, under the direct or indirect supervision of a licensed
24veterinarian when done pursuant to the order, control, and full
25professional responsibility of a licensed veterinarian. However,
26no person, other than a licensed veterinarian, may induce anesthesia
27unless authorized by regulation of the board.
28(b) A veterinary assistant may obtain or administer a controlled
29substance pursuant to the order, control, and full professional
30responsibility of a licensed veterinarian, only if
he or she meets
31both of the following conditions:
32(1) Is designated by a licensed veterinarian to obtain or
33administer controlled substances.
34(2) Holds a valid veterinary assistant controlled substance permit
35issued pursuant to Section 4836.2.
36(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), if the Veterinary Medical
37Board, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, identifies a
38dangerous drug, as defined in Section 4022, as a drug that has an
39established pattern of being diverted, the Veterinary Medical Board
40may restrict access to that drug by veterinary assistants.
P23 1(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
2(1) “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as that term
3is defined in Section 11007 of the Health and Safety Code.
4(2) “Direct supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
5defined in subdivision (e) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
6California Code of Regulations.
7(3) “Drug” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
8Section 11014 of the Health and Safety Code.
9(4) “Indirect supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
10
defined in subdivision (f) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
11California Code of Regulations.
12(e) This section shall become operative on the date Section
134836.2 becomes operative.
Section 4836.2 is added to the Business and
15Professions Code, to read:
(a) Applications for a veterinary assistant controlled
17substance permit shall be upon a form furnished by the board.
18(b) The fee for filing an application for a veterinary assistant
19controlled substance permit shall be set by the board in an amount
20the board determines is reasonably necessary to provide sufficient
21funds to carry out the purposes of this section, not to exceed one
22hundred dollars ($100).
23(c) The board may deny, suspend, or revoke the controlled
24substance permit of a veterinary assistant after notice and hearing
25for any cause provided in this subdivision. The proceedings under
26this section
shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions
27for administrative adjudication in Chapter 5 (commencing with
28Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government
29Code, and the board shall have all the powers granted therein. The
30board may revoke or suspend a veterinary assistant controlled
31substance permit for any of the following reasons:
32(1) The employment of fraud, misrepresentation, or deception
33in obtaining a veterinary assistant controlled substance permit.
34(2) Chronic inebriety or habitual use of controlled substances.
35(3) Violating or attempts to violate, directly or indirectly, or
36assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate,
37any provision of this chapter, or of the regulations
adopted under
38this chapter.
P24 1(d) The board shall not issue a veterinary assistant controlled
2
substance permit to any applicant with a state or federal felony
3controlled substance conviction.
4(e) The board shall revoke a veterinary assistant controlled
5substance permit upon notification that the veterinary assistant to
6whom the license is issued has been convicted of a state or federal
7felony controlled substance violation.
8(f) (1) As part of the application for a veterinary assistant
9controlled substance permit, the applicant shall submit to the
10Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information,
11as required by the Department of Justice for all veterinary assistant
12applicants, for the purposes of obtaining information as to the
13existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions
14and state or federal arrests and
information as to the existence and
15content of a record of state or federal arrests for which the
16Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or
17on his or her own recognizance pending trial or appeal.
18(2) When received, the Department of Justice shall forward to
19the Federal Bureau of Investigation requests for federal summary
20criminal history information that it receives pursuant to this section.
21The Department of Justice shall review any information returned
22to it from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and compile and
23disseminate a response to the board summarizing that information.
24(3) The Department of Justice shall provide a state or federal
25level response to the board pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision
26(p) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code.
27(4) The Department of Justice shall charge a reasonable fee
28sufficient to cover the cost of processing the request described in
29this subdivision.
30(g) The board shall request from the Department of Justice
31subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section
3211105.2 of the Penal Code, for persons described in paragraph (1)
33of subdivision (f).
34(h) This section shall become operative upon the later of January
351, 2015, or the effective date of the statute in which the Legislature
36makes a determination that the board has sufficient staffing to
37implement this section.
Section 4836.3 is added to the Business and
39Professions Code, to read:
(a) Each person who has been issued a veterinary
2assistant controlled substance permit by the board pursuant to
3Section 4836.2 shall biennially apply for renewal of his or her
4permit on or before the last day of the applicant’s birthday month.
5The application shall be made on a form provided by the board.
6(b) The application shall contain a statement to the effect that
7the applicant has not been convicted of a felony, has not been the
8subject of professional disciplinary action taken by any public
9agency in California or any other state or territory, and has not
10violated any of the provisions of this chapter. If the applicant is
11unable to make that statement, the
application shall contain a
12statement of the conviction, professional discipline, or violation.
13(c) The board may, as part of the renewal process, make
14necessary inquiries of the applicant and conduct an investigation
15in order to determine if cause for disciplinary action exists.
16(d) The fee for filing an application for a renewal of a veterinary
17assistant controlled substance permit shall be set by the board in
18an amount the board determines is reasonably necessary to provide
19sufficient funds to carry out the purposes of this section, not to
20exceed fifty dollars ($50).
21(e) This section shall become operative on the date Section
224836.2 becomes operative.
Section 4836.4 is added to the Business and
24Professions Code, to read:
(a) Every person who has been issued a veterinary
26assistant controlled substance permit by the board pursuant to
27Section 4836.2 who changes his or her mailing or employer address
28shall notify the board of his or her new mailing or employer address
29within 30 days of the change. The board shall not renew the permit
30of any person who fails to comply with this section unless the
31person pays the penalty fee prescribed in Section 4842.5. An
32applicant for the renewal of a permit shall specify in his or her
33application whether he or she has changed his or her mailing or
34employer address and the board may accept that statement as
35evidence of the fact.
36(b) This section
shall become operative on the date Section
374836.2 becomes operative.
Section 11529 of the Government Code is amended
39to read:
(a) The administrative law judge of the Medical Quality
2Hearing Panel established pursuant to Section 11371 may issue
3an interim order suspending a license, or imposing drug testing,
4continuing education, supervision of procedures, or other license
5restrictions. Interim orders may be issued only if the affidavits in
6support of the petition show that the licensee has engaged in, or
7is about to engage in, acts or omissions constituting a violation of
8the Medical Practice Act or the appropriate practice act governing
9each allied health profession, or is unable to practice safely due to
10a mental or physical condition, and that permitting the licensee to
11continue to engage in the profession for which the license was
12issued
will endanger the public health, safety, or welfare. The
13failure to comply with an order issued pursuant to Section 820 of
14the Business and Professions Code may constitute grounds to issue
15an interim suspension order under this section.
16(b) All orders authorized by this section shall be issued only
17after a hearing conducted pursuant to subdivision (d), unless it
18appears from the facts shown by affidavit that serious injury would
19result to the public before the matter can be heard on notice. Except
20as provided in subdivision (c), the licensee shall receive at least
2115 days’ prior notice of the hearing, which notice shall include
22affidavits and all other information in support of the order.
23(c) If an interim order is issued without notice, the administrative
24law judge who issued the order
without notice shall cause the
25licensee to be notified of the order, including affidavits and all
26other information in support of the order by a 24-hour delivery
27service. That notice shall also include the date of the hearing on
28the order, which shall be conducted in accordance with the
29requirement of subdivision (d), not later than 20 days from the
30date of issuance. The order shall be dissolved unless the
31requirements of subdivision (a) are satisfied.
32(d) For the purposes of the hearing conducted pursuant to this
33section, the licentiate shall, at a minimum, have the following
34rights:
35(1) To be represented by counsel.
36(2) To have a record made of the proceedings, copies of which
37may be obtained by the licentiate
upon payment of any reasonable
38charges associated with the record.
39(3) To present written evidence in the form of relevant
40declarations, affidavits, and documents.
P27 1The discretion of the administrative law judge to permit
2testimony at the hearing conducted pursuant to this section shall
3be identical to the discretion of a superior court judge to permit
4testimony at a hearing conducted pursuant to Section 527 of the
5Code of Civil Procedure.
6(4) To present oral argument.
7(e) Consistent with the burden and standards of proof applicable
8to a preliminary injunction entered under Section 527 of the Code
9of Civil Procedure, the administrative law judge shall grant the
10interim
order where, in the exercise of discretion, the administrative
11law judge concludes that:
12(1) There is a reasonable probability that the petitioner will
13prevail in the underlying action.
14(2) The likelihood of injury to the public in not issuing the order
15outweighs the likelihood of injury to the licensee in issuing the
16order.
17(f) In all casesbegin delete whereend deletebegin insert in whichend insert an interim order is issued, and
18an accusation is not filed and served pursuant to Sections 11503
19and 11505 within 30 days of the datebegin delete inend deletebegin insert
onend insert which the parties to
20the hearing on the interim order have submitted the matter, the
21order shall be dissolved.
22Upon service of the accusation the licensee shall have, in addition
23to the rights granted by this section, all of the rights and privileges
24available as specified in this chapter. If the licensee requests a
25hearing on the accusation, the board shall provide the licensee with
26a hearing within 30 days of the request, unless the licensee
27stipulates to a later hearing, and a decision within 15 days of the
28date the decision is received from the administrative law judge, or
29the board shall nullify the interim order previously issued, unless
30
good cause can be shown by the Division of Medical Quality for
31a delay.
32(g) begin deleteWhere end deletebegin insertIf end insertan interim order is issued, a written decision shall
33be prepared within 15 days of the hearing, by the administrative
34law judge, including findings of fact and a conclusion articulating
35the connection between the evidence produced at the hearing and
36the decision reached.
37(h) Notwithstanding the fact that interim orders issued pursuant
38to this section are not issued after a hearing as otherwise required
39by this chapter, interim orders so issued shall be subject to judicial
40review pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the
Code of Civil Procedure.
P28 1The reliefbegin delete whichend deletebegin insert thatend insert may be ordered shall be limited to a stay of
2the interim order. Interim orders issued pursuant to this section
3are final interim orders and, if not dissolved pursuant to subdivision
4(c) or (f), may only be challenged administratively at the hearing
5on the accusation.
6(i) The interim order provided for by this section shall be:
7(1) In addition to, and not a limitation on, the authority to seek
8injunctive relief provided for in the Business and Professions Code.
9(2) A limitation on the emergency decision
procedure provided
10in Article 13 (commencing with Section 11460.10) of Chapter 4.5.
begin insertSection 11529 of the end insertbegin insertGovernment Codeend insertbegin insert is amended
12to read:end insert
(a) The administrative law judge of the Medical Quality
14Hearing Panel established pursuant to Section 11371 may issue
15an interim order suspending a license,begin delete orend delete imposing drug testing,
16continuing education, supervision of procedures,begin insert limitations on
17the authority to prescribe, furnish, administer, or dispense
18controlled substances,end insert or other license restrictions. Interim orders
19may be issued only if the affidavits in support of the petition show
20that the licensee has engaged in, or is about to engage in, acts or
21omissions constituting a violation of the Medical Practice Act or
22the appropriate practice
act governing each allied health profession,
23or is unable to practice safely due to a mental or physical condition,
24and that permitting the licensee to continue to engage in the
25profession for which the license was issued will endanger the
26public health, safety, or welfare.begin insert end insertbegin insertThe failure to comply with an
27order issued pursuant to Section 820 of the Business and
28Professions Code may constitute grounds to issue an interim
29suspension order under this section.end insert
30(b) All orders authorized by this section shall be issued only
31after a hearing conducted pursuant to subdivision (d), unless it
32appears from the facts shown by affidavit that serious injury would
33result to the public before the matter can be heard on notice. Except
34as provided in
subdivision (c), the licensee shall receive at least
3515 days’ prior notice of the hearing, which notice shall include
36affidavits and all other information in support of the order.
37(c) If an interim order is issued without notice, the administrative
38law judge who issued the order without notice shall cause the
39licensee to be notified of the order, including affidavits and all
40other information in support of the order by a 24-hour delivery
P29 1service. That notice shall also include the date of the hearing on
2the order, which shall be conducted in accordance with the
3requirement of subdivision (d), not later than 20 days from the
4date of issuance. The order shall be dissolved unless the
5requirements of subdivision (a) are satisfied.
6(d) For the purposes of the hearing conducted pursuant to this
7section, the licentiate shall, at a minimum, have the following
8rights:
9(1) To be represented by counsel.
10(2) To have a record made of the proceedings, copies of which
11may be obtained by the licentiate upon payment of any reasonable
12charges associated with the record.
13(3) To present written evidence in the form of relevant
14declarations, affidavits, and documents.
15The discretion of the administrative law judge to permit
16testimony at the hearing conducted pursuant to this section shall
17be identical to the discretion of a superior court judge to permit
18testimony at a hearing conducted pursuant to Section 527 of the
19Code of Civil Procedure.
20(4) To present oral argument.
21(e) Consistent with the burden and standards of proof
applicable
22to a preliminary injunction entered under Section 527 of the Code
23of Civil Procedure, the administrative law judge shall grant the
24interim orderbegin delete whereend deletebegin insert ifend insert, in the exercise of discretion, the
25administrative law judge concludes that:
26(1) There is a reasonable probability that the petitioner will
27prevail in the underlying action.
28(2) The likelihood of injury to the public in not issuing the order
29outweighs the likelihood of injury to the licensee in issuing the
30order.
31(f) In all casesbegin delete whereend deletebegin insert
in whichend insert an interim order is issued, and
32an accusation is not filed and served pursuant to Sections 11503
33and 11505 withinbegin delete 15end deletebegin insert 30end insert days of the datebegin delete inend deletebegin insert onend insert which the parties
34to the hearing on the interim order have submitted the matter, the
35order shall be dissolved.
36Upon service of the accusation the licensee shall have, in addition
37to the rights granted by this section, all of the rights and privileges
38available as specified in this chapter. If the licensee requests a
39hearing on the accusation, the board shall provide the licensee with
40a hearing
within 30 days of the request, unless the licensee
P30 1stipulates to a later hearing, and a decision within 15 days of the
2date the decision is received from the administrative law judge, or
3the board shall nullify the interim order previously issued, unless
4good cause can be shown by the Division of Medical Quality for
5a delay.
6(g) begin deleteWhere end deletebegin insertIf end insertan interim order is issued, a written decision shall
7be prepared within 15 days of the hearing, by the administrative
8law judge, including findings of fact and a conclusion articulating
9the connection between the evidence produced at the hearing and
10the decision reached.
11(h) Notwithstanding the fact that interim orders issued pursuant
12to this section are not
issued after a hearing as otherwise required
13by this chapter, interim orders so issued shall be subject to judicial
14review pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
15The reliefbegin delete whichend deletebegin insert
thatend insert may be ordered shall be limited to a stay of
16the interim order. Interim orders issued pursuant to this section
17are final interim orders and, if not dissolved pursuant to subdivision
18(c) or (f), may only be challenged administratively at the hearing
19on the accusation.
20(i) The interim order provided for by this section shall be:
21(1) In addition to, and not a limitation on, the authority to seek
22injunctive relief provided for in the Business and Professions Code.
23(2) A limitation on the emergency decision procedure provided
24in Article 13 (commencing with Section 11460.10) of Chapter 4.5.
Section 12529
of the Government Code, as amended
26by Section 112 of Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended
27to read:
(a) There is in the Department of Justice the Health
29Quality Enforcement Section. The primary responsibility of the
30section is to investigate and prosecute proceedings against licensees
31and applicants within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of
32California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Board
33of Psychology,begin insert the Physical Therapy Board of California,end insert or any
34committee under the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of
35California.
36(b) The Attorney General shall appoint a Senior Assistant
37Attorney General of the Health Quality Enforcement Section. The
38Senior Assistant Attorney
General of the Health Quality
39Enforcement Section shall be an attorney in good standing licensed
40to practice in the State of California, experienced in prosecutorial
P31 1or administrative disciplinary proceedings and competent in the
2management and supervision of attorneys performing those
3functions.
4(c) The Attorney General shall ensure that the Health Quality
5Enforcement Section is staffed with a sufficient number of
6experienced and able employees that are capable of handling the
7most complex and varied types of disciplinary actions against the
8licensees of thebegin delete board.end deletebegin insert boards.end insert
9(d) Funding for the Health
Quality Enforcement Section shall
10be budgeted in consultation with the Attorney General from the
11special funds financing the operations of the Medical Board of
12California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Board
13of Psychology,begin insert the Physical Therapy Board of California,end insert and the
14committees under the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of
15California, with the intent that the expenses be proportionally
16shared as to services rendered.
Section 12529 of the Government Code, as amended
18by
Section 113 of Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 2012, is repealed.
Section 12529.5 of the Government Code, as amended
20by
Section 114 of Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended
21to read:
(a) All complaints or relevant information concerning
23licensees that are within the jurisdiction of the Medical Board of
24California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine,begin delete orend delete the
25Board ofbegin delete Psychologyend deletebegin insert Psychology, or the Physical Therapy Board
26of Californiaend insert shall be made available to the Health Quality
27Enforcement Section.
28(b) The Senior Assistant Attorney General of the Health Quality
29Enforcement Section shall assign attorneys to work on location
at
30the intake unit of the boards described in subdivision (a) to assist
31in evaluating and screening complaints and to assist in developing
32uniform standards and procedures for processing complaints.
33(c) The Senior Assistant Attorney General or his or her deputy
34attorneys general shall assist the boardsbegin delete or committeesend delete in designing
35and providing initial and in-service training programs for staff of
36thebegin delete boards or committees,end deletebegin insert boards,end insert including, but not limited to,
37information collection and investigation.
38(d) The determination to bring a
disciplinary proceeding against
39a licensee of the boards shall be made by the executive officer of
P32 1the boardsbegin delete or committeesend delete as appropriate in consultation with the
2senior assistant.
Section 12529.5 of the Government Code, as amended
4by
Section 115 of Chapter 332 of the Statutes of 2012, is repealed.
Section 12529.6 of the Government Code is amended
6to read:
(a) The Legislature finds and declares that the
8Medical Board of California, by ensuring the quality and safety
9of medical care, performs one of the most critical functions of state
10government. Because of the critical importance of the board’s
11public health and safety function, the complexity of cases involving
12alleged misconduct by physicians and surgeons, and the evidentiary
13burden in the board’s disciplinary cases, the Legislature finds and
14declares that using a vertical enforcement and prosecution model
15for those investigations is in the best interests of the people of
16California.
17(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, as of January
181, 2006, each complaint that
is referred to a district office of the
19board for investigation shall be simultaneously and jointly assigned
20to an investigator and to the deputy attorney general in the Health
21Quality Enforcement Section responsible for prosecuting the case
22if the investigation results in the filing of an accusation. The joint
23assignment of the investigator and the deputy attorney general
24shall exist for the duration of the disciplinary matter. During the
25assignment, the investigator so assigned shall, under the direction
26but not the supervision of the deputy attorney general, be
27responsible for obtaining the evidence required to permit the
28Attorney General to advise the board on legal matters such as
29whether the board should file a formal accusation, dismiss the
30complaint for a lack of evidence required to meet the applicable
31burden of proof, or take other appropriate legal action.
32(c) The Medical Board of California, the Department of
33Consumer Affairs, and the Office of the Attorney General shall,
34if necessary, enter into an interagency agreement to implement
35this section.
36(d) This section does not affect the requirements of Section
3712529.5 as applied to the Medical Board of California where
38complaints that have not been assigned to a field office for
39investigation are concerned.
P33 1(e) It is the intent of the Legislature to enhance the vertical
2enforcement and prosecution model as set forth in subdivision (a).
3The Medical Board of California shall do all of the following:
4(1) Increase its computer capabilities and compatibilities with
5the Health Quality Enforcement Section in order to
share case
6information.
7(2) Establish and implement a plan to locate its enforcement
8staff and the staff of the Health Quality Enforcement Section in
9the same offices, as appropriate, in order to carry out the intent of
10the vertical enforcement and prosecution model.
11(3) Establish and implement a plan to assist in team building
12between its enforcement staff and the staff of the Health Quality
13Enforcement Section in order to ensure a common and consistent
14knowledge base.
Section 12529.7 of the Government Code is amended
16to read:
By March 1, 2015, the Medical Board of California,
18in consultation with the Department of Justice and the Department
19of Consumer Affairs, shall report and make recommendations to
20the Governor and the Legislature on the vertical enforcement and
21prosecution model created under Section 12529.6.
Section 1248.15 of the Health and Safety Code is
23amended to read:
(a) The board shall adopt standards for accreditation
25and, in approving accreditation agencies to perform accreditation
26of outpatient settings, shall ensure that the certification program
27shall, at a minimum, include standards for the following aspects
28of the settings’ operations:
29(1) Outpatient setting allied health staff shall be licensed or
30certified to the extent required by state or federal law.
31(2) (A) Outpatient settings shall have a system for facility safety
32and emergency training requirements.
33(B) There shall be onsite equipment,
medication, and trained
34personnel to facilitate handling of services sought or provided and
35to facilitate handling of any medical emergency that may arise in
36connection with services sought or provided.
37(C) In order for procedures to be performed in an outpatient
38setting as defined in Section 1248, the outpatient setting shall do
39one of the following:
P34 1(i) Have a written transfer agreement with a local accredited or
2licensed acute care hospital, approved by the facility’s medical
3staff.
4(ii) Permit surgery only by a licensee who has admitting
5privileges at a local accredited or licensed acute care hospital, with
6the exception that licensees who may be precluded from having
7admitting privileges by their professional
classification or other
8administrative limitations, shall have a written transfer agreement
9with licensees who have admitting privileges at local accredited
10or licensed acute care hospitals.
11(iii) Submit for approval by an accrediting agency a detailed
12procedural plan for handling medical emergencies that shall be
13reviewed at the time of accreditation. No reasonable plan shall be
14disapproved by the accrediting agency.
15(D) In addition to the requirements imposed in subparagraph
16(C), the outpatient setting shall submit for approval by an
17accreditation agency at the time of accreditation a detailed plan,
18standardized procedures, and protocols to be followed in the event
19of serious complications or side effects from surgery that would
20place a patient at high risk for injury or harm
or to govern
21emergency and urgent care situations. The plan shall include, at a
22minimum, that if a patient is being transferred to a local accredited
23or licensed acute care hospital, the outpatient setting shall do all
24of the following:
25(i) Notify the individual designated by the patient to be notified
26in case of an emergency.
27(ii) Ensure that the mode of transfer is consistent with the
28patient’s medical condition.
29(iii) Ensure that all relevant clinical information is documented
30and accompanies the patient at the time of transfer.
31(iv) Continue to provide appropriate care to the patient until the
32transfer is effectuated.
33(E) All physicians and surgeons transferring patients from an
34outpatient setting shall agree to cooperate with the medical staff
35peer review process on the transferred case, the results of which
36shall be referred back to the outpatient setting, if deemed
37appropriate by the medical staff peer review committee. If the
38medical staff of the acute care facility determines that inappropriate
39care was delivered at the outpatient setting, the acute care facility’s
P35 1peer review outcome shall be reported, as appropriate, to the
2accrediting body or in accordance with existing law.
3(3) The outpatient setting shall permit surgery by a dentist acting
4within his or her scope of practice under Chapter 4 (commencing
5with Section 1600) of Division 2 of the Business and Professions
6Code or physician
and surgeon, osteopathic physician and surgeon,
7or podiatrist acting within his or her scope of practice under
8Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 2000) of Division 2 of the
9Business and Professions Code or the Osteopathic Initiative Act.
10The outpatient setting may, in its discretion, permit anesthesia
11service by a certified registered nurse anesthetist acting within his
12or her scope of practice under Article 7 (commencing with Section
132825) of Chapter 6 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions
14Code.
15(4) Outpatient settings shall have a system for maintaining
16clinical records.
17(5) Outpatient settings shall have a system for patient care and
18monitoring procedures.
19(6) (A) Outpatient
settings shall have a system for quality
20assessment and improvement.
21(B) Members of the medical staff and other practitioners who
22are granted clinical privileges shall be professionally qualified and
23appropriately credentialed for the performance of privileges
24granted. The outpatient setting shall grant privileges in accordance
25with recommendations from qualified health professionals, and
26credentialing standards established by the outpatient setting.
27(C) Clinical privileges shall be periodically reappraised by the
28outpatient setting. The scope of procedures performed in the
29outpatient setting shall be periodically reviewed and amended as
30appropriate.
31(7) Outpatient settings regulated by this chapter that have
32multiple
service locations shall have all of the sites inspected.
33(8) Outpatient settings shall post the certificate of accreditation
34in a location readily visible to patients and staff.
35(9) Outpatient settings shall post the name and telephone number
36of the accrediting agency with instructions on the submission of
37complaints in a location readily visible to patients and staff.
38(10) Outpatient settings shall have a written discharge criteria.
39(b) Outpatient settings shall have a minimum of two staff
40persons on the premises, one of whom shall either be a licensed
P36 1physician and surgeon or a licensed health care professional with
2current certification in advanced cardiac life support
(ACLS), as
3long as a patient is present who has not been discharged from
4supervised care. Transfer to an unlicensed setting of a patient who
5does not meet the discharge criteria adopted pursuant to paragraph
6(10) of subdivision (a) shall constitute unprofessional conduct.
7(c) An accreditation agency may include additional standards
8in its determination to accredit outpatient settings if these are
9approved by the board to protect the public health and safety.
10(d) No accreditation standard adopted or approved by the board,
11and no standard included in any certification program of any
12
accreditation agency approved by the board, shall serve to limit
13the ability of any allied health care practitioner to provide services
14within his or her full scope of practice. Notwithstanding this or
15any other provision of law, each outpatient setting may limit the
16privileges, or determine the privileges, within the appropriate scope
17of practice, that will be afforded to physicians and allied health
18care practitioners who practice at the facility, in accordance with
19credentialing standards established by the outpatient setting in
20compliance with this chapter. Privileges may not be arbitrarily
21restricted based on category of licensure.
22(e) The board shall adopt standards that it deems necessary for
23outpatient settings that offer in vitro fertilization.
24(f) The board
may adopt regulations it deems necessary to
25specify procedures that should be performed in an accredited
26outpatient setting for facilities or clinics that are outside the
27definition of outpatient setting as specified in Section 1248.
28(g) As part of the accreditation process, the accrediting agency
29shall conduct a reasonable investigation of the prior history of the
30outpatient setting, including all licensed physicians and surgeons
31who have an ownership interest therein, to determine whether there
32have been any adverse accreditation decisions rendered against
33them. For the purposes of this section, “conducting a reasonable
34investigation” means querying the Medical Board of California
35and the Osteopathic Medical Board of California to ascertain if
36either the outpatient setting has, or, if its owners are licensed
37physicians and surgeons, if
those physicians and surgeons have,
38been subject to an adverse accreditation decision.
Section 830.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
The following persons are peace officers whose authority
2extends to any place in the state for the purpose of performing
3their primary duty or when making an arrest pursuant to Section
4836 as to any public offense with respect to which there is
5immediate danger to person or property, or of the escape of the
6perpetrator of that offense, or pursuant to Section 8597 or 8598 of
7the Government Code. These peace officers may carry firearms
8only if authorized and under those terms and conditions as specified
9by their employing agencies:
10(a) Persons employed by the Division of Investigation of the
11Department of Consumer Affairs and investigators of the Medical
12Board of California and the Board of Dental
Examiners, who are
13designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs, provided that the
14
primary duty of these peace officers shall be the enforcement of
15the law as that duty is set forth in Section 160 of the Business and
16Professions Code.
17(b) Voluntary fire wardens designated by the Director of
18Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 4156 of the Public
19Resources Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace
20officers shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
21in Section 4156 of that code.
22(c) Employees of the Department of Motor Vehicles designated
23in Section 1655 of the Vehicle Code, provided that the primary
24duty of these peace officers shall be the enforcement of the law as
25that duty is set forth in Section 1655 of that code.
26(d) Investigators of the California
Horse Racing Board
27designated by the board, provided that the primary duty of these
28peace officers shall be the enforcement of Chapter 4 (commencing
29with Section 19400) of Division 8 of the Business and Professions
30Code and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 330) of Title 9
31of Part 1 of this code.
32(e) The State Fire Marshal and assistant or deputy state fire
33marshals appointed pursuant to Section 13103 of the Health and
34Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers
35shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in
36Section 13104 of that code.
37(f) Inspectors of the food and drug section designated by the
38chief pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 106500 of the Health
39and Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace
P38 1officers
shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
2in Section 106500 of that code.
3(g) All investigators of the Division of Labor Standards
4
Enforcement designated by the Labor Commissioner, provided
5that the primary duty of these peace officers shall be the
6enforcement of the law as prescribed in Section 95 of the Labor
7Code.
8(h) All investigators of the State Departments of Health Care
9Services, Public Health, Social Services, Mental Health, and
10Alcohol and Drug Programs, the Department of Toxic Substances
11Control, the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development,
12and the Public Employees’ Retirement System, provided that the
13primary duty of these peace officers shall be the enforcement of
14the law relating to the duties of his or her department or office.
15Notwithstanding any other provision of law, investigators of the
16Public Employees’ Retirement System shall not carry firearms.
17(i) The Chief of the Bureau of Fraudulent Claims of the
18Department of Insurance and those investigators designated by the
19chief, provided that the primary duty of those investigators shall
20be the enforcement of Section 550.
21(j) Employees of the Department of Housing and Community
22Development designated under Section 18023 of the Health and
23Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers
24shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in
25Section 18023 of that code.
26(k) Investigators of the office of the Controller, provided that
27the primary duty of these investigators shall be the enforcement
28of the law relating to the duties of that office. Notwithstanding any
29other law, except as authorized by the Controller, the peace officers
30designated
pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
31(l) Investigators of the Department of Business Oversight
32designated by the Commissioner of Business Oversight, provided
33that the primary duty of these investigators shall be the enforcement
34of the provisions of law administered by the Department of
35Business Oversight. Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
36the peace officers designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not
37carry firearms.
38(m) Persons employed by the Contractors State License Board
39designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs pursuant to Section
407011.5 of the Business and Professions Code, provided that the
P39 1primary duty of these persons shall be the enforcement of the law
2as that duty is set forth in Section 7011.5, and in Chapter 9
3(commencing
with Section 7000) of Division 3, of that code. The
4Director of Consumer Affairs may designate as peace officers not
5more than 12 persons who shall at the time of their designation be
6assigned to the special investigations unit of the board.
7Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the persons designated
8pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
9(n) The Chief and coordinators of the Law Enforcement Branch
10of the Office of Emergency Services.
11(o) Investigators of the office of the Secretary of State designated
12by the Secretary of State, provided that the primary duty of these
13peace officers shall be the enforcement of the law as prescribed
14in Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 8200) of Division 1 of
15Title 2 of, and Section 12172.5 of, the Government Code.
16Notwithstanding
any other provision of law, the peace officers
17designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
18(p) The Deputy Director for Security designated by Section
198880.38 of the Government Code, and all lottery security personnel
20assigned to the California State Lottery and designated by the
21director, provided that the primary duty of any of those peace
22officers shall be the enforcement of the laws related to assuring
23the integrity, honesty, and fairness of the operation and
24administration of the California State Lottery.
25(q) Investigators employed by the Investigation Division of the
26Employment Development Department designated by the director
27of the department, provided that the primary duty of those peace
28officers shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
29in
Section 317 of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
30Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the peace officers
31designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
32(r) The chief and assistant chief of museum security and safety
33of the California Science Center, as designated by the executive
34director pursuant to Section 4108 of the Food and Agricultural
35Code, provided that the primary duty of those peace officers shall
36be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in Section
374108 of the Food and Agricultural Code.
38(s) Employees of the Franchise Tax Board designated by the
39board, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers shall
40be the enforcement of the law as set forth in Chapter 9
P40 1(commencing with Section
19701) of Part 10.2 of Division 2 of
2the Revenue and Taxation Code.
3(t) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a peace
4officer authorized by this section shall not be authorized to carry
5firearms by his or her employing agency until that agency has
6adopted a policy on the use of deadly force by those peace officers,
7and until those peace officers have been instructed in the employing
8agency’s policy on the use of deadly force.
9Every peace officer authorized pursuant to this section to carry
10firearms by his or her employing agency shall qualify in the use
11of the firearms at least every six months.
12(u) Investigators of the Department of Managed Health Care
13designated by the Director of the Department of Managed Health
14Care,
provided that the primary duty of these investigators shall
15be the enforcement of the provisions of laws administered by the
16Director of the Department of Managed Health Care.
17Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the peace officers
18designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
19(v) The Chief, Deputy Chief, supervising investigators, and
20investigators of the Office of Protective Services of the State
21Department of Developmental Services, provided that the primary
22duty of each of those persons shall be the enforcement of the law
23relating to the duties of his or her department or office.
24(w) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2014, and,
25as of January 1, 2015, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
26that becomes operative on or before
January 1, 2015, deletes or
27extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
Section 830.3 is added to the Penal Code, to read:
The following persons are peace officers whose authority
30extends to any place in the state for the purpose of performing
31their primary duty or when making an arrest pursuant to Section
32836 as to any public offense with respect to which there is
33immediate danger to person or property, or of the escape of the
34perpetrator of that offense, or pursuant to Section 8597 or 8598 of
35the Government Code. These peace officers may carry firearms
36only if authorized and under those terms and conditions as specified
37by their employing agencies:
38(a) Persons employed by the Division of Investigation of the
39Department of Consumer Affairs and investigators of the Board
40of Dental Examiners, who are designated by the
Director of
P41 1Consumer Affairs, provided that the primary duty of these peace
2officers shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
3in Section 160 of the Business and Professions Code.
4(b) Voluntary fire wardens designated by the Director of
5Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 4156 of the Public
6Resources Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace
7officers shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
8in Section 4156 of that code.
9(c) Employees of the Department of Motor Vehicles designated
10in Section 1655 of the Vehicle Code, provided that the primary
11duty of these peace officers shall be the enforcement of the law as
12that duty is set forth in Section 1655 of that code.
13(d) Investigators of the California Horse Racing Board
14
designated by the board, provided that the primary duty of these
15peace officers shall be the enforcement of Chapter 4 (commencing
16with Section 19400) of Division 8 of the Business and Professions
17Code and Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 330) of Title 9
18of Part 1 of this code.
19(e) The State Fire Marshal and assistant or deputy state fire
20marshals appointed pursuant to Section 13103 of the Health and
21Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers
22shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in
23Section 13104 of that code.
24(f) Inspectors of the food and drug section designated by the
25chief pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 106500 of the Health
26and Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace
27officers shall
be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
28in Section 106500 of that code.
29(g) All investigators of the Division of Labor Standards
30Enforcement designated by the Labor Commissioner, provided
31that the primary duty of these peace officers shall be the
32enforcement of the law as prescribed in Section 95 of the Labor
33Code.
34(h) All investigators of the State Departments of Health Care
35Services, Public Health, Social Services, Mental Health, and
36Alcohol and Drug Programs, the Department of Toxic Substances
37Control, the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development,
38and the Public Employees’ Retirement System, provided that the
39primary duty of these peace officers shall be the enforcement of
40the law relating to the duties of his or her department or office.
P42 1Notwithstanding
any other provision of law, investigators of the
2Public Employees’ Retirement System shall not carry firearms.
3(i) The Chief of the Bureau of Fraudulent Claims of the
4Department of Insurance and those investigators designated by the
5chief, provided that the primary duty of those investigators shall
6be the enforcement of Section 550.
7(j) Employees of the Department of Housing and Community
8Development designated under Section 18023 of the Health and
9Safety Code, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers
10shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in
11Section 18023 of that code.
12(k) Investigators of the office of the Controller, provided that
13the primary duty of these investigators shall be
the enforcement
14of the law relating to the duties of that office. Notwithstanding any
15other law, except as authorized by the Controller, the peace officers
16designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
17(l) Investigators of the Department of Business Oversight
18designated by the Commissioner of Business Oversight, provided
19that the primary duty of these investigators shall be the enforcement
20of the provisions of law administered by the Department of
21Business Oversight. Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
22the peace officers designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not
23carry firearms.
24(m) Persons employed by the Contractors State License Board
25designated by the Director of Consumer Affairs pursuant to Section
267011.5 of the Business and
Professions Code, provided that the
27primary duty of these persons shall be the enforcement of the law
28as that duty is set forth in Section 7011.5, and in Chapter 9
29(commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3, of that code. The
30Director of Consumer Affairs may designate as peace officers not
31more than 12 persons who shall at the time of their designation be
32assigned to the special investigations unit of the board.
33Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the persons designated
34pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
35(n) The Chief and coordinators of the Law Enforcement Branch
36of the Office of Emergency Services.
37(o) Investigators of the office of the Secretary of State designated
38by the Secretary of State, provided that the primary duty of these
39peace
officers shall be the enforcement of the law as prescribed
40in Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 8200) of Division 1 of
P43 1Title 2 of, and Section 12172.5 of, the Government Code.
2Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the peace officers
3designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
4(p) The Deputy Director for Security designated by Section
58880.38 of the Government Code, and all lottery security personnel
6assigned to the California State Lottery and designated by the
7director, provided that the primary duty of any of those peace
8officers shall be the enforcement of the laws related to assuring
9the integrity, honesty, and fairness of the operation and
10administration of the California State Lottery.
11(q) Investigators employed by the Investigation Division of the
12Employment
Development Department designated by the director
13of the department, provided that the primary duty of those peace
14officers shall be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth
15in Section 317 of the Unemployment Insurance Code.
16Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the peace officers
17designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
18(r) The chief and assistant chief of museum security and safety
19of the California Science Center, as designated by the executive
20director pursuant to Section 4108 of the Food and Agricultural
21Code, provided that the primary duty of those peace officers shall
22be the enforcement of the law as that duty is set forth in Section
234108 of the Food and Agricultural Code.
24(s) Employees of the
Franchise Tax Board designated by the
25board, provided that the primary duty of these peace officers shall
26be the enforcement of the law as set forth in Chapter 9
27(commencing with Section 19701) of Part 10.2 of Division 2 of
28the Revenue and Taxation Code.
29(t) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a peace
30officer authorized by this section shall not be authorized to carry
31firearms by his or her employing agency until that agency has
32adopted a policy on the use of deadly force by those peace officers,
33and until those peace officers have been instructed in the employing
34agency’s policy on the use of deadly force.
35Every peace officer authorized pursuant to this section to carry
36firearms by his or her employing agency shall qualify in the use
37of the firearms at least every six months.
38(u) Investigators of the Department of Managed Health Care
39designated by the Director of the Department of Managed Health
40Care, provided that the primary duty of these investigators shall
P44 1be the enforcement of the provisions of laws administered by the
2Director of the Department of Managed Health Care.
3Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the peace officers
4designated pursuant to this subdivision shall not carry firearms.
5(v) The Chief, Deputy Chief, supervising investigators, and
6investigators of the Office of Protective Services of the State
7Department of Developmental Services, provided that the primary
8duty of each of those persons shall be the enforcement of the law
9relating to the duties of his or her department or office.
10(w) This section shall become operative July 1, 2014.
Section 29.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to
12Section 11529 of the Government Code proposed by both this bill
13and Senate Bill 670. It shall only become operative if (1) both bills
14are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2014,
15(2) each bill amends Section 11529 of the Government Code, and
16(3) this bill is enacted after Senate Bill 670, in which case Section
1729 of this bill shall not become operative.
No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to
20Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because
21the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school
22district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or
23infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty
24for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of
25the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within
26the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California
27Constitution.
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94